Cloud Security and Serverless Architecture Flashcards
You are developing a service that process user request and responds to the client with the result. Your service relies on another microservice that provides data to process user request. The client has strict SLAs of latency and your service needs to comply to it. You can not control the performance of the other microservice on which your processing depends. You can, however, respond to the client by serving data from cache if the other microservice doesn’t respond within SLAs. Which service microservice pattern helps you meet this requirement.
A) Circuit Breaking
B) Anti-Corruption pattern
C) Service discovery
A) Circuit Breaking.
Here’s a breakdown of why Circuit Breaking is the best choice:
Circuit Breaker Pattern:
Monitors the health of the dependent microservice (data provider).
If the dependent service consistently fails to respond within SLAs (trips the circuit), the circuit breaker initiates fallback behavior:
In your case, serving data from the cache.
This helps maintain low latency for the client by avoiding delays caused by a slow or unavailable dependent service.
Once the dependent service recovers, the circuit breaker can be reset, allowing your service to resume normal communication with it.
Explanation of why other options are not as suitable:
B) Anti-Corruption Pattern:
Focuses on adapting data formats and communication styles between different services to ensure compatibility.
While it might be relevant in general microservice communication, it doesn’t directly address the specific issue of handling slow or unavailable dependencies for maintaining low latency.
C) Service Discovery:
Helps locate and connect to instances of the dependent service.
Essential for service communication itself, but doesn’t provide a mechanism for handling slow responses or timeouts in the context of maintaining SLAs.
Additional Considerations:
Cache Invalidation Strategy:
Ensure your cache is invalidated or refreshed periodically to reflect updates in the dependent service’s data.
Consider cache invalidation mechanisms based on the data’s volatility and the impact of stale data on your application.
Circuit Breaker Configuration:
Fine-tune the circuit breaker parameters (e.g., timeout, number of retries) to balance responsiveness and resilience based on your specific SLAs and service behavior.
By effectively implementing the Circuit Breaking pattern, you can achieve:
Improved Client SLAs: Meeting the client’s strict latency requirements by serving cached data when the dependent service is slow.
Enhanced Service Resilience: Mitigating the impact of failures or slow responses in the dependent service on your service’s overall performance.
Which of these traits is a benefit of a serverless architecture?
A) Reduced cost because you only pay when your code runs
B) Improved scalability that enables you to serve extremely active traffic periods
C) Faster workflows for IT departments due to less worry about server obligations
D) All the above
D) All the above
Here’s why each trait is a benefit of serverless architecture:
Reduced cost because you only pay when your code runs: Serverless providers charge based on the execution time and resources used by your code. This eliminates the need to pay for idle servers, leading to significant cost savings, especially for applications with variable traffic.
Improved scalability that enables you to serve extremely active traffic periods: Serverless architecture automatically scales up or down based on demand. This ensures your application can handle spikes in traffic without manual intervention. You don’t have to worry about provisioning or managing servers, allowing your application to seamlessly handle high concurrency.
Faster workflows for IT departments due to less worry about server obligations: Serverless removes the burden of server management from IT teams. They can focus on developing and deploying code instead of managing infrastructure. This frees up valuable resources and accelerates development cycles.
Serverless is a good choice for an application in which of these cases?
A) When the app’s event processing is resource-intensive
B) When the app’s event processing is not resource-intensive
C) When you have an app that requires low latency
D) When you have an app that is consistently bombarded with events
B) When the app’s event processing is not resource-intensive
Explanation:
A) When the app’s event processing is resource-intensive:
Serverless architectures, such as AWS Lambda, are typically not well-suited for resource-intensive tasks due to limitations in execution time, memory, and CPU resources. For resource-intensive processing, dedicated servers or containers might be more appropriate.
B) When the app’s event processing is not resource-intensive:
Serverless is ideal for lightweight, short-lived tasks that don’t require significant computational resources. It allows you to scale automatically and only pay for the actual compute time consumed, making it cost-effective for such scenarios.
C) When you have an app that requires low latency:
Serverless functions can sometimes introduce latency, especially if the function has not been invoked recently and needs to be “warmed up.” For applications requiring consistently low latency, traditional server-based or containerized solutions might be more reliable.
D) When you have an app that is consistently bombarded with events:
While serverless can handle bursts of events efficiently due to its auto-scaling nature, consistently high event rates might lead to higher costs and potential throttling issues. In such cases, a more predictable and controlled environment might be preferable.
In summary, serverless is best suited for applications with non-resource-intensive event processing, providing cost efficiency and scalability for such use cases.
A serverless architecture can be problematic to debug.
A) False
B) True
B) True
Debugging in a serverless architecture can indeed be challenging due to factors like:
Decentralized Execution: Functions are often executed in a distributed environment, which can make it harder to trace the flow of execution and understand the interactions between different components.
Statelessness: Serverless functions are typically stateless, so debugging may involve reconstructing state from logs or external storage, which can be complex.
Cold Starts: The latency involved in cold starts can affect the debugging process and make it harder to reproduce specific issues consistently.
Limited Execution Context: The ephemeral nature of serverless functions means that you might have limited access to debugging tools or live execution contexts.
If the circuit in your code is closed. This indicates that your service is not responding to the clients with normal behavior.
A) False
B) True
B) False
In the context of microservices and distributed systems, a “circuit closed” state often refers to the Circuit Breaker pattern. When a circuit breaker is “closed,” it means the system is operating normally and requests are being allowed to pass through.
If the circuit were “open,” it would indicate that the service is currently not responding as expected, and requests are being blocked to prevent further strain on the failing service and to allow it time to recover.
