Clinical Rotation Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What three components are necessary for an adequate hemostatic response?

A

intrinsic factors, extrinsic factors, and platelets

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2
Q

Define hemostasis.

A

arrest of the escape of blood by either natural means (clot formation or vessel spasm) or artificial means (compression or litigation)

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3
Q

Define coagulation.

A

cessation of blood flow due to the actions of clotting factors, platelets, blