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URINALYSIS > Clinmic > Flashcards

Clinmic Flashcards

Review

1
Q

Best way to break chain of infection

A

Hand washing

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2
Q

How long to wash hands

A

15-20 seconds

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3
Q

Most important part of handwashing

A

Friction

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4
Q

Label of biohazard container

A

3 over lapping circles

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5
Q

Solution to disinfect sink

A

1:5-1:10 NaCl solution

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6
Q

How often do you disinfect sinks

A

Daily

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7
Q

Container used for sharp wastes

A

Red, puncture-resistant container

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8
Q

Storage of radioactive material: storage at locked room until background count is down to: _____________

A

10 half life

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9
Q

Best first aid for chem spills

A

Flush area with running water for atleast 15 minutes

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10
Q

Always add ______ to ______

A

Acid to water

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11
Q

Color for health hazard

A

Blue

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12
Q

Color for fire hazard

A

Red

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13
Q

Color for instability/reactivity

A

Yellow

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14
Q

Color for specific hazard

A

White

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15
Q

Location of each hazard (quadrants)

A

Right: yellow
Bottom: white
Left: blue
Top: red

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16
Q

Degree of hazard(hazard) index

A
  1. no or minimal
  2. Slight
  3. Moderate
  4. Serious
  5. Extreme or severe
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17
Q

Storage for flammable chemicals

A

Explosion-proof refrigerators

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18
Q

Meaning of RACE

A

RESCUE
ALARM
CONTAIN
EXTINGUISH/EVACUTE

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19
Q

What is the only type of fire water extinguisher is for

A

Type A

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20
Q

Extinguisher for types ABC

A

Dry chemical

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21
Q

Type of fire carbondioxide extinguishes

A

TYPE BC

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22
Q

What type of fire metal X and Sand is used for

A

Type D

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23
Q

Fire types

A 
A = ORDINARY
B = LIQUIDS
C = ELECTRIC
D = METALS
E = EXPLOSIVE
K = COOKING
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24
Q

Meaning of PASS

A

Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

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25
Q

Types of fire to be handled. By trained personel only

A 
Type D(metal)
Type E(explosive)
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26
Q

Work related hazards and include strain due to repeated position

A

Ergonomic hazard

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27
Q

Hazard related to cold temperature

A

Cryogenic

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28
Q

Disinfection eliminates all or many pathogens except _________

A

Bacterial spores

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29
Q

Where blood enters in the kidney

A

Renal artery

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30
Q

Number of nephrons per kidney

A

1-1.5 million

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31
Q

Renal blood flow

A

1200ml

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32
Q

Renal plasma flow

A

600-700

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33
Q

Glomerules filters substances with MW of what

A

> 70,000 dalton

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34
Q

Glomerular filtrate S. G.

A

1.010

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35
Q

ADH in SIADH

A

EXCESS

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36
Q

Effects of RAAS

A

Release of ADH and aldosterone

Vasoconstriction

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37
Q

Substances reabsorbed through passive transport

A

Water
Urea
Sodium

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38
Q

Transport involved in glucose, amino acid, salts, chloride, sodium

A

Active

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39
Q

Inability of kidneys to produce an acid urine

A

Renal tubular acidosis

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40
Q

Used to evalute glomerular filtration

A

Clearance

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41
Q

Used to assess renal transplant patients

A

B2-microglobulin

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42
Q

Measurement useful in detection of early changes in kidney function

A

Cystatin c

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43
Q

Original reference method for clearance test

A

Inulin clearance

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44
Q

Creatinine clearance formule

A

UV/P

U=urine crea
V=total/1440 ml/day
P=plasma crea

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45
Q

Variables in cockgroft and gault

A

Age, sex, body weight in kg, serum crea

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46
Q

Variables in MDRD system

A

BEAC = BUN, ethnicity, albumin, crea

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47
Q

Recommended by the national kidney disease education program for crea clearance

A

MDRD-IDMS

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48
Q

Used to evaluate tubular reabsorption

A

Concentration test

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49
Q

Fishberg, mosenthal, specific gravity, osmolarity are tests to evaluate which parameter

A

Tubular reabsorption

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50
Q

Difference of S. G. And osmolarity

A 
SG = number and density of solute
OSMOLARITY = number only
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51
Q

