Closed Book MQF Flashcards by Philip Wheat

Throttle friction can be adjusted:
A. only on the ground.
B. from the rear cockpit anytime.
C. is not adjustable.
D. from the front cockpit anytime.

A. only on the ground.

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The 30-second start cycle starts when:
A. you press the start button.
B. you place the throttle in idle.
C. from the first indication of fuel flow.
D. from the first indication of EGT rise.

A. you press the start button.

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The fuel crossfeed switch operates on ____ power.
A. left AC
B. right AC
C. DC
D. both AC and DC

C. DC

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Crossfeed operation may be used to:
A. supply fuel to one engine from both systems.
B. operate both engines on fuel from one system.
C. balance the systems by drawing fuel from one tank to the other.
D. a and b above.

D. a and b above.

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With a low-fuel state (250 lbs in either system), do not attempt to ensure fuel flow to both engines by selecting crossfeed operation with both fuel boost pumps operating.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A. TRUE

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Taxi operations with less than _____ pounds in either fuel system could cause cavitation of the boost
pump of that system, resulting in engine flameout during turns and low power settings.
A. 300
B. 250
C. 200
D. 150

D. 150

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A rapid fuel imbalance can occur with the crossfeed switch on and:
A. both boost pumps off.
B. both boost pumps on.
C. good crossover.
D. A or B above.

D. A or B above.

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An airframe mounted gearbox for each engine operates a (an) _______ and a (an) _______.
A. transformer-rectifier, hydraulic pump
B. hydraulic pump; oil pump
C. AC generator; oil pump
D. hydraulic pump; AC generator

D. hydraulic pump; AC generator

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The transformer-rectifier:
A. converts AC to DC power.
B. converts DC to AC power.
C. supplies the right engine instruments AC power during engine start.
D. supplies AC power in the event of dual generator failure.

A. converts AC to DC power.

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AC electrical power for the right engine instruments is supplied by the _______ during normal
engine starts.
A. static inverter
B. transformer-rectifier
C. right generator
D. battery

A. static inverter

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When the fire detection system senses an overheat condition or fire, _______ bulb(s) in the FIRE
warning light for the respective engine illuminate(s).
A. one
B. either
C. neither
D. both

D. both

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The hydraulic caution lights will illuminate for:
A. a low-pressure condition below 1,500 psi.
B. a high-pressure condition above 3,200 psi.
C. excessively high hydraulic fluid temperature.
D. A and C.

D. A and C.

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The brake discs and plates are near the end of their service life when the top of the nut is
__________ with the top of the cylinder on any of the three mechanisms.
A. flush
B. greater than flush
C. less than flush
D. equal

C. less than flush

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If one flap motor fails as you lower the flaps, you may expect:
A. one flap to stop, the other to continue.
B. both flaps to stop.
C. flap extension time to be much shorter than normal.
D. both flaps to continue because they are interconnected by a rotary flexible shaft.

D. both flaps to continue because they are interconnected by a rotary flexible shaft.

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When operating in the emergency mode, the flaps can be stopped at any position by placing the flap
lever in the ______ position.
A. UP
B. 60% detent
C. DOWN
D. The flaps cannot be stopped at an intermediate position

B. 60% detent

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Abrupt forward or aft deflection or pulsing of the stick in the Mach range _______ may result in
overshoot of the limit load factor.
A. below 0.80
B. 0.80 to 0.95
C. 0.75 to 1.0
D. above 0.95

B. 0.80 to 0.95

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During preflight, if the striker plate in the nose gear well is found in the _____ position, maintenance
gear retraction is required.
A. down
B. up
C. center
D. neutral

A. down

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With DC failure, the rear cockpit _____ light will not illuminate due to gear relay wiring.
A. left main gear
B. right main gear
C. nose gear
D. gear handle

C. nose gear

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If the rear cockpit canopy jettison handle is pulled, __________ will jettison.
A. both canopies
B. only the rear canopy
C. only the front canopy
D. neither canopy

B. only the rear canopy

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When _____ is/are unlocked, both canopy warning lights illuminate.
A. the front canopy
B. the rear canopy
C. either canopy
D. both canopies

C. either canopy

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If the canopy jettison is activated with the canopy in other than the _____ position, the canopy could
fall off its hinges and into the cockpit area.
A. open and unlocked
B. closed and locked
C. open and locked
D. closed and unlocked

B. closed and locked

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While performing your preflight check, you notice a pin and warning flag on the rear of the ejection seat. What should you do?
A. Pull the pin and continue with the remaining portions of the “BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION”
checklist.
B. Have the seat checked by qualified maintenance personnel.
C. Have the plane captain remove the pin.
D. Write it up after the flight.