So, if a circuit is in the “closed” state, it suggests that the service is behaving normally and is able to handle requests as expected. If it were in an “open” state, it would indicate a problem.
Which of the following is true for data governance and data management?
A) Data management is about the policies, procedures, and the work flows that support management of information.
B) Data Management falls more on the IT side helping to enable data governance.
C) Data governance falls more on the IT side helping to enable data governance.
D) Data Governance is about the policies, procedures, and the work flows that support management of information.
B) Data Management falls more on the IT side helping to enable data governance.
D) Data Governance is about the policies, procedures, and the workflows that support management of information.
A) Data management is about the policies, procedures, and the workflows that support management of information.
False. Data management typically focuses on the actual handling and processing of data, including its storage, organization, and retrieval. It deals with the practical aspects of data operations rather than the policies and procedures.
B) Data Management falls more on the IT side helping to enable data governance.
True. Data management is often associated with IT and involves the technical aspects of handling data. It supports data governance by implementing and enforcing the policies and procedures defined by data governance.
C) Data governance falls more on the IT side helping to enable data governance.
False. Data governance generally encompasses policies, procedures, and standards for data management and is often overseen by business leaders or data stewards rather than being solely an IT concern.
D) Data Governance is about the policies, procedures, and the workflows that support management of information.
True. Data governance involves defining and managing the policies, procedures, and standards for data management to ensure data quality, security, and compliance.
What goes into a Data Governance Framework?
A) Data Architecture
B) Metadata Management
C) Data Security and privacy
D) Data Quality
All Options
A Data Governance Framework typically includes the following components:
A) Data Architecture: Defines the structure of data, including how data is organized, stored, and accessed. It provides a blueprint for managing data assets and aligns with governance policies.
B) Metadata Management: Involves managing information about data, such as data definitions, sources, and relationships. It helps in understanding and controlling data assets and ensures consistency and quality.
C) Data Security and Privacy: Focuses on protecting data from unauthorized access and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations. It includes policies and practices to safeguard sensitive data and manage access controls.
D) Data Quality: Ensures that data is accurate, complete, and reliable. It involves implementing processes and standards to maintain and improve data quality over time.
So, all of the listed components—Data Architecture, Metadata Management, Data Security and Privacy, and Data Quality—are integral parts of a Data Governance Framework.
Consider the various issues relating to data privacy. Before undertaking anything regarding data privacy, which question should you ask if your concern is the impact an action will have on your company’s brand?
A) Is it desirable?
B) Is it ethical?
C) Is it legal?
D) Is it necessary?
When considering the impact of an action on your company’s brand, the most relevant question to ask is:
B) Is it ethical?
Understanding the ethical implications of an action helps you evaluate how it aligns with your company’s values and public perception. While legal compliance (C) and necessity (D) are important, and desirability (A) can be a factor, the ethical considerations directly address how the action will impact the company’s reputation and brand image. Ethics often drive public trust and can significantly influence brand strength and customer loyalty.
While all of the following are important elements in an information governance program, (which from the options below) is the most crucial. Someone must be invested long-term, own the business case, and clear obstacles for the IG lead.
A) Organization and classification
B) Data governance technique
C) Executive sponsorship
D) Policy communication
The most crucial element in an information governance (IG) program from the options provided is:
C) Executive sponsorship
Executive sponsorship is vital because:
Long-term Commitment: Executive sponsors are crucial for providing long-term commitment and support for the IG program.
Ownership: They own the business case and ensure that the program aligns with the company’s strategic goals.
Clearing Obstacles: They can help remove obstacles and secure necessary resources for the IG lead to successfully implement and manage the program.
While other elements like organization and classification, data governance techniques, and policy communication are important, they all benefit from strong executive sponsorship to be effective and sustainable.
Which one of the following is not a core goal of information security?
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Authorization
D) Availability
C) Authorization is not a core goal but rather a process that supports the core goals. Authorization determines who is allowed to access or modify information based on their permissions, but the core goals focus on the protection and proper use of information: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
The core goals of information security typically include:
A) Confidentiality: Ensuring that information is accessible only to those authorized to access it.
B) Integrity: Ensuring that information is accurate and complete, and protected from unauthorized modification.
D) Availability: Ensuring that information and resources are available to authorized users when needed.
A gap analysis of the Data architecture will reveal all of these except
A) data is created and not read
B) data is not created
C) data not located where it is needed
D) data tables that are improperly normalized
E) data not available when it is needed
Given these points, the correct answer is:
A) Data is created and not read
While this can be an issue, it is more related to data utilization rather than the structural and availability aspects that a gap analysis of data architecture typically focuses on.
A gap analysis of the data architecture typically aims to identify discrepancies between the current state and the desired future state of data management and utilization. It can reveal several issues related to data creation, location, availability, and structure. However, one of the options provided does not fit the typical scope of a gap analysis in data architecture.
Let’s review each option:
A) Data is created and not read: This can be identified in a gap analysis as it points to data that exists but is underutilized.
B) Data is not created: This can also be identified, as it indicates missing data that should be generated.
C) Data not located where it is needed: This is a common issue that a gap analysis would reveal, highlighting problems with data accessibility and distribution.
D) Data tables that are improperly normalized: This is a structural issue that a gap analysis would identify, focusing on the design and efficiency of data storage.
E) Data not available when it is needed: This is another common issue that a gap analysis would reveal, indicating problems with data availability and timeliness.
What are different components of Data Governance?
A) Data lineage
B) Data integrity
C) Data security
D) Data integration
All components
Data Governance encompasses several key components that ensure the effective management and control of data across an organization. The different components include:
A) Data Lineage: Tracks the flow and transformation of data through the system, from its origin to its final destination. It helps in understanding how data moves and changes over time.