PAH and PSP are used to test what

A

TUBULAR SECRETION AND RENAL BLOOD FLOW

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52
Q

Where does renal concentration begin

A

Descending and ascending loops of henle

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53
Q

Greatest source of error in any clearance procedure using urine

A

Improperly timed specimen

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54
Q

Discovered uroscopy

A

Hippocrates

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55
Q

Albuminuria by boiling

A

Frederik dekkers

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56
Q

Pisse prophets writing

A

Thomas Bryant

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57
Q

Person credited for Examination of urine sediments

A

Thomas addis

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58
Q

Introduced UA as routine exam

A

Richard Bright

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59
Q

Discovered urochrome

A

Ludwig thudichum

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60
Q

Person who discovered CSF

A

Domenico Cotugno

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61
Q

Phenylketonuria

A

Ivan folling

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62
Q

Discovered Alkaptonuria

A

Archibald garrod

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63
Q

Discovered cystine calculi

A

William Wollaston

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64
Q

Major organic substance in the urine

A

Urea

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65
Q

Major inorganic substance in the urine

A

Chloride > na > k

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66
Q

Ideal specimen for routine UA

A

First morning

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67
Q

Ideal specimen for pregnancy test

A

First morning

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68
Q

Specimen for evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria

A

First morning

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69
Q

Specimen for anaerobic bacterial culture and urine cytology

A

Suprapubic aspiration

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70
Q

Control for 3 glass collection

A

2nd glass - midstream

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71
Q

Time For addis count

A

12 hours

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72
Q

Time for nitrite determination

A

Atleast 4 hours

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73
Q

Timed specimen for urobilinogen

A

Afternoon (2-4pm)

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74
Q

Required volume for drug testing
And container
And temperature

A

30-45ml
60ml
32.5-37.7

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75
Q

Least affected in unpreserved urine

A

Protein

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76
Q

Four glass method for prostatitis

A

Stamey-mears

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77
Q

Bacteriostic at 18g/L and used for cultural transport

A

Boric acid

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78
Q

Excellent sediment preservative

A

Formalin

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79
Q

Prevents glycolysis and good for drug analysis

A

Sodium flouride

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80
Q

Composition of saccomano fixative

A

50% ethanol and 2% carbowax

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81
Q

Used for cytology studies and how many ml of urine

A

Saccomano fixative

50 ml

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82
Q

Average 24 hr urine volume

A

1200-1500ml

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83
Q

Excretion of more than 500ml of urine at night

A

Nocturia

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84
Q

Major pigment in urine and what colour

A

Urochrome - yellow

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85
Q

Pink pigment and may deposit in amorphous uratesans uric crystals

A

Uroerythrin

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86
Q

Black color
Acidic
Alkalin
Air exposure

A

Methemoglobin
Alkaptonuria(homogentisic acid)
Melanin

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87
Q

Clarity and term

A 
Clear = no particulates
Hazy = few particulates, print easily seen
Cloudy = many particulates, blurred print
Turbid = print cannot be seen
Milky = may precipitate and clot
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88
Q

Acidic urine sediments

A

Amorphous urates

Radiographic dye

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89
Q

Alkarine urine sediments

A

Amorphous phosphates

Carbonates

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90
Q

Soluble with heat

A

Amorphous urates

Uric acid

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91
Q

Soluble in ether

A

Lipids
Lymphatic fluid
Chyle

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92
Q

Odorless

A

ATN

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93
Q

Foul/ammoniacal

A

UTI

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94
Q

Mousy, musty odor

A

PKU

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95
Q

Rancid butter odor

A

Tyrosinuria

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96
Q

Cabbage, hops

A

Methionine malabsorption (oasthouse syndrome)

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97
Q

Sulfur odor

A

Cystinuria

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98
Q

Rotting fish

A

Trimethylaminuria

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99
Q

Tomcat urine

A

Multiple carboxylase deficiency

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100
Q

Glucose reading time, principle, positive color

A

30
Double sequential enzyme reaction
Green to brown

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101
Q

Bilirubin reading time, principle, positive color

A

30, diazo, tan to violet

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102
Q

Ketone Reading time, principle, positive color

A

40, sodium nitropusside, purple

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103
Q

SG time, principle, positive color

A

45, pk change of a polyelectrolyte, blue (1.000) to yellow (1.030)

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104
Q

Reading time for protein, principle, positive color

A

60, protein error of indicator, blue

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105
Q

Ph reading time, principle, color

A

60, double indicator system, orange to blue (5.0-9.0)

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106
Q

Blood reading time, principle, color

A

60, pseudo peroxidase activity of hb, uniform green(hgb, mb) speckled(intact rbc)