B. Have the seat checked by qualified maintenance personnel.

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On solo missions, the rear cockpit standby ADI should be:
A. caged
B. uncaged
C. turned off
D. tested with ground APU power

B. uncaged

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The ______ will personally ensure that the rear cockpit is closed and locked.
A. plane captain
B. pilot
C. MO
D. SDO

B. pilot

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On the ground, the minimum RPM required for engine start is: A. 10% B. 12% C. 14% D. 16%

B. 12%

All _____ light bulbs in both cockpits must illuminate during TEST. A. marker beacon B. map C. standby compass D. four fire warning

D. four fire warning

During start, if ignition does not occur before fuel flow reaches 360 PPH, retard the throttle to OFF and: A. abort the aircraft. B. maintain airflow to permit fuel and vapors to purge. C. wait a minimum of 2 minutes before attempting restart. D. B and C above.

D. B and C above.

Abort the start if EGT does not begin to rise within: A. 12 seconds after placing the throttle to idle B. 12 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow C. 15 seconds after placing the throttle to idle D. 15 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow

B. 12 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow

To prevent possible canopy downlock mechanism damage, taxi with _____ whenever practical. A. both canopies up B. both canopies down and pressurized C. both canopies down and depressurized D. A or B

D. A or B

Abort the takeoff if the afterburner does not light within _______ seconds of initiation. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. Do not abort the takeoff if the aircraft meets or exceeds MACS

B. 5

When flying in gusty winds, increase which of the following speeds by half the gust factor? A. Yellow B. Green C. Touchdown D. B and C

D. B and C

Fuel required for a go-around is approximately _____ pounds. A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

B. 150

Use Caution when braking at speeds above _____ KCAS/KIAS. Locked brakes are difficult to diagnose until well after the fact. Optimum braking should not be attempted above this speed. A. 100 B. 120 C. 220 D. 240

A. 100

When the crosswind component exceeds _______ knots, plan to land on the upwind side of the runway. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

B. 15

When making a full stop landing using crosswind procedures: A. lower the nose immediately B. aerobrake normally C. maintain the landing attitude by increasing back pressure on the stick D. raise the flaps to prevent drift

C. maintain the landing attitude by increasing back pressure on the stick

Anytime the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway): A. shut down the affected engine B. shut down both engines C. leave both engines running to ensure downside hydraulic pressure D. taxi back and inform maintenance

B. shut down both engines

During emergency ground egress, if either canopy cannot be opened using the normal procedure, pull the respective: A. survival kit emergency release handle B. canopy jettison T-handle C. alternate gear extension handle D. canopy breaker tool

B. canopy jettison T-handle

A pressure of greater than ____ PSI indicated on the oxygen regulator pressure gauge could indicate a relief valve failure. A. 50 B. 55 C. 90 D. 120

D. 120

Aerodynamic braking is more effective than cautious wheel braking above: A. 100 KIAS/KCAS. B. refusal speed. C. SETOS. D. 4,000 feet pressure altitude.

A. 100 KIAS/KCAS.

Flaps should not be repositioned during a high-speed abort until: A. full aft stick pitch attitude is attained. B. below computed no flap touchdown speed. C. below computed full flap touchdown speed. D. A and C.

D. A and C.

The minimum rotation speed, single engine is: A. 145 KIAS/KCAS B. SETOS C. SETOS + 10 KIAS/KCAS D. CEFS

B. SETOS

The gear should be retracted during a single-engine takeoff as soon as the aircraft is airborne and above: A. SETOS. B. SETOS + 10 KIAS/KCAS. C. 200 KIAS/KCAS. D. 400 feet AGL.