B) Data Integrity: Ensures the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It involves measures to prevent data corruption and maintain data quality.
C) Data Security: Protects data from unauthorized access and breaches. It involves implementing policies and controls to safeguard data against threats and vulnerabilities.
D) Data Integration: Combines data from various sources into a unified view. It involves the processes and technologies that allow disparate data systems to work together and provide comprehensive insights.
All the listed components—Data Lineage, Data Integrity, Data Security, and Data Integration—are integral to a robust Data Governance framework.
(From the options below) is the degree to which data gives us confidence in its accuracy and integrity
A) Quality
B) Volume
C) Adherence
D) Compliance
The degree to which data gives us confidence in its accuracy and integrity is:
A) Quality
Data quality refers to how well data meets the requirements for accuracy, completeness, reliability, and consistency. It encompasses the degree of confidence users can have in the data’s accuracy and its ability to support decision-making and business processes effectively.
In order to be compliant with the GDPR regulation organizations what are good questions for self audit to gauge the preparedness?
A) Do we have access to data activities and data elements?
B) Do we have a breach management process in place?
C) Do we have information of Metadata?
D) Are we sure company management is in support of GDPR activities?
B) Do we have a breach management process in place?
D) Are we sure company management is in support of GDPR activities?
For a self-audit to gauge preparedness for GDPR compliance, important questions to ask include:
B) Do we have a breach management process in place?
GDPR requires organizations to have procedures for detecting, reporting, and responding to data breaches. A robust breach management process is essential for compliance.
D) Are we sure company management is in support of GDPR activities?
Support from company management is crucial for ensuring that GDPR compliance is integrated into the organization’s culture and operations. Management support ensures that resources are allocated and policies are enforced.
Additional considerations:
A) Do we have access to data activities and data elements?
This is important for understanding how data is processed and ensuring that data activities align with GDPR requirements, but it’s more about data management than direct compliance.
C) Do we have information of Metadata?
While metadata is useful for understanding and managing data, GDPR compliance is more focused on the handling of personal data and ensuring its protection and rights.
Why are metrics important in data governance?
A) Metrics indicate if data governance is adding value
B) Metrics make us understand if our process is working
C) Metrics assist with continuous improvement
D) All of the answers
D) All of the answers
Metrics are crucial in data governance for several reasons:
A) Metrics indicate if data governance is adding value: By measuring the effectiveness of data governance initiatives, metrics help determine if they are delivering the intended benefits and value to the organization.
B) Metrics make us understand if our process is working: Metrics provide insights into the performance of data governance processes, helping to assess whether they are functioning as intended and achieving their objectives.
C) Metrics assist with continuous improvement: By tracking performance over time, metrics identify areas for improvement, enabling organizations to refine and enhance their data governance practices continuously.
Metrics provide a comprehensive view of data governance effectiveness, helping organizations to evaluate, adjust, and improve their data management strategies.
In the Application Architecture phase, the checkpoint review should consider
A) the comparison of the Application-Business Function matrices and the Target Business Architecture
B) the cost-benefit and lifecycle cost of ownership of the proposed architecture
C) the priority of implementing the proposed application architecture
D) the fitness for purpose of the application architecture in supporting the baseline business architecture
E) the resources required to implement the proposed architecture
During the Application Architecture phase, the checkpoint review should consider:
D) the fitness for purpose of the application architecture in supporting the baseline business architecture: This ensures that the proposed application architecture aligns with and supports the current business needs and objectives. It assesses whether the architecture effectively addresses the requirements and challenges outlined in the baseline business architecture.
Other considerations, while important, may not be the primary focus of the checkpoint review:
A) the comparison of the Application-Business Function matrices and the Target Business Architecture: This is more about ensuring alignment with the target architecture, which is critical but may be more relevant in earlier stages of planning or design.
B) the cost-benefit and lifecycle cost of ownership of the proposed architecture: Important for evaluating the financial implications, but often reviewed as part of a more detailed financial analysis rather than the initial checkpoint review.
C) the priority of implementing the proposed application architecture: Prioritization is important for project planning but may be more relevant for implementation phases or project management reviews.
E) the resources required to implement the proposed architecture: This is essential for planning and execution but might be detailed in later stages rather than in the initial architecture review.
Effective architecture governance can be greatly enhanced by
A) employing “extreme architecture” methods that restrict architecture projects to very short timeframes
B) limiting the amount of information that is shared across architectue domains
C) maintaining one or more architecture repostiories that provide controlled access and versioning of architecture artifacts
D) ensuring that the architecture governance board strictly enforces the architecture and seldom issues dispensations
E) protecting the confidentiality of the architecture so that only members of the architecture governance board are aware of its contents
Effective architecture governance can be greatly enhanced by:
C) maintaining one or more architecture repositories that provide controlled access and versioning of architecture artifacts: This approach ensures that architecture artifacts are properly managed, versioned, and accessible to those who need them. It facilitates better communication, consistency, and control over architectural documentation and decisions.
Other options and their relevance:
A) employing “extreme architecture” methods that restrict architecture projects to very short timeframes: While this might accelerate delivery, it may not always lead to effective governance as it can compromise thoroughness and quality.
B) limiting the amount of information that is shared across architecture domains: This could hinder collaboration and the integration of different architecture domains, which is essential for cohesive governance.
D) ensuring that the architecture governance board strictly enforces the architecture and seldom issues dispensations: Strict enforcement can be important, but flexibility and the ability to issue dispensations when necessary are also crucial for practical governance.