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107
Q

Urobilinogen time, principle, color

A

60, ehrlich, red

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108
Q

Nitrite rt, principle, color

A

60, greiss, pink

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109
Q

Leukocyte rt, principle, color

A

120 secs, leukocyte esterase, purple

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110
Q

Principle for automate regeant strip

A

Reflectance photometry

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111
Q

Normal SG

A

1.003-1.035

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112
Q

Calibration temp for urinometer

A

20.0C

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113
Q

Temperature correction for urinometer

A

+0.001 for every 3C above 20

-0.001 for every 3C below 20

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114
Q

3%NaCl SG

A

1.015

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115
Q

5% NaCl

A

1.022

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116
Q

9% sucrose

A

1.034

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117
Q

Urinometer is higher than refractomer by

A

0.002

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118
Q

Reagent for SG chemstrip

A

Bromthymol blue

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119
Q

Total ML for IRIS diagnostic

A

6ml

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120
Q

ML for slideless microscope

A

4ml

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121
Q

ML for IRIS mass gravity meter

A

2 ml

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122
Q

Reagents for pH strip

A

Methyl red

Bromthymol blue

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123
Q

Amount of protein secreted in the urine per day

A

<150mg/day

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124
Q

Indicator of diabetic nephropathy

A

Microalbuminuria

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125
Q

Normal Albumim excretion rate

A

0-20ug/min

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126
Q

Microalbuminuria

A

20-200 ug/min

127
Q

Clinical albuminuria

A

> 200 ug/min

128
Q

Test for microalbuminuria

A

Micral test

129
Q

Principl of micral test

A

Enzyme immunoassay

130
Q

Positive and negative color for micral

A 
Positive = red
Negative = white
131
Q

Reagents in proteim Strip

A

Tetrabrom

132
Q

High SG cause false _____ in protein strip

A

Positive

133
Q

Reagent in SSA

A

3ml 3%SSA

134
Q

SSA GRADING

A 
Negative = no turbidity = <6
Trace = noticeable turbidity = 6-30
1 = turbidity = 30-100
2 = turbidity, granulation = 100-200
3 = turbidity, granulation, flocculation = 200-400
4 = clumps > 400
135
Q

Reagents used in glucose strip
Multistix
Chemstrip

A

Potassium iodide

Tetramethylbenzidine

136
Q

Oxidizing agents such as detergents cause false ______ in glucose strip

A

Positive

137
Q

Low temp
High SG
Ketone
Ascorbic acids cause false ______ in glucose strip

A

Negative

138
Q

Sensitivity of glucose strip

A

100 mg/dl

139
Q

How many drops of urine is used in clinitest table

A

5 drops

140
Q

How to prevent pass through phenomenon in clinitest

A

Apply 2 drops of urine

141
Q

Also known as parent ketone

A

Acetoacetic acid/diacetic acid

142
Q

Also known as parent ketone

A

Acetoacetic acid/diacetic acid

143
Q

Major ketone found in the urine

A

Beta-hydroxybutiric acid

144
Q

Legals test is also known as

A

Sodium nitroprusside

145
Q

Reagents used in ketone strip

A

Sodium nitroprusside

146
Q

Acetone is only measured when ____ reagent is used

A

Glycine

147
Q

Reaction time of acetest table

A

30 seconds

148
Q

Test to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin

A

Blondheim’s test

149
Q

Reagent used in blondheim’s and test results

A

2.8 g Ammonium sulfate (80%)

Positive = myoglobin 
Negative = hemoglobin
150
Q

Regeant used in blood strip

A

Tetramethylbenzidene

151
Q

Comfirmatory test for bilirubin

A

Ictotest

152
Q

Reagents used in biliribun strip

A

Dichloro plus benzidene

153
Q

Normal value for UBG

A

<1mg/dl or ehrlich unit

154
Q

Formaline causes false ______ in urobiniligen strip

A

Negative

155
Q

P-aminosalycosic acid causes false ________ in urobilinogen test

A

Positive

156
Q

Rapid screening test for porphobilinogen

A

Hoesch test (inverse ehrlich reaction)

157
Q

Rapid screening test of UTI

A

Nitrite

158
Q

Reagents used in nitrite

A

Diazonium salt and quinolin

159
Q

Large quantities of bacteria converting nitrite to nitrogen causes false ______ in nitrite strip

A

Negative

160
Q

Reagents for leukocyte

A

ester + diazo salt

161
Q

Wbc with no esterase

A

Lymphocytes

162
Q

Positive for LE

A

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophil, monocyte, histiocyte, trichomonas