B. SETOS + 10 KIAS/KCAS.

With windmilling hydraulics, gear retraction, when initiated between SETOS+10 and 200 KIAS/KCAS, may require up to: A. 30 seconds B. 45 seconds C. 1 minute D. 2 minutes

C. 1 minute

If unable to retract the landing gear, best single-engine level flight/climb capability is obtained at _____ with 60% flaps or _____ with the flaps up. A. SETOS, 200 KIAS/KCAS B. SETOS, 220 KIAS/KCAS C. SETOS+10, 220 KIAS/KCAS D. 200, 220 KIAS/KCAS

D. 200, 220 KIAS/KCAS

During a single-engine takeoff/go-around, at high gross weight, with the landing gear extended, flap retraction should not be initiated prior to _______ KIAS/KCAS. A. 190 B. 200 C. 220 D. 240

C. 220

During a dual engine failure at low altitude and with sufficient airspeed, the aircraft should be zoomed approximately _____ degrees nose up attitude to exchange airspeed for altitude. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

C. 20

During a restart in flight, leave the throttle at IDLE for _______ before aborting the start. A. 10 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 45 seconds D. 1 minute

B. 30 seconds

The _____ procedure should be attempted immediately upon detection of dual engine flameout. A. Ejection B. Normal Restart C. Alternate Airstart / Loss of Thrust (Low Altitude) D. Ditching

C. Alternate Airstart / Loss of Thrust (Low Altitude)

After retarding the right throttle to IDLE for a fire light, the fire light immediately goes out. When you test the fire warning system, the right fire light does not illuminate. You should: A. leave the right engine in IDLE, unless you have other indications of a fire B. shut down the right engine C. eject D. use the right engine normally

B. shut down the right engine

When a fire light is preceded or accompanied by a pop, bang or thump, it usually indicates a serious engine malfunction and (or) fire. Consideration should be given to: A. increasing airspeed B. shutting down the engine C. ejecting D. retarding the throttle to idle and checking the fire sensors

B. shutting down the engine

If either canopy is lost in flight, immediately slow to _____ KIAS/KCAS or less. A. 200 B. 250 C. 275 D. 300

D. 300

After losing a canopy, a minimum drag airspeed is _____ KIAS/KCAS. A. 200 B. 225 C. 250 D. 275

B. 225

If cabin pressure is lost, descend immediately to maintain aircraft at or below _____ feet. A. 10,000 B. 18,000 (10,000 desired) C. 25,000 (18,000 desired) D. 25,000

C. 25,000 (18,000 desired)

Simultaneous failure of the engine RPM indications and oil pump (oil pressure indicates zero) may be an indication of: A. Airframe mounted gearbox failure. B. Left generator failure without crossover. C. Right generator failure without crossover. D. Oil pump shaft shear.

D. Oil pump shaft shear.

Do not delay ejection below _____ feet above terrain (AGL) in futile attempts to start the engines or for other reasons that may commit you to an unsafe ejection or a dangerous flameout landing. A. 400. B. 2,000. C. 4,000. D. 6,000.

B. 2,000.

If you notice a fuel low pressure light and suspect boost pump failure, reset the affected boost pump circuit breakers by: A. turn the crossfeed ON, then reset the circuit breakers. B. turn the affected boost pump OFF, then reset the circuit breaker. C. reset a boost pump circuit breaker one time only. D. B and C.

D. B and C.

If complete _____ failure occurs with the gear extended, the gear should be pinned prior to taxiing clear of the runway. A. DC B. left AC C. right AC D. AC

A. DC

If utility hydraulic pressure is depleted: A. land with all gear up B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway C. the flight control hydraulic system backs up all the utility driven systems D. the flaps will not extend

B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway

If one hydraulic system reads zero pressure, hydraulic system transfer may occur. In this case, flight time could be limited to only _______ minutes. A. 15 B. 20 C. 35 D. 45

C. 35

Following a controllability check touchdowns greater than ____ KIAS/KCAS should not be attempted as the nose gear will touch down first, increasing the possibility of a high speed PIO. A. 165 B. 180 C. 200 D. 220

C. 200

If wing flap asymmetry exists, attain an airspeed above _______ KIAS/KCAS. A. 160. B. 180. C. 220. D. 240.