E) protecting the confidentiality of the architecture so that only members of the architecture governance board are aware of its contents: While confidentiality is important, excessive secrecy can impede collaboration and transparency, which are essential for effective governance.
Which of the following is an example of an architecture framework?
A) Six Sigma
B) ITIL
C) TOGAF
D) COBIT
E) Balanced Scorecard
C) TOGAF
TOGAF (The Open Group Architecture Framework) is an example of an architecture framework. It provides a structured approach for designing, planning, implementing, and governing enterprise information architecture.
Here’s a brief overview of the other options:
A) Six Sigma: A methodology aimed at improving processes and reducing defects, but not specifically an architecture framework.
B) ITIL: Stands for Information Technology Infrastructure Library, which is a framework for IT service management, not an architecture framework.
D) COBIT: Stands for Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies, which is a framework for IT governance and management, not specifically an architecture framework.
E) Balanced Scorecard: A strategic planning and management system used to align business activities to the vision and strategy of the organization, not an architecture framework.
A Technical Architecture Report should contain all of these items except
A) requirements traceability analysis
B) project impact analysis
C) gap analysis report
D) technology architecture models
E) technical specification for each building block
Based on the search results provided and the given options, the item that a Technical Architecture Report should NOT typically contain is:
E) technical specification for each building block
While the other options mentioned are generally important components of a Technical Architecture Report, the detailed technical specifications for each building block are usually not included in this type of high-level document.
Here’s why the other options are typically included:
A) Requirements traceability analysis: This is crucial for ensuring that the architecture meets all specified requirements.
B) Project impact analysis: This helps understand how the proposed architecture will affect existing projects and systems.
C) Gap analysis report: This identifies the differences between the current and target architectures, which is essential for planning.
D) Technology architecture models: These provide visual representations of the proposed technical architecture.
The technical specification for each building block (option E) is typically too detailed for a high-level Technical Architecture Report. Such specifications are usually part of more detailed design documents or implementation guides that follow the architectural planning phase.
It’s important to note that while the Technical Architecture Report should provide an overview of the technology components and their relationships, it generally doesn’t delve into the specific technical details of each building block. The report focuses more on the overall structure, alignment with business goals, and high-level technical decisions rather than detailed specifications.
Architecture governance should be guided by
A) architecture principles
B) procurement policies
C) marketing strategies
D) buy lists
E) accepted accounting practices
Architecture governance should be guided by:
A) Architecture principles
Architecture principles provide the foundational guidelines and rules that govern the design, development, and management of architecture within an organization. They help ensure consistency, alignment with business objectives, and adherence to best practices.
Other options and their relevance:
B) Procurement policies: Relevant for managing the acquisition of technology and services but not specifically guiding architecture governance.
C) Marketing strategies: Focus on market positioning and customer engagement, not on architecture governance.
D) Buy lists: Lists of preferred vendors or products, which are related to procurement decisions rather than governance of architecture.
E) Accepted accounting practices: Pertains to financial reporting and management, not directly related to architecture governance.
Effective governance should provide all of the following characteristics to the organization except
A) fairness
B) discipline
C) transparency
D) Accountability
E) all of these items
E) All of these items is the correct answer because all the listed characteristics—fairness, discipline, transparency, and accountability—are integral to effective governance. Each contributes to a well-functioning governance framework that promotes trust, reliability, and effective management.
Effective governance should provide the following characteristics to an organization:
A) Fairness: Ensures that decisions are made impartially and that all stakeholders are treated equitably.
B) Discipline: Involves adhering to established processes and standards, ensuring consistency and reliability.
C) Transparency: Ensures that decision-making processes and actions are open and visible, allowing stakeholders to understand and scrutinize them.
D) Accountability: Involves being responsible for actions and decisions, and being answerable to stakeholders for outcomes.
Which of the following is not part of a Request for Architecture Work document?
A) current IT architecture description
B) time constraints
C) budget and financial constraints
D) gap analysis
E) business goals and desired changes
D) Gap analysis
A Request for Architecture Work (RAFW) document typically includes:
A) Current IT architecture description: Provides context by detailing the existing architecture and its components.
B) Time constraints: Specifies deadlines and timeframes for completing the architecture work.
C) Budget and financial constraints: Outlines the financial resources available and any budgetary limitations for the project.
E) Business goals and desired changes: Defines the business objectives and the changes needed to align the architecture with these goals.
D) Gap analysis is generally not part of the RAFW document itself. Instead, a gap analysis is typically performed as part of the subsequent architecture analysis or design phases to identify discrepancies between the current and desired states.
Which of the following would be the best example of an infrastructure application?
A) A bank’s customer relationship management system
B) A retail firm’s order management system
C) A manufacturing firm’s internet e-mail server
D) An airline’s aircraft maintenance scheduling software
E) A software vendor’s custom software configuration software
C) A manufacturing firm’s internet e-mail server
An infrastructure application typically refers to software that provides foundational services or supports the underlying technology infrastructure rather than directly addressing specific business functions or processes.
Among the options provided:
A) A bank’s customer relationship management system: This is a business application focused on managing customer relationships and interactions, not an infrastructure application.
B) A retail firm’s order management system: This is a business application used to manage and process customer orders, not an infrastructure application.
C) A manufacturing firm’s internet e-mail server: This is an example of an infrastructure application. It provides essential communication services that support various business activities.
D) An airline’s aircraft maintenance scheduling software: This is a business application focused on scheduling and managing aircraft maintenance, not an infrastructure application.
E) A software vendor’s custom software configuration software: This is related to software development and configuration, but not specifically an infrastructure application.
In Phase E - Opportunities and Solutions, what would be the best example of a business driver that constrains the sequence of implementation?
