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Top 200 Drugs > CLM Exam 1 Drugs 1.27.20 > Flashcards

CLM Exam 1 Drugs 1.27.20 Flashcards

1
Q

bimatoprost

A

Latisse, Lumigan

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2
Q

cetirizine

A

Zyrtec

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3
Q

diphenhydramine

A

Benadryl

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4
Q

formoterol/budesonide

A

Symbicort

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5
Q

hydroxychloroquine

A

Plaquenil

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6
Q

indomethacin

A

Indocin

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7
Q

ketorolac

A

Toradol

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8
Q

latanoprost

A

Xaltan

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9
Q

levocetirizine

A

Xyzal

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10
Q

loratadine

A

Claritin

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11
Q

methotrexate

A

Trexall

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12
Q

montelukast

A

Singulair

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13
Q

morphine

A

Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin

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14
Q

oxycodone

A

OxyContin, Roxicodone

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15
Q

prednisone

A

Deltasone

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16
Q

bimatoprost (Latisse, Lumigan) class

A

agent for glaucoma

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17
Q

bimatoprost (Latisse, Lumigan) FDA uses

A

open-angle glaucoma, ocular hypertension, hypotrichosis of the eyelashes

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18
Q

bimatoprost (Latisse, Lumigan) MOA

A

synthetic prostaglandin analog; lowers IOP by increasing outflow of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork & uveoscleral drainage systems. The MOA for eyelash growth is unknown. It may work by increasing the duration & % of hairs in the anagen or growth phase.

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19
Q

bimatoprost (Latisse, Lumigan) MCP

A
  • may permanently increase iris pigmentation
  • hair growth is possible on skin surfaces after repeated contact with drug
  • remove contact lenses before administration; reinsert after 15 minutes
  • do not instill multiple ophthalmic products; allow at least 5 minutes between
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20
Q

cetirizine (Zyrtec) class

A

antihistamine

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21
Q

cetirizine (Zyrtec) FDA uses

A
  • allergic conjunctivitis
  • allergic rhinitis due to pollen
  • urticaria (hives) acute or chronic
  • perennial allergic rhinitis
  • upper respiratory tract allergy
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22
Q

cetirizine (Zyrtec) MOA

A

human metabolite of hydroxyzine that selectively inhibits effects of peripheral H1 receptors

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23
Q

cetirizine (Zyrtec)

A
  • ophthalmic use: remove contacts, reinsert after 10 minutes

- avoid alcohol & other CNS depressants

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24
Q

diphenhydramine (Benadryl) class

A

antihistamine

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25
Q

diphenhydramine (Benadryl) FDA uses

A
  • allergic conjuctivitis
  • allergic reaction
  • allergic rhinitis
  • anaphylaxis (w/epi or other measures)
  • common cold
  • insomnia
  • motion sickness
  • Parkinsonism
  • pruritus (itching) of skin
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26
Q

diphenhydramine (Benadryl) MOA

A

Competes with histamine for H1-receptor sites on effector cells in the gastrointestinal tract, blood vessels, and respiratory tract; anticholinergic and sedative effects are also seen

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27
Q

diphenhydramine (Benadryl) MCP

A
  • Young children may experience a paradoxical excitation effect (opposite effect of drug - hyperactivity)
  • may cause anticholinergic effects (elderly pts more susceptible)
  • avoid concomitant use with MAO inhibitors or CNS depressants
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28
Q

formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort) class

A

combined inhaled corticosteroids & bronchodilators

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29
Q

formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort) FDA uses

A
  • asthma

- COPD

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30
Q

formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort) MOA

A
  • Budesonide is an anti-inflammatory synthetic corticosteroid w/potent glucocorticoid & weak mineralocorticoid activity. It exhibits a broad range of active inhibition against multiple cell types & mediators involving allergic & nonallergic/irritant mediated inflammation
  • Formoterol fumarate is a long-acting bronchodilator that exerts agonistic effects on beta(2)-adrenergic receptors, which are found principally in bronchial smooth muscle. The drug increases cyclic-3’, 5’-adenosine monophosphate (cyclic AMP) levels by stimulating intracellular adenyl cyclase, the catalyst for the conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cyclic AMP. A rise in cyclic AMP leads to bronchial smooth muscle relaxation and blockade of the release of immediate hypersensitivity mediators
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31
Q

formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort) MCP

A
  • not intended for acute asthma attacks
  • avoid exposure to chickenpox or measles
  • report S&S of URI, hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppression (fatigue, depression, anxiety, hyperglycemia, muscle weakness, immunosuppression symptoms)
  • DM pts report difficulties with glycemic control
  • **rinse & spit after each use to prevent fungal infection
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32
Q

hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) class

A

agent for RA

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33
Q

hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) FDA uses

A
  • RA
  • lupus erythematosus
  • malaria
34
Q

hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) MOA

A

thought to act as a mild immunosuppressant, inhibiting the production of rheumatoid factor & acute phase reactants. It also accumulates in white blood cells, stabilizing lysosomal membranes & inhibiting the activity of many enzymes, including collagenase & the proteases that cause cartilage breakdown

