Cloud computing Flashcards

1
Q

Cloud computing

A

The delivery of computing services over the internet, offering on-demand access, scalability, and cost savings.

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2
Q

Cloud Computing (IaaS)

A

Infrastructure as a Service provides virtualized computing resources—such as virtual machines, storage, and networking—over the internet, allowing users to manage infrastructure without owning physical hardware.

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3
Q

Cloud Computing (PaaS)

A

Platform as a Service offers a cloud environment where developers can build, test, and deploy applications without needing to manage the underlying infrastructure.

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4
Q

Cloud Computing (SaaS)

A

Software as a Service delivers applications over the internet, managed by a third-party provider, and typically accessed through a web browser on a subscription basis.

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5
Q

Cloud Computing (IDaaS)

A

Identity as a Service provides cloud-based identity and access management services, including single sign-on, authentication, and user provisioning.

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6
Q

Cloud Computing (SECaaS)

A

Security as a Service delivers outsourced security services via the cloud, such as antivirus, intrusion detection, firewalls, and encryption.

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7
Q

Cloud Computing (CaaS)

A

Container as a Service is a cloud service model that allows users to manage and deploy containerized applications using orchestration tools like Kubernetes.

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8
Q

Cloud Computing (FaaS)

A

Function as a Service, allows users to run code in response to events without provisioning or managing servers, ideal for microservices.

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9
Q

Cloud Computing (XaaS)

A

Anything as a Service encompasses a broad range of cloud services beyond the traditional IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS, delivering customizable, on-demand capabilities.

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10
Q

CSP shared responsibility model

A

A framework outlining which aspects of cloud security are managed by the cloud provider and which are the customer’s responsibility, depending on the service model.

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11
Q

Public cloud

A

A cloud environment provided by third parties where services are offered over the public internet and shared across multiple customers.

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12
Q

Private cloud

A

A cloud environment dedicated to a single organization, providing greater control, security, and customization, and can be hosted internally or externally.

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13
Q

Hybrid cloud

A

An architecture that combines public and private cloud environments, allowing data and applications to move between them for flexibility and optimization.

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14
Q

Community cloud

A

A cloud infrastructure shared among several organizations with similar goals or compliance requirements, managed internally or by a third party.

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15
Q

Multi cloud

A

The use of multiple cloud services from different providers to avoid vendor lock-in, improve reliability, or optimize service delivery.

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16
Q

Hosted IT deployment model

A

An IT infrastructure setup where systems are hosted in a third-party data center but not in a true cloud environment.

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17
Q

Cloud IT deployment model

A

A model that describes the different cloud deployment modes as well as the shared responsability model.

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18
Q

NIST Cloud Deployment Reference Architecture

A

A standardized framework from NIST that defines cloud actors, roles, and components to promote consistent and secure cloud adoption.

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19
Q

Cloud consumer

A

An individual or organization that uses cloud services for computing, storage, application hosting, or other purposes.

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20
Q

Cloud provider

A

The entity responsible for making cloud services available, including managing infrastructure, platforms, and applications.

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21
Q

Cloud carrier

A

A third-party service that provides connectivity and transport for cloud services between providers and consumers.

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22
Q

Cloud auditor

A

An independent party that evaluates cloud services to ensure they meet required security, compliance, and performance standards.

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23
Q

Cloud broker

A

An entity that manages cloud service use across multiple providers and adds value through customization, aggregation, or intermediation.

24
Q

Service intermediation

A

Enhancement of cloud services by adding capabilities such as identity management, access control, or monitoring.