A) robust authentication and authorization capabilities
B) innovative user interface
C) system instrumentation to enhance manageability
D) cost reduction through consolidation of services
E) advanced distributed computing technology
In Phase E - Opportunities and Solutions, the best example of a business driver that constrains the sequence of implementation would be:
D) Cost reduction through consolidation of services
This is because:
Cost reduction through consolidation of services: This business driver often dictates the prioritization and sequencing of projects to ensure that cost savings are realized as early as possible. It can constrain the sequence of implementation by prioritizing projects that offer immediate financial benefits or enable the consolidation of redundant services.
Other options and their relevance:
A) Robust authentication and authorization capabilities: While important for security, it is more of a technical requirement than a business driver that directly constrains the sequence of implementation.
B) Innovative user interface: This focuses on enhancing user experience but is less likely to constrain the implementation sequence compared to cost reduction imperatives.
C) System instrumentation to enhance manageability: This is a technical feature aimed at improving system management and monitoring rather than a business driver that dictates implementation sequence.
E) Advanced distributed computing technology: This is a technical capability that can be important for scalability and performance but is not a business driver that directly constrains the sequence of implementation.
Which of the following is not an appropriate consideration in Phase F - Migration Planning?
A) choice of application platforms
B) resource avaiability
C) geographic separation for staged deployments
D) costs and benefits
E) retraining the user community
A) Choice of application platforms
In Phase F - Migration Planning, the focus is on developing a detailed implementation and migration plan that considers various aspects necessary for the successful deployment of the architecture. The considerations typically include resource availability, geographic separation for staged deployments, costs and benefits, and retraining the user community. However, the choice of application platforms is more relevant to earlier phases where technology architecture decisions are made.
Therefore, the consideration that is not appropriate for Phase F - Migration Planning is:
A) Choice of application platforms
This decision should be made in earlier phases, such as during the Technology Architecture phase, rather than during the migration planning phase.
If you want to control the number of requests that a service could serve in a minute through rate limiting. What pattern/tool helps you apply rate limiting?
A) Circuit Breaking
B) API Gateway
C) Anti-Corruption pattern
B) API Gateway
An API Gateway is the most appropriate and commonly used pattern/tool for implementing rate limiting in a service-oriented architecture. Here’s why:
API Gateway and Rate Limiting
API Gateways are designed to act as a single entry point for all clients to access services in a microservices architecture. They provide several critical functions, and one of the most important is rate limiting.
Key Features of API Gateway for Rate Limiting:
- Centralized Control: API Gateways can apply rate limiting rules consistently across all incoming requests, regardless of which service they’re destined for.
- Configurable Limits: You can easily set and adjust rate limits based on various criteria such as IP address, API key, user identity, or endpoint.
- Scalability: API Gateways are designed to handle high volumes of traffic, making them ideal for implementing rate limiting at scale.
- Analytics and Monitoring: Many API Gateways provide built-in analytics that can help you understand traffic patterns and adjust rate limits accordingly.
- Response Handling: When rate limits are exceeded, API Gateways can send appropriate responses (e.g., HTTP 429 Too Many Requests) to clients.
Why Not the Other Options?
A) Circuit Breaking: While important for fault tolerance, circuit breaking is primarily used to prevent cascading failures in distributed systems, not for controlling request rates.
C) Anti-Corruption Layer: This is a design pattern used to translate between different models or protocols, typically when integrating with legacy systems. It’s not related to rate limiting.
In conclusion, an API Gateway is the most suitable tool for implementing rate limiting to control the number of requests a service can handle in a given time period.
Circuit breaking won’t help instrument a default behavior in your code, if the service request placed on another service by your code fails.
A) True
B) False
B) False
Circuit breaking can indeed help instrument a default behavior in your code if a service request placed on another service fails. Here’s why this statement is false:
Circuit breakers are designed specifically to handle failures in distributed systems and provide a mechanism for default behavior when service requests fail. They act as a protective measure that prevents cascading failures across microservices[1].
Key aspects of circuit breakers that support this:
- Failure detection: Circuit breakers monitor for failures in service requests.
- Tripping mechanism: When a certain threshold of failures is reached, the circuit breaker “trips” or opens.
- Default behavior: Once tripped, the circuit breaker can implement a predefined fallback strategy or default behavior instead of allowing the request to fail.
- Automatic recovery: After a set time, the circuit breaker may allow some requests through to test if the service has recovered.
By implementing a circuit breaker pattern, developers can define how their code should behave when service requests fail, providing a robust way to handle failures and maintain system stability. This default behavior could include returning cached data, a predefined response, or triggering an alternative workflow.
Therefore, the statement is false because circuit breaking is specifically designed to help instrument default behaviors in code when service requests fail.
Once a breach of private data has been detected, what must a business do next?
A) Immediately engage in its recovery process
B) Determine the extent of breach
C) Inform customers of data breach
D) Work through the breach with a table top exercise
B) Determine the extent of breach
This answer is correct because after detecting a data breach, it is crucial for a business to first assess and understand the full scope and impact of the breach before taking any other actions. Determining the extent of the breach allows the organization to:
- Identify what data has been compromised
- Understand which systems or networks have been affected
- Assess the potential impact on customers, employees, and the business itself
- Gather necessary information to inform subsequent steps in the incident response process
While the other options are important steps in managing a data breach, they typically come after determining the extent of the breach:
A) Immediately engage in its recovery process - This would be premature without first understanding the scope of the breach.
C) Inform customers of data breach - While notifying affected parties is crucial, it should be done after the extent of the breach is known to provide accurate information.