35
Q

hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) MCP

A

take with a meal or glass of milk

36
Q

indomethacin (Indocin) class

A

NSAID

37
Q

indomethacin (Indocin) FDA uses

A
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • gouty arthritis
  • osteoarthritis
  • pain (acute, mild, moderate)
  • RA
38
Q

indomethacin (Indocin) MOA

A

Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2), which leads to decreased prostaglandin synthesis

39
Q

indomethacin (Indocin) BBW

A

Increased risk for cardiovascular thrombotic events (MI, stroke). Contraindicated in setting of coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Increased risk of GI bleeding, ulceration, and perforation. Elderly are at greater risk for serious GI events.

40
Q

indomethacin (Indocin) MCP

A
  • avoid in pregnancy after 30wks - may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriousus
  • avoid non-RX aspirin products or other NSAIDs
41
Q

ketorolac (Toradol) class

A

NSAID

42
Q

ketorolac (Toradol) FDA uses

A
  • extraction of cataract
  • pain
  • eye pain
  • seasonal allergic conjunctivitis
43
Q

ketorolac (Toradol) MOA

A

Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 and 2 (COX-1 and 2) enzymes, which results in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors; has antipyretic, analgesic, and anti-inflammatory properties.

44
Q

ketorolac (Toradol) BBW

A
  • short term use; 5 days total for acute moderately severe pain.
  • contraindicated: active or hx of peptic ulcer disease, recent GI bleed or perforation, hx of GI bleeding, advanced renal impairment, risk of renal failure due to volume depletion, also pts on aspirin or NSAIDs before surgery, labor/delivery, and nursing mothers.
45
Q

ketorolac (Toradol) MCP

A
  • avoid in late pregnancy; may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriousus
  • (ophthalmic) remove contacts; wait at least 5 minutes before another ophthalmic medication
46
Q

latanoprost (Xaltal) class

A

agent for glaucoma

47
Q

latanoprost (Xaltal) FDA uses

A
  • ocular htn

- open-angle glaucoma

48
Q

latanoprost (Xaltal) MOA

A

prostaglandin F2-alpha analogue that reduces the intraocular pressure (IOP) by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor. The main mechanism is increased uveoscleral outflow

49
Q

latanoprost (Xaltal) MCP

A
  • increased brown pigmentation of iris which may be permanent, eyelid skin darkening, eyelash changes which may be reversible after discontinuation
  • remove contacts, reinsert after 15 mins, wait at least 5 mins between other ophthalmic products
50
Q

levocetirizine (Xyzal) class

A

antihistamine

51
Q

levocetirizine (Xyzal) FDA uses

A
  • idiopathic urticaria

- perennial allergic rhinitis

52
Q

levocetirizine (Xyzal) MOA

A

selectively inhibits the effect of H(1)-receptors

53
Q

levocetirizine (Xyzal) MCP

A
  • avoid alcohol or other CNS depressants
  • can be broken in half to correctly dose children
  • may cause nasopharyngitis, xerostomia, and pharyngitis, as well as pyrexia, cough, and epistaxis in children 12 and under
54
Q

loratadine (Clarintin) class

A

antihistamine

55
Q

loratadine (Clarintin) FDA uses

A
  • idiopathic urticaria

- seasonal allergic rhinitis

56
Q

loratadine (Clarintin) MOA

A

a long-acting tricyclic antihistamine, selectively blocks peripheral histamine H(1)-receptor activity

57
Q

loratadine (Clarintin) MCP

A

Rapidly disintegrating tablets may be taken with or without water

58
Q

methotrexate (Trexall) class

A

agent for RA

59
Q

methotrexate (Trexall) FDA uses

A
  • acute lymphoid leukemia
  • juvenile idiopathic arthritis
  • severe psoriasis
  • severe RA
60
Q

methotrexate (Trexall) MOA

A

An anti-metabolite that interferes with DNA synthesis, repair, and cellular replication by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. In rheumatoid arthritis, the methotrexate mechanism of action is unknown, but it may have an effect on immune function. Methotrexate controls the psoriasis process of increased proliferation in the rate of epithelial cell production in the skin.