25
Service aggregation
Combining multiple cloud services into a unified, integrated solution presented to the user as a single service.
26
Service arbitrage
A model where a broker selects the best cloud services from different providers to assemble a flexible, cost-effective solution.
27
Elements of the cloud provider
Core components including physical hardware, virtualization, orchestration tools, management consoles, and APIs used to deliver services.
28
Cloud storage architecture: front-end
The interface users interact with, such as APIs or dashboards, to access or manage cloud storage services.
29
Cloud storage architecture: middleware
The logic and processing layer handling tasks like authentication, data routing, and access management between front-end and back-end.
30
Cloud storage architecture: back-end
The physical infrastructure, such as storage drives, file systems, and database engines, where data is actually stored.
31
Fog computing
A model that extends cloud capabilities to local networks by processing data closer to the source, improving latency and efficiency.
32
Edge computing
Edge computing is a **distributed computing paradigm** in which data processing and analysis occur **directly on or near** the physical devices.
33
Edge
The physical point at which data is generated and initially processed, such as IoT devices or local servers.
34
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
An open standard for securely exchanging authentication and authorization information between entities, often used for single sign-on (SSO).
35
SAML: Client
The software or application requesting authentication from an identity provider via SAML to access a service.
36
SAML: Service provider
The entity that provides a service and relies on SAML assertions to authorize and authenticate users.
37
SAML: Identity provider
The system that authenticates users and provides SAML assertions to service providers.
38
XML
Extensible Markup Language used to define, transport, and store data in a format both human-readable and machine-processable.
39
Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
A logically isolated section of the cloud where users can define and control virtual networks, including IP ranges and subnets.
40
Public Subnet in VPC
A subnet in a VPC that is connected to the internet and can host public-facing applications or services.
41
Private Subnet in VPC
A subnet in a VPC without direct internet access, used for internal resources like databases or application logic.
42
Transit Gateway
A networking service that connects multiple VPCs and on-premises networks via a central hub, simplifying network management.
43
VPC endpoints
Private connections between VPCs and supported AWS services that bypass the public internet for improved security.
44
VPC endpoint: Interface endpoint
A type of VPC endpoint that uses elastic network interfaces to connect securely to services within the VPC.
45
Elastic network interface (ENI)
A virtual network card that can be attached to a cloud instance to allow it to connect to the network.
46
VPC endpoints: Gateway Load Balancer endpoint
A VPC endpoint that enables private traffic routing to third-party appliances like firewalls or intrusion detection systems.
47
Security groups
Virtual firewalls that control inbound and outbound traffic at the instance level in cloud environments.
48
Instance awareness
The ability of a system or service to detect, manage, and apply policies to individual virtual machine instances.
49
AICPA SAS 70 Type II audit
An independent audit that assesses the operational effectiveness of a service provider’s internal controls over a period of time.
50
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)
A nonprofit organization focused on promoting best practices for security assurance within cloud computing.
51
Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
A security enforcement point between users and cloud providers that monitors activity and enforces security policies.
52
Next Generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG)
A cloud-based security solution that provides real-time protection and policy enforcement for web access, including threat detection and content filtering.
53
Cloud consultant
A professional who advises organizations on adopting, migrating to, and optimizing cloud services to meet technical and business goals.
54
DASBLUAD – Cloud Security Best Practices
A mnemonic for essential cloud security best practices: D – Data protection, backup, and retention: Ensure data is encrypted, backed up regularly, and stored according to retention policies. A – AICPA SAS 70 Type II audits: Use third-party audits to validate internal controls and service reliability. S – SLAs for patching and vulnerability remediation: Establish agreements for timely updates and vulnerability fixes. B – Blacklists: Check if domains or services are listed in known blacklists to avoid risky connections. L – Legal contracts in employee behavior policy: Include security expectations and legal obligations in employment agreements. U – User credentials sharing prohibited: Enforce policies that prevent sharing of login credentials. A – Authentication, authorization, auditing: Implement robust access control and activity monitoring. D – Data protection at design and runtime: Embed security throughout the development lifecycle and during operation.
55
ADARISR – NIST Cloud Security Recommendations
mnemonic for recommendations of cloud security A – Assess the risk posed: Evaluate threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts before adopting cloud services. D – Deployment model selection: Choose between public, private, hybrid, or community cloud models based on risk. A – Audit procedures are in place: Ensure that logging and auditing mechanisms monitor system and user activity. R – Renew SLAs if security gaps exist: Revisit service level agreements if providers fail to meet security needs. I – Incident detection & reporting: Establish systems and processes for timely identification and reporting of security incidents. S – Security objectives analysis: Align cloud services with organizational security goals and requirements. R – Responsibility for data security: Clearly define who is accountable for securing data in the shared responsibility model.