D) Work through the breach with a table top exercise - This is more of a preparatory measure and not the immediate next step after detecting a real breach.
By first determining the extent of the breach, a business can make informed decisions about how to proceed with containment, recovery, and notification processes.
Data governance is most concerned with
A) How data is archived
B) Who owns dataset
C) Establishing data metrics
D) Whether data is managed well
D) Whether data is managed well
Data governance primarily focuses on ensuring that data is managed properly within an organization. This includes establishing policies, procedures, and standards for data management to ensure data quality, integrity, security, and compliance. It encompasses the overall management of the availability, usability, integrity, and security of the data employed in an enterprise.
While the other options (how data is archived, who owns datasets, and establishing data metrics) are components of a comprehensive data governance strategy, the overarching concern of data governance is to ensure that data is managed well across its lifecycle.
Why is having a firm grasp on data and privacy today vital for working with emerging technologies?
A) Technology experts will drive the emerging technologies
B) Technology of tomorrow will look like today with minor differences
C) To know if future steps are moral and ethical
D) If we have grasp on today we do not need to rely on imagination of tomorrow
C) To know if future steps are moral and ethical
Having a firm grasp on data and privacy today is vital for working with emerging technologies because it allows us to evaluate and ensure that future technological developments are implemented in a moral and ethical manner. Here’s why this is important:
- Ethical foundation: Understanding current data and privacy issues provides a crucial ethical foundation for developing and deploying new technologies[1].
- Anticipating challenges: Knowledge of today’s data and privacy landscape helps us anticipate potential ethical challenges that may arise with emerging technologies[1].
- Informed decision-making: A solid understanding of current data practices and privacy concerns enables more informed decision-making about the ethical implications of future technological advancements[1].
- Proactive approach: By grasping current data and privacy issues, we can take a proactive approach to addressing ethical concerns in emerging technologies, rather than reacting to problems after they occur[1].
- Balancing innovation and ethics: This understanding helps strike a balance between technological innovation and ethical considerations, ensuring that progress doesn’t come at the cost of individual rights or societal values[1].
The other options are less relevant or accurate:
A) While technology experts play a crucial role, the ethical implications of emerging technologies concern society as a whole, not just experts.
B) This option incorrectly assumes that future technology will be similar to today’s, which is often not the case with rapidly evolving emerging technologies.
D) This option suggests that current knowledge is sufficient, but it’s important to consider how current understanding can be applied to future scenarios, which often require imagination and foresight.
In conclusion, a firm grasp on current data and privacy issues is essential for ensuring that we can navigate the ethical challenges posed by emerging technologies in a responsible and morally sound manner.
What is a Trust Cliff?
A) When a data subject shares PII with a new organization
B) when a data subject rapidly loses trust in an organization
C) When data gets corrupted by a natural disaster
D) When data is lost to a malicious party
B) when a data subject rapidly loses trust in an organization
A “Trust Cliff” refers to a situation where there is a sudden and significant decline in the trust that a data subject (such as a customer or user) has in an organization. This rapid loss of trust can occur due to various reasons, such as data breaches, misuse of personal information, or perceived unethical behavior by the organization.
When first starting data governance, metrics should be the first priority, incorporated from the beginning.
A) FALSE
B) TRUE
A) FALSE
When first starting data governance, the initial focus should typically be on establishing a strong foundation, including defining data governance policies, roles, responsibilities, and processes. While metrics are important for measuring the effectiveness of data governance, they are usually developed after the foundational elements are in place. Prioritizing metrics from the very beginning can be premature if the basic governance framework has not yet been established.
Which of the following items will be included in the Data Architecture?
A) data interoperability requirements
B) conceptual data models
C) logical data models
D) data entity/business function matrix
E) all of these
E) all of these
This answer is correct because all the listed items are indeed components of Data Architecture. Let’s break down each element:
- Data interoperability requirements: These are essential for ensuring that different systems and applications can exchange and use data effectively within the organization.
- Conceptual data models: These provide a high-level view of the data structures and relationships within the organization, independent of any specific database management system or technology.
- Logical data models: These offer a more detailed representation of the data structures, including entities, attributes, and relationships, but still independent of any specific database implementation.
- Data entity/business function matrix: This matrix helps map data entities to business functions, showing how data is used across different areas of the organization.
All of these components play crucial roles in creating a comprehensive Data Architecture. They work together to provide a clear understanding of how data is structured, used, and shared within an organization. By including all these elements, Data Architecture can effectively support an organization’s data management and business needs.
Which of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is not true?
A) They may have multiple implementations but with different, interdependent Building Blocks.
B) They may be assembled from other building blocks.
C) They are a package of functionality intended to meet the business needs across the organization.
D) They are intended to be used only once and should not be reused.
E) They should have interfaces that provide access to their functions.
D) They are intended to be used only once and should not be reused.
This statement is not true about TOGAF Building Blocks. In fact, TOGAF Building Blocks are designed to be reusable components in enterprise architecture. Let’s examine why the other options are true and this one is false:
A) They may have multiple implementations but with different, interdependent Building Blocks - This is true. Building Blocks can be implemented in various ways, often depending on other Building Blocks.
B) They may be assembled from other building blocks - This is correct. Building Blocks can be composed of other, smaller Building Blocks.
C) They are a package of functionality intended to meet the business needs across the organization - This accurately describes the purpose of Building Blocks in TOGAF.
E) They should have interfaces that provide access to their functions - This is true. Well-defined interfaces are a key characteristic of Building Blocks, allowing them to interact with other components.