B. 180.

Compared to a normal landing, a no-flap landing may increase the landing distance by: A. 1,000 feet B. 2,000 feet C. 50% D. double

D. double

If a main landing gear fails to extend to the locked position due to the main landing gear sidebrace pin backing out: A. repeated gear extension attempts can result in an unlandable configuration. B. repeat extension attempts will always result in a landable configuration. C. a chase aircraft cannot verify side brace pin backing out. D. repeatedly cycle the landing gear

A. repeated gear extension attempts can result in an unlandable configuration.

Go-around after touchdown on a _____ should be avoided. A. blown tire B. locked brake C. practice no-flap landing D. A or B

D. A or B

Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air-conditioning system may indicate failure of the _______. A. air conditioner turbine B. right/left airframe mounted gearbox C. right/left generator D. right/left oil pump shaft

A. air conditioner turbine

The corrective action for air-conditioner turbine failure is: A. set canopy defog to max B. select RAM DUMP C. turn the battery OFF D. turn engine anti-ice ON

B. select RAM DUMP

With engine anti-ice on, at engine speeds of 94% to 98% RPM, an increase in EGT of approximately _____ °C is normal. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

B. 15

The DC powered standby attitude indicator will provide a minimum of ______ minutes of useful attitude information after power failure. A. 5 B. 9 C. 17 D. 25

B. 9

Approximate Maximum Range and Maximum Endurance AOA are represented by _____ and _____, respectively. A. 0.18, 0.3 B. 0.3, 0.69 C. 0.8, 0.99 D. 0.9, 1.1

A. 0.18, 0.3

During normal operations, the oxygen pressure gauge should read _______ psi. A. no more than 5 B. 20 to 150 C. 50 to 120 D. 50 to 450

C. 50 to 120

Do not exceed _____ KIAS/KCAS when the flaps are deflected 1% to 45%, _____ KIAS/KCAS when the flaps are deflected 46% to 60%, or _____ KIAS/KCAS when the flaps are deflected over 60%. A. 240, 220, 200 B. 300, 220, 180 C. 300, 240, 180 D. 300, 240, 220

D. 300, 240, 220

Do not exceed _____ KIAS/KCAS with the landing gear extended and/or landing gear doors open. A. 190 B. 220 C. 240 D. 300

C. 240

An overstress failure of the main landing gear sidebrace trunion may occur if the gear is extended/retracted at: A. bank angles greater than 30° B. bank angles greater than 45° C. load factors greater than 1.5G D. B or C

D. B or C

An over temperature occurs during engine start if the EGT peaks above _____ °C. A. 650 B. 765 C. 845 D. 925

D. 925

At full afterburner, the nozzles should read in the range of _______ %. A. 0 to 20 B. 5 to 20 C. 50 to 85 D. 77 to 92

C. 50 to 85

Nozzle position at MIL is _______%. A. 0 to 20 B. 20 to 55 C. 50 to 85 D. 77 to 92

A. 0 to 20

Normal oil pressure operating range at MIL is ______ PSI. A. 5 to 20 B. 15 to 20 C. 20 to 55 D. 46 to 50

C. 20 to 55

After engine start on a cold morning, do not exceed _____ minute(s) in military power with oil pressure above 55 PSI. A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10

C. 5

After engine start on a cold morning, do not exceed _____ minute(s) in military power with oil pressure above 55 PSI. A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10

C. 5

Minimum oil pressure (in flight) at idle is _______ PSI. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

A. 5

If a sudden change of _____ PSI or greater in oil pressure indication occurs at any stabilized RPM, follow engine Oil System Malfunction procedures. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15

C. 10

To accomplish a stall recovery: A. relax back stick pressure. B. roll wings level. C. move throttles to MAX. D. All of the above simultaneously.

D. All of the above simultaneously.

During stall recoveries, reducing the bank angle will _____ the stall speed and _____ the sink rate. A. lower, decrease B. lower, increase C. raise, decrease D. raise, increase

A. lower, decrease

When experiencing any unrecognizable post stall gyrations, _______ until the aircraft settles into a recognizable maneuver or recovers. A. Move the stick abruptly full forward and hold B. Move the stick abruptly full aft and hold C. Smoothly neutralize all flight controls D. Move the aileron full in the direction of the turn with rudder applied full opposite direction

C. Smoothly neutralize all flight controls

Minimum stick forces per G occur at approximately _______ IMN. A. 0.7 B. 0.8 C. 0.9 D. 1.0

C. 0.9

The fuel quantity indicators should be monitored to maintain the two systems within _______ pounds of each other to ensure that the aircraft CG is maintained within limits. A. 200 B. 300 C. 400 D. 500