61
Q

methotrexate (Trexall) BBW

A
  • severe toxic rxns including embryo-fetal toxicity
62
Q

methotrexate (Trexall) MCP

A
  • drug is administered weekly
  • avoid pregnancy during and 6mths after final dose
  • if subq teach proper technique for placement of injections
63
Q

montelukast (Singulair) class

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist

64
Q

montelukast (Singulair) FDA uses

A
  • asthma

- perennial and seasonal allergic rhinitis

65
Q

montelukast (Singulair) MOA

A

selective and active leukotriene receptor antagonist. It binds to cysteinyl leukotrienes (CysLT) type-1 receptors found in human airway (smooth muscle cells and macrophages), which prevents airway edema, smooth muscle contraction and other respiratory inflammation. The leukotrienes are also released from the nasal mucosa after allergen exposure where montelukast sodium may inhibit symptoms of allergic rhinitis

66
Q

montelukast (Singulair)

A
  • not for acute asthma attacks
  • may cause aggressive behavior, agitation, dream disorder, hallucinations
  • asthma pts should take dose in the evening
67
Q

morphine (Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin) class

A

opioid analgesic

68
Q

morphine (Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin) FDA uses

A

chronic moderate to severe pain

69
Q

morphine (Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin) MOA

A

pure opioid agonist, selective to the mu receptor, with primary actions in the brain through transitory stimulation prior to depression. In the CNS, it promotes analgesia and respiratory depression by decreasing brain stem respiratory centers response to carbon dioxide tension and electrical stimulation. It also decreases gastric, biliary and pancreatic secretion, induces peripheral vasodilation and promotes opioid-induced hypotension due to histamine release

70
Q

morphine (Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin) BBW

A

addiction, abuse, misuse

71
Q

morphine (Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin) MCP

A
  • avoid alcohol and other CNS depressants
  • swallow whole or sprinkle contents on a teaspoonful of soft food, swallow immediately (do not chew)
  • do not suddenly d/c
72
Q

oxycodone (OxyContin, Roxicodone) class

A

opioid analgesic

73
Q

oxycodone (OxyContin, Roxicodone) FDA uses

A

chronic severe pain

74
Q

oxycodone (OxyContin, Roxicodone) MOA

A

opioid agonist that is fairly selective for the mu receptor. It may bind to other opioid receptors at high doses. It is a full opioid agonist and there is no analgesic ceiling effect

75
Q

oxycodone (OxyContin, Roxicodone) BBW

A
  • addiction, abuse, misuse
  • concomitant use of oxycodone ER with all cytochrome P450 3A4 inhibitors may result in an increase in oxycodone plasma concentrations
76
Q

oxycodone (OxyContin, Roxicodone) MCP

A
  • report breathing difficulties
  • take with food to ensure consistent plasma levels
  • swallow whole or sprinkle on soft food, swallow immediately - do not chew
  • do not d/c
  • avoid alcohol and other CNS depressants
77
Q

prednisone (Deltasone) class

A

corticosteroid

78
Q

prednisone (Deltasone) FDA uses

A
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • sever allergic condition
  • asthma
  • cerebral edema
  • collagen disease
  • disorders: endocrine, eye, GI, hematopoietic structure, respiratory, skin
  • exac. of acute MS
  • Hodgkin’s disease
  • hypercalcemia of malignancy
  • idiopathic thrombocyopenic purpura
  • inflammatory disorder of musculoskeletal system
  • leukemia - palliative therapy
  • Mycosis fungoides
  • Neoplastic disease
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • Polymyositis
  • Renal transplant rejection
  • Rheumatoid arthritis; Adjunct
  • Sjögren’s syndrome
  • Transplantation of heart
  • Trichinosis, With neurologic or myocardial involvement
  • Tuberculosis of meninges
79
Q

prednisone (Deltasone) MOA

A

Decreases inflammation by suppression of migration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and reversal of increased capillary permeability; suppresses the immune system by reducing activity and volume of the lymphatic system; suppresses adrenal function at high doses. Antitumor effects may be related to inhibition of glucose transport, phosphorylation, or induction of cell death in immature lymphocytes. Antiemetic effects are thought to occur due to blockade of cerebral innervation of the emetic center via inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.

80
Q

prednisone (Deltasone) MCP

A
  • avoid exposure to chickenpox or measles
  • take with food or milk to minimize GI upset
  • avoid alcohol and smoking this may increase risk for osteoporosis

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