163
Q

Reading time for c-stix and stix

A 
C-stix = 10
Stix = 60
164
Q

Reading time for c-stix and stix

A 
C-stix = 10
Stix = 60
165
Q

Reading time for c-stix and stix

A 
C-stix = 10
Stix = 60
166
Q

Quantitative measure of formed urine elements uring hemocytomer

A

Addos count

167
Q

Micrscop that forms halo

A

Phase contrast

168
Q

3D microscope

A

Interference-contrast

169
Q

Differential 3D microscope

A

Normaski

170
Q

Modulation 3D microscope

A

Hoffman

171
Q

Component of sternheimer-malbin stain

A

Crystal violet and safrarin O

172
Q

Distinguishes rbc from wbc, yeast, oil droplets and crystals

A

2% acetic acid

173
Q

Identifies urinary eosinophils

A

Hansel stain

174
Q

Stains DNA

A

Phenathridine (orange)

175
Q

Stains nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

A

Carbocyanin (green)

176
Q

Formalin causes false _____ in LE strip

A

False positive

177
Q

High protein and medicines cause false _____ in LE

A

Negative

178
Q

Most predominant wbc in urine

A

Neutrophils

179
Q

NV of RBC in urine

A

0-2 or 0-3/hpf

180
Q

NV of wbc in urine

A

0-5 or 0-8/hpf

181
Q

In _____ urine neutrophil swell and undergo ____ movement

A

Hypotonic, brownian

182
Q

Value of eosinophils in interstitial nephiritis

A

> 1%

183
Q

Color of glitter cell in SM stain

A

Pale blue

184
Q

Color of leukocyte in SM stain

A

Pale pink

185
Q

Variation of squamous epithelial cell associated with bacteria

A

Clue cell

186
Q

Bacteria associated with clue cell

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

187
Q

Also known as bladder cell

A

Transitional epithelial (uroethial)

188
Q

Epithelial cell with centrally located cell

A

TEC

189
Q

Most clinically significant epithelial cell

A

RTE

190
Q

Origin of RTE

A

Nephron

191
Q

Epithelial cell with eccentric nucleus

A

RTE

192
Q

Value of RTE that signifies tubular injury

A

> 2 rte/hpf

193
Q

Lipid containing RTE found in nephrotic syndrome

A

Oval fat body

194
Q

RTE with non lipid vacuoles

A

Bubble cell

195
Q

Most frequently encountered parasite in urine

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

196
Q

Most common fecal contaminant

A

Enterobius vermicularis

197
Q

Urinary bladder cancer markers

A 
NMP = nuclear matrix protein
BTA = bladder tumor antigen
198
Q

Elements read on HPF

A 
WBC
RBC
normal Crystals
bacteria
OFB
TEC
RTE
199
Q

Reporting of abnormal crystals

A

Average number/LPF

200
Q

Reporting of RTE

A

Average number/hpf

201
Q 
Number of crystals in reporting
Rare
Few
Moderate
Many
A

0-2
2-5
5-20
>20

202
Q

Number of bacteria in rare

A

0-10

203
Q

Number of bacteria in few

A

10-50

204
Q

Number of bacteria in moderate

A

50-200

205
Q

Number of bacteria in many

A

> 200

206
Q

Reporting of TEC

A

Rare, few, moderate/HPF

207
Q

Reporting of abnormal crystals/casts

A

Average number/LPF

208
Q

Casts are formed primarily in the _______

A

DCT, CD

209
Q

Prototype cast

A

Hyaline

210
Q

Normal value of hyaline cast

A

0-2/LPF

211
Q

Finaly degenerative form of all types of cast

A

Waxy cast

212
Q

Cast that signifies chronic renal failure

A

Waxy cast

213
Q

Most common type of broad cast

A

Granular and waxy

214
Q

Factors contributing to crystal formation

A

Temperature
Solute concentrarion
PH

215
Q

First consideration when identifying crystals

A

Urine PH

216
Q

Normal crystals

A

Armp

217
Q

Most pleomorphic crystal

A

Uric acid

218
Q

Brick dust, yellow brown granules soluble in heat and alkali

A

Amorphous urates

219
Q

Crystal found in ethylene glycol poisoning(antifreeze)

A

Monohydrate CaOx (whewelite)

220
Q

“Cigarette butt” appearance

A

Calcium sulfate

221
Q

Yellow brown/colorless prism soluble in water and ether

A

Hippuric acid

222
Q

Thorny apple appearance and found in what ph

A

Amorphous biurate

Alkaline

223
Q

Prism shaped, coffin-lid, fern-leaf, feathery appearance

A

Triple phosphate (struvite)