A. 200

Crossfeeding is not recommended: A. with a fuel gauge malfunction. B. during low fuel state or at low altitude. C. with a fuel leak or inoperative boost pump. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

For single-engine operations, with 250 pounds or less fuel remaining in either system: A. place both boost pumps OFF and crossfeed ON B. place both boost pumps ON and crossfeed ON C. place both boost pumps ON and crossfeed OFF D. place both boost pumps OFF and crossfeed OFF

B. place both boost pumps ON and crossfeed ON

Excessive _____ and angle of attack expands engine compressor stall/flameout susceptibility. A. bank B. altitude C. yaw D. airspeed

C. yaw

During a circling approach, bank angles in excess of _____ degrees may make a level turn impossible under some conditions of heavy gross weights, high temperatures and pressure altitudes. A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

C. 45

During a circling approach, full flaps should be selected no earlier than: A. the FAF B. intercepting a normal final turn C. until transitioning to a normal final D. descent from circling MDA

C. until transitioning to a normal final

If flight through moderate precipitation is unavoidable, then: A. slow to minimum practical airspeed to negate or lessen damage B. fly at maximum practical airspeed to minimize exposure C. set a high power setting with anti-ice on to preclude engine flameouts D. b and c

A. slow to minimum practical airspeed to negate or lessen damage

The maximum recommended 90-degree crosswind component is _____ knots for dry runways, _____ knots for wet runways, and _____ knots for icy runways and those containing standing water. A. 30, 25, 20 B. 25, 20, 15 C. 30, 20, 10 D. 25, 20, 10

C. 30, 20, 10

Insufficient aerodynamic braking or crosswind landing procedures could increase the ground roll distance by as much as: A. 33% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

B. 50%

There are separate contacts on the landing gear downlock switches for each cockpit green light indicator. A good light in either cockpit assures that gear is down and locked. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

Both seats will eject if the ISS mode selector switch is in _______ and an unpinned ejection handle is pulled, even if the other seat is pinned. A. BOTH B. CMD FWD C. SOLO D. MANUAL

A. BOTH

Before engine start, with external or battery power applied, the EED FF indicator(s) should read no higher than _____ PPH. A higher indication may be an indication of EED failure or a fuel transmitter failure. A. 55 B. 60 C. 120 D. 200

D. 200

With ____ failure, the rear cockpit nose gear light does not illuminate due to gear relay wiring. A. AC B. DC C. Right AC D. Left AC

B. DC

Which of the following is correct concerning the Mk-16T ejection seat's three modes: high-, medium- , and low-altitude? A. Aircrew will fall in the seat until at least 15,000 ft MSL. B. Below 15,000 but more than 12,000 ft MSL, parachute opening is delayed until the G load is less than 3.25 G. C. Below 12,000 ft MSL, parachute opening is delayed until G load is less than 6.2 G. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Initially applying power to the _____ (WAIT displayed on HUD) while ICAO data is loading will cause the ICAO data to not load correctly. A. MDP B. TCAS C. EGI D. GPS

C. EGI

Ejection from either an erect or inverted spin is to be accomplished if a spin recovery is not completed by _________ feet above the terrain, or if transverse-g loads preclude maintaining anti-spin controls, whichever occurs first. A. 2,000 B. 6,000 C. 10,000 D. 15,000

B. 6,000

With an asymmetric flap condition, do not touchdown below _____ KCAS. A. 160 B. 165 C. 190 D. 220

B. 165

The correct sequence to SAFE the ejection seat after landing is: ISS mode selector - SOLO (AS REQUIRED); SAFE/ARMED lever - SAFE. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

Which EED instruments are valid with complete AC failure? A. RPM. B. Nozzle. C. EGT. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

______ should not be initiated until ICAO loading is complete. A. Engine start B. Taxiing C. VTR recording D. Takeoff

D. Takeoff

Which switch applies power to the Radar Altimeter (RALT) and YSAS? A. TCAS. B. MDP. C. EGI. D. Battery.