The statement in option D contradicts the fundamental principle of reusability in TOGAF Building Blocks. These components are specifically designed to be reused across different parts of the enterprise architecture, promoting consistency and efficiency. Therefore, saying they are intended to be used only once is incorrect.
According to TOGAF, IT Governance provides the framework and structure that
A) links IT resources and information to enterprise goals and strategies
B) requires the IT. organization to comply with business unit mandates
C) allows IT management to control business units
D) enforces the policies of the organization’s technology buy list
E) give the CIO control of organization IT resources
A) links IT resources and information to enterprise goals and strategies
TOGAF emphasizes that IT Governance is about ensuring that IT resources and information are aligned with and support the overall goals and strategies of the enterprise. This alignment ensures that IT investments and initiatives are directly contributing to the business objectives, enhancing the value delivered by IT to the organization.
Which of the following is not an element of an architecture contract?
A) scope and constraints
B) deliverables
C) name, description, objectives
D) acceptance criteria
E) all of these are elements of the architecture contract
E) all of these are elements of the architecture contract
This answer is correct because all the listed items are indeed elements of an architecture contract according to TOGAF. Let’s review each element:
A) Scope and constraints - These define the boundaries and limitations within which the architecture work will be performed.
B) Deliverables - These specify the outputs that will be produced as part of the architecture work.
C) Name, description, objectives - These provide a clear identification and purpose of the architecture work.
D) Acceptance criteria - These establish the conditions that must be met for the deliverables to be accepted.
Since all these elements are part of an architecture contract, option E is the correct answer.
The essential mechanism that drives TOGAF’s Implementation Governance phase is the
A) organization policy framework
B) statement of architecture work
C) project impact analysis
D) architecture contract
E) none of these
D) architecture contract
The architecture contract is the key mechanism that drives TOGAF’s Implementation Governance phase. Here’s why:
- Purpose: The architecture contract serves as a formal agreement between the development partners and sponsors on the deliverables, quality, and fitness-for-purpose of an architecture.
- Governance tool: It is used to ensure that implementation projects comply with the architecture and that the architecture is implemented correctly.
- Alignment: The contract helps to align the implementation efforts with the architectural vision and principles established in earlier phases of TOGAF.
- Accountability: It establishes clear responsibilities and expectations for all parties involved in the implementation.
- Quality assurance: The contract includes acceptance criteria, which are used to evaluate whether the implemented solution meets the architectural requirements.
The other options are not the primary driving mechanisms for the Implementation Governance phase:
A) Organization policy framework - While important, this is not specific to the Implementation Governance phase.
B) Statement of architecture work - This is typically created earlier in the architecture development process.
C) Project impact analysis - This is a tool used in various phases but is not the essential mechanism for Implementation Governance.
E) None of these - This is incorrect because the architecture contract is indeed the essential mechanism.
Therefore, the architecture contract (option D) is the correct answer as it is the essential mechanism that drives TOGAF’s Implementation Governance phase.
Which of the following is not true about the nature of governance?
A) All decisions taken, processes used and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair advantage to any one particular party.
B) Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties
C) Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization’s strategic objectives
D) All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes and authority structures established by the organisation.
E) All of these are characterisitics of governance.
E) All of these are characteristics of governance
This answer is correct because all the listed statements are indeed characteristics of governance. Let’s review each statement:
A) All decisions taken, processes used, and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair advantage to any one particular party - This is a fundamental principle of governance, ensuring fairness and equity.
B) Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties - Transparency is a key aspect of governance, allowing for accountability and oversight.
C) Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization’s strategic objectives - Governance involves directing and controlling resources to meet strategic goals.
D) All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes, and authority structures established by the organization - Adherence to established procedures and structures is essential for effective governance.
Since all these statements are true and describe characteristics of governance, the correct answer is option E, indicating that all the provided statements are indeed characteristics of governance.
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A) The Technical Reference Model consists of a taxonomy of architecture elements and an associated graphic that displays how the elements are interrelated.
B) The Technical Reference Model can and should be tailored to meet organizational needs.
C) The Technical Reference Model includes service qualities such as Reliability, or Availablity as part of the taxonomy.
D) The TOGAF Architecture Development Method does not require the use of the Technical Reference Model.
E) All of these
E) All of these
This answer is correct because all the statements provided are true about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model (TRM). Let’s examine each statement:
A) The Technical Reference Model consists of a taxonomy of architecture elements and an associated graphic that displays how the elements are interrelated.
This is correct. The TRM provides a structured taxonomy and a graphical representation of the relationships between its elements.
B) The Technical Reference Model can and should be tailored to meet organizational needs.
This is true. TOGAF emphasizes that the TRM should be adapted to fit the specific requirements of an organization.
C) The Technical Reference Model includes service qualities such as Reliability, or Availability as part of the taxonomy.
This is accurate. The TRM incorporates various service qualities, including reliability and availability, as part of its comprehensive taxonomy.
D) The TOGAF Architecture Development Method does not require the use of the Technical Reference Model.
This statement is also true. While the TRM is a valuable tool within TOGAF, its use is not mandatory in the Architecture Development Method (ADM).
Since all of these statements are true regarding the TOGAF Technical Reference Model, the correct answer is E) All of these.
In the TOGAF Foundation Architecture, the (from the options below) is the location where architecture building blocks are stored.
A) Architecture Continuum
B) Architecture Repository
C) Standards Information Base
D) Solutions Continuum
E) Architecture Governance Repository
B) Architecture Repository
The Architecture Repository is the central storage location for various architectural artifacts, including architecture building blocks, in the TOGAF framework. Here’s why this is the correct answer:
- Purpose: The Architecture Repository serves as a comprehensive storage and reference system for all architecture-related information.