224
Q

Differentiate cystine from uric acid

A

Cystine = soluble in dilute HCL, positive in Cyanide

Uric = insoluble in diluted HCl, birefringent

225
Q

Rectangular plate with in 1 or more corners (staircase pattern)

A

Cholesterol

Radiographic dye

226
Q

Fine colorless to yellow needles in clumps or Rossette, soluble in heat and alkali

A

Tyrosine

227
Q

Yellow-brown spheres with concentric circles and radial striations

A

Leucine

228
Q

Precipitated with tyrosine after adding alcohol

A

Leucine

229
Q

Precipitated with tyrosine after adding alcohol

A

Leucine

230
Q

Clumped granules or needles with bright yellow color

A

Bilirubin

231
Q

Crystal positive in lignin test and diazo reaction

A

Sulfonamide

232
Q

Colorless needles that tend to form following refrigeration

A

Ampicillin

233
Q

Crystal increased in massive doses of penicillin

A

Ampicillin

234
Q

Spheres with dimpled center

A

Starch granules

235
Q

Maltese cross formers

A

OFB
FATTY CAST
FAT DROPLETS
STARCH GRANULES

236
Q

Optical surfaces of the microscope should be cleaned with a _________

A

Lens paper

237
Q

Clean any contaminated lens immediately with a _____________

A

Commercial lens paper

238
Q

Optical surfaces of the microscope should be cleaned with a ________

A

Lens paper

239
Q

Optical surfaces of the microscope coated with dust should be clean with a ________

A

Camel’s hair

240
Q

The presence of crystals in freshly voided urine is most frequently associated with _______

A

High SG (concentrated specimen)

241
Q

Testing for many substance in IEM/newborn screening

A

MS/MS

242
Q

Phenylalanine is known as

A

Tyrosine disorder

243
Q

Most well known aminoacidurias in the world

A

Phenylketonuria

244
Q

Gene missing in PKU

A

Phenyl analine hydroxylase

245
Q

Guthrie bacterial inhibition test positive result

A

Growth

246
Q

Bacteria used in guthrie test

A

Bacillus subtilis

247
Q

Guthrie test used for detecting

A

PKU

248
Q

Confirmatory test for PKU

A

Ion exchange HPLC

249
Q

Gene absent in Alkaptonuria

A

Homogentisic acid

250
Q

Most common IEM in the PH

A

MSUD

251
Q

Genes absent in coding for enzymes in MSUD

A

Leucine
Isoleucine
Valine

252
Q

Hartnup disease is what disorder

A

Indicanuria

253
Q

Blue diaper syndrome

A

Hartnup disease

254
Q

Cells that produce serotonin

A

Argentaffin/entochromaffin

255
Q

Cystinuria is the defective reabsoprtion of

A

cystine
Ornithine
Lysine
Argenine

256
Q

Defect in the metabolism of methionine

A

Homocystinuria

257
Q

Colorless urine of porphyria in _______

A

Lead poisoning

258
Q

Specimens in screening test of porphyria

A

Stool, urine, bile, blood

259
Q

CDC Recommended test for lead poisoning

A

Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)

260
Q

MPS affecting eyes, skeletal, brain

A

Hurler

261
Q

MPS affecting Skeletal and mental, sexlinked

A

Hunter

262
Q

MPS disease affecting mental only

A

Sanflippo

263
Q

Screening test for MPS and positive colors

A

Albumin - white turbidity
CTAB - white turbidity
MPS paper test - blue

264
Q

Gene absent in lesch-nyhan disease

A

Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribsyltransferase

265
Q

Carbohydrate disorder associated with infant liver failure, cataract and mental disorder

A

Galactosemia

266
Q

Glomerular disorders are of what common origin

A

Immune complex

267
Q

Depositition of immune complex formed in conjuction of group A strep

A

Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

268
Q

Disease findings:

Macroscopic hematuria
Proteinuria
Dysmorphic rbc
Rbc
Granular cast
(+) aso titer
A

Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

269
Q

Deposition of immune complexes from systemic immume disorders (sle)