C. EGI.

With the take command switch in OVERRIDE, which of the following occur? A. Front cockpit MFD receives rear cockpit MFD display. B. Front cockpit control stick Master Mode switch (MMS) is inoperative. C. Front Cockpit MFD Option Select Buttons (MOSBs), UFCP keys, and OSBs are inoperative. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

In the event of RCP nose gear indication circuitry failure to the MDP: A. STALL warning is not available. B. gear down symbology on the HUD is not displayed. C. MDP automatic speed calculation is disabled. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

When PFR TEMP is selected via the MFD DATA page, the OAT/TAT is displayed on the ______ display. A. PFR. B. HSD. C. SIT. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

For engine and fuel data to display on the MFD, _____ EED(s) must be on and operating. A. at least one B. both C. neither

A. at least one

The Radar Altimeter (RALT) indicates altitudes from 0 to approximately _____ feet AGL, within _____ degrees of straight-and-level flight in pitch and roll. A. 4000, 45 B. 5200, 45 C. 5200, 60 D. 5200, 90

B. 5200, 45

During an inflight alignment, maintain unaccelerated __________ flight while LEVEL is displayed in the HUD. A. S-turning B. level (bank as required) C. straight and level D. wings-level (climb or descend as required)

C. straight and level

When the EGI is off or totally failed you will lose all except the following: A. Groundspeed. B. EED displays. C. Flight Director. D. G-meter.

B. EED displays.

NAV backup control panel becomes the primary navigation control in case of ______ failure. A. MFD B. EED C. MDP D. HUD

C. MDP

For any UHF Radio operation which of the following is correct? A. EGI switch must be in the on position. B. UHF Backup Control Panel Power Knob and the NAV Backup Control Panel Mode Knob must be out of OFF. C. Battery switch must be in the on position, regardless of AC power. D. UFCP must be on with a valid channel selected.

B. UHF Backup Control Panel Power Knob and the NAV Backup Control Panel Mode Knob must be out of OFF.

Transmission on the lower UHF antenna may cause interference with the ILS and cause: A. Pitch steering bar to blank. B. Course steering bar to blank. C. ILS frequency to flash on the UFCP and MFD. D. UHF radio interference.

A. Pitch steering bar to blank.

Short power interruptions, such as generator shifts/cycles, can cause the MDP to command the TCAS to: A. TA. B. RA. C. SBY. D. Mode C.

C. SBY.

When TCAS is set to NORMAL (NOR), the vertical display limits are set to: A. 8,700 ft below to 2,700 ft above. B. 2,700 ft below to 2,700 ft above. C. 2,700 ft below to 8,700 ft above. D. 9,000 ft below to 9,000 ft above.

B. 2,700 ft below to 2,700 ft above.

The ENGINE FIRE voice warning has a higher priority than all of the following except: A. ALTITUDE. B. PULL UP. C. BINGO FUEL. D. OVER G.

B. PULL UP.

Depressing the RCP MASTER CAUTION will not reset the WCA system. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

Pressing the ACK button on the UFCP in either cockpit will: A. only reset the warning/caution/advisory (WCA) system. B. only remove HUD and MFD-generated messages. C. clear the PFL. D. display a witness mark on the HUD and MFD and start the chronometer.

B. only remove HUD and MFD-generated messages.

When the MDP fails, the following occur: A. No HUD display. B. No UFCP operation. C. MFD changes to backup mode. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

AC power transients (generator reset or successful crossover) may cause HUD blanking for 3 to 5 seconds, this is not a malfunction. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

If the EED indicates a latched EGT overtemperature condition, maintain EGT within limits and land as soon as practical. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

Failure of the left essential 28 VDC bus results in the loss of flap and speed brake control. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

If an EGT exceedance over 650°C, but not in excess of 665°C, is indicated without an EGT OVERTEMP CAUTION after brake release: A. Retard throttle to maintain EGT within limits. B. That mission may be continued, but maintenance personnel must check engine trim after flight. C. Land as soon as practical if EGT cannot be maintained at or below 665°C at MIL power. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

During the preflight inspection of the ejection seat, check the left and right top latch mechanism and seat rail for: A. Exposed/visible yellow unlatched indications. B. Green latched indications. C. Red unlatched indications. D. Safety wire.