- Content: It contains architecture metamodels, architecture landscapes, standards information, reference models, and governance logs.
- Building Blocks: Specifically, it stores both Architecture Building Blocks (ABBs) and Solution Building Blocks (SBBs), which are key components of TOGAF architectures.
- Accessibility: The repository provides a shared resource for architecture development and management across the enterprise.
The other options are not correct for the following reasons:
A) Architecture Continuum - This is a part of the Architecture Repository but not the primary storage location for building blocks.
C) Standards Information Base - This is also a component of the Architecture Repository but focuses on standards rather than building blocks.
D) Solutions Continuum - This is related to the implementation of architectures but is not where building blocks are primarily stored.
E) Architecture Governance Repository - While governance information is stored in the Architecture Repository, this is not a separate entity in TOGAF and is not the primary location for building blocks.
Therefore, the Architecture Repository (option B) is the correct answer as it is the central location where architecture building blocks are stored in the TOGAF Foundation Architecture.
In TOGAF, what is the term used to describe the qualities of a particular building block or component in terms of its operating characteristics?
A) Solutions Continuum
B) nonfunctional criteria
C) quantitative criteria
D) Architecture Continuum
E) application functionality
B) nonfunctional criteria
Nonfunctional criteria refer to the qualities and attributes that define how a building block or component operates, rather than what it does. These criteria include aspects such as performance, reliability, scalability, security, and usability, which are essential for evaluating the effectiveness and suitability of the component within the architecture.
Which of the following is an example of a business application?
A) A bank’s customer relationship management system
B) An airline’s aircraft maintenance scheduling software
C) A software vendor’s custom software configuration software
D) A retail firm’s order management system
E) All of these
E) All of these
All the listed options are examples of business applications. Here’s why each one qualifies:
A) A bank’s customer relationship management system - This is a business application used to manage interactions with customers, streamline processes, and improve customer satisfaction.
B) An airline’s aircraft maintenance scheduling software - This is a business application used to schedule and manage the maintenance of aircraft, ensuring operational efficiency and safety.
C) A software vendor’s custom software configuration software - This is a business application used to configure and customize software products to meet specific customer requirements.
D) A retail firm’s order management system - This is a business application used to manage and process customer orders, from order placement to fulfillment and delivery.
Each of these applications serves specific business functions and supports the operational needs of the respective organizations, making them all examples of business applications. Therefore, the correct answer is E) All of these.
Which of these types of application tasks make sense to run in a serverless environment?
A) None of the above
B) Rapid, reactive and event-based executions
C) Big data, analytics-heavy executions
B) Rapid, reactive and event-based executions
Serverless environments are particularly well-suited for tasks that are rapid, reactive, and event-based. These tasks benefit from the scalability, cost-efficiency, and ease of deployment that serverless architectures provide. Examples include:
- Event-driven processing: Functions triggered by events such as HTTP requests, database changes, or message queue updates.
- Microservices: Small, independent services that perform specific tasks and can scale independently.
- Real-time data processing: Tasks that need to process data in real-time, such as stream processing.
While serverless can also be used for big data and analytics-heavy executions, these tasks often require long-running processes and substantial computational resources, which might be better suited for other architectures like managed clusters or dedicated servers.
Therefore, the most fitting answer is B) Rapid, reactive and event-based executions.
What can developers do to increase serverless security?
A) Group functions together
B) Write minimalistic functions
C) Expand dependencies
D) All the above
B) Write minimalistic functions
Writing minimalistic functions is a key practice for enhancing serverless security. This approach involves creating functions that perform a single task or a minimal set of related tasks. By doing so, developers can:
- Reduce Attack Surface: Smaller, focused functions have fewer lines of code and dependencies, which reduces the potential attack surface.
- Easier Auditing: Minimalistic functions are easier to audit and review for security vulnerabilities.
- Least Privilege Principle: It is easier to apply the principle of least privilege, granting the function only the permissions it strictly needs.
The other options are not recommended for increasing serverless security:
A) Group functions together - This can lead to larger, more complex functions that are harder to secure and audit.
C) Expand dependencies - Increasing dependencies can introduce more potential vulnerabilities and increase the attack surface.
Therefore, the correct answer is B) Write minimalistic functions.
You are designing a service that is responsible for delivering large chunks of data to the client that has requested the delivery. What is the communication protocol that you choose for this service?
A) Synchronous
B) Asynchronous
B) Asynchronous
Asynchronous communication is the better choice for this service design for several reasons:
- Large data transfers: When dealing with large chunks of data, asynchronous communication allows the service to handle the request without blocking other operations. This is particularly important for maintaining system responsiveness and scalability.
- Improved performance: Asynchronous communication can improve overall system performance by allowing the service to process multiple requests concurrently, rather than waiting for each large data transfer to complete before moving to the next request.
- Better resource utilization: With asynchronous communication, the service can manage its resources more efficiently, allocating them as needed for data preparation and transfer without tying up resources waiting for responses.
- Client-side flexibility: Asynchronous communication allows the client to continue other operations while waiting for the large data chunk to be delivered, improving the overall user experience.
- Handling potential timeouts: Large data transfers may take considerable time, potentially exceeding typical timeout limits for synchronous calls. Asynchronous communication mitigates this issue.
- Scalability: Asynchronous designs are generally more scalable, which is crucial when dealing with services that handle large data transfers to multiple clients.
While synchronous communication can be simpler to implement and reason about, it’s not ideal for scenarios involving large data transfers, as it can lead to blocking operations and reduced system performance.
Therefore, for a service responsible for delivering large chunks of data, an asynchronous communication protocol (option B) is the more suitable choice.