A

Rapidly progressive (cresentic) glomerulonephritis

270
Q

Deposition of antiglomerular basement membrane antibody

A

Goodpasture syndrome

271
Q

Presence of ANCA against neutrophil

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

272
Q

Decrease in platelets disrupt vascular integrity

A

Henoch schonlein purpura

273
Q

Thickening of glomerular membrane following IgG immune complex deposition

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

274
Q

Cellular proliferation affecting capillary walls

Presence tram truck

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

275
Q

Presence of waxy and broad cast

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis

276
Q

Deposition of IgA on the glomerular membrane

A

IgA nephropathy (berger’s)

277
Q

Disruption of podocytes and little cellular changes

A

Minimal change disease (nil disease, lipid nephrosis)

278
Q

Most common cause of ESRD
Microalbuminuria
(+) micral test

A

Diabetic nephropathy (kimmelstiel-wilson disease)

279
Q

Genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning of glomerular basement membrame

A

Alport syndrome

280
Q

Disruption of electric charges
Massive loss of lipid and protein

OFB

A

Nephrotic syndrome

281
Q

Damaged to renal tubular cells caused by ischemia or toxic agents

Presents of rte cells, rte casts, hyaline, grnaular, waxy and broadcasts

A

Acute tubular necrosis

282
Q

Crystals generally associated with uromodilin-associated kidney disease (UKD)

A

Uric acid

283
Q

Inhereted defect in the production of normal uromodulin, increases uric acid causing gout.

A

UKD

284
Q

Generalised failurenof tubular reabsoprtion in the pct

A

Fanconi’s syndrome

285
Q

What crystals are possibly formed in fanconi’s syndrome

A

Cystine

286
Q

Findings:
low specific gravity
Polyuria
Failures of hypothalamus to produce ADH

A

Neurogenic DI

287
Q

Failure of renal tubules to respond to ADH

A

Nephrogenic DI

288
Q

Findings:

Wbc, bacteria, NO CAST, microscopic hematuria, mild Proteinuria, increased PH

A

Cystitis (lower uti)

289
Q

Findings:
Wbc casts, bacterial casts, microscopic hematuria, protenuria

Vesicoureteral reflux, untreated cystitis)

A

Acute pyelonephritis (upper UTI)

290
Q

Findings:
Broad cast, waxy cast, wbc, bacteria, wbc cast, bacterial cast, granular cast, hematuria, protenuria

Due to recurrent infection

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

291
Q 
Findings:
Eosinophilia (>1%)
Wbc casts
Hematuria
Proteinuria
NO bacteria
A

Acute interstitial nephritis

292
Q

Simultaneous appearance of the elements of acute/chronic GN & nephrotic syndrome (cells, casts, lipid droplets, ofb)

A

Telescoped urine

293
Q

GFR in renal failure

A

<25ml/min

294
Q

Specific gravity in Renal failure

A

Consistently 1.010

295
Q 
Findings:
Telescoped urine
Azotemia
GFR: <25/ml
Isothenuria
Protenuria, glycosuria
(+) telescoped urine
A

Renal failure

296
Q

Primary UA finding in renal lithiais

A

Microscopic hematuria

297
Q

Conditions favouring the formation of renal calculi

A

PH
Solute concentration
Urinary stasis

298
Q

Calculi: very hard, dark in color, rough surfaces

A

Calcium oxalate

299
Q

Calculi: yellowish to brownish red, moderately hard

A

Uric acid/urate calculi

300
Q

Calculi: Yellow-brown, greasy, resembles old soap (least common)

A

Cystine

301
Q

Calculi: pale and friable

A

Phosphate

302
Q

Calculi: accompanied by urea splitting bacteria, branching/staghorn calculi

A

Triple phosphate

303
Q

Insoluble diuretic, mustard colored stones

A

Triamterene calculi

304
Q

Calculi: associated with inherited enzyme deficiency and hyperuricemia

A

Adenine calculi

305
Q

If neutrophils are fixed in ethanol ANCA forms a _______ pattern called _____

A

Perinuclear, p-anca

306
Q

If neutrophils are fixed with formalin the pattern is ______ through out the ______ called the ______

A

Granular, cytoplasm, c-anca

307
Q

The rate of proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome

A

> 3.5g/day

308
Q

Antigen associated with minimal change disease

A

HLA-B12

309
Q

Uses high energy shockwaves to break kidney stones

A

Lithotripsy

310
Q

Uses high energy shockwaves to break kidney stones

A

Lithotripsy

311
Q

Stones often found in renal calculi

A

Caox, calcium phosphate

312
Q

High SG causes false ______ in glucose

A

Decrease

313
Q

Effect of a >6.5 pH to SG

A

False decrease

URINALYSIS (1 decks)

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