A. Exposed/visible yellow unlatched indications.

During flight near thunderstorms or in thin cirrus clouds, EED fuel quantity displays have been observed to vary by as much as _____ pounds. A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

C. 200

After the MDP has timed in, you change the UHF backup channel selection by selecting UHF B/U, changing the channel, and immediately returning to NORM. If the MDP fails, the UHF radio will revert to: A. The original channel because you can’t change the UHF backup channel after the MDP has timed in. B. The channel you selected. C. The original channel because you didn’t wait 3 seconds before returning to NORM. D. Whichever UHF channel or frequency was selected via the UFCP prior to the MDP failure.

C. The original channel because you didn’t wait 3 seconds before returning to NORM.

Under uncontrollable conditions, eject at least _____ feet above terrain whenever possible. A. 2,000 B. 4,000 C. 6,000 D. 15,000

C. 6,000

The following cockpit indications can occur when pitot heat operations on the ground exceed 30 seconds: A. The YSAS can be expected to disengage. B. TAS is not available for display. C. An ADC PFL may occur and all three AOA indexer lights illuminate. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

If EGI NAV mode is selected before a FULL alignment is completed: A. This degrades the performance of the EGI and can result in erroneous operation. B. With the aircraft stopped, continue alignment by toggling NAV to ALN on UFCP EGI menu. C. Cycle EGI power to start a new alignment. D. Both A and B.

D. Both A and B.

Aircrew shall account for all __ pins prior to initiating over the rails checks. A. 6 B. 9 C. 4 D. 7

D. 7

Up Front Control Panel (UFCP) inputs may be accomplished during times where “hands up” is directed by the Plane Captain. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

Deselect afterburner accelerating through ___ KCAS (for standardization). A. 220 B. 230 C. 240 D. When you want to

B. 230

The first indication of RPM Rollback maybe the generator warning as the RPM decays through 43%. ___________ of the affected engine(s) and increase airspeed above 200 KCAS in order to allow RPM to increase towards normal idle. A. Increase the throttle B. Retard the throttle C. Do not move the throttle

B. Retard the throttle

Most overstresses occur with airspeeds in excess of ___ KCAS combined with a rapid stick input near or in excess of the aircraft’s resonant frequency. A. 300 B. 350 C. 400 D. 450

C. 400

Dual concurrence is required to select flaps 100% when below 220 KCAS. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

The airplane shall be configured for landing by the _____ position in the visual pattern. A. Abeam B. 180 C. 90 D. Threshold

B. 180

No-flap touch-and-go landings may be practiced without a T-38 IP on board. A. TRUE B. FALSE

B. FALSE

Student steady state crosswind landing limit is __ kts without an IP on board. Flights with an IP may use a steady crosswind limit of __ kts for full-stop landings. Should winds increase above student crosswind limits while airborne, students are authorized to land up to __ kts (steady or gusting) or divert as required. With crosswind component steady or gusting in excess of __ knots, only full stop landings are authorized. A. 20, 25, 25, 20 B. 15, 25, 25, 15 C. 15, 25, 15, 15 D. 20, 30, 30, 20

B. 15, 25, 25, 15

A minimum of __ minutes behind heavy aircraft, __ minutes behind large aircraft, should be utilized whenever following large or heavy aircraft. With crosswind over 5 kts, these times may be reduced. A. 2, 4 B. 5, 2 C. 4, 2 D. 4, 4

C. 4, 2

__________ canopy(s) shall be unlocked before shutdown and cabin must be depressurized otherwise the canopy seal may be damaged or the canopies may become stuck closed. A. Both B. At least one C. Neither

B. At least one

Minimum runway length is ______ ft. A. 8,000 B. 9,000 C. 7,000 D. 6,900

A. 8,000

Minimum fuel on deck is ___ lbs., emergency fuel on deck is ___ lbs. A. 1000, 800 B. 900, 600 C. 600, 400 D. 800, 600

D. 800, 600

Minimum altitude for recovery initiation from stalls is _______ ft. AGL. A. 6,000 B. 10,000 C. 8,000 D. 12,000

B. 10,000

Maximum entry altitude for an over-the-top aerobatic maneuver (i.e. loop, Immelmann, Cuban 8) is _________ ft. MSL. A. 10,000 B. 12,000 C. 14,000 D. 15,000

C. 14,000

Engine Anti-Ice shall be turned on prior to takeoff if the outside air temperature is less than___. A. 30F/3C B. 4F/40C C. 40F/4C D. 45F/5C

C. 40F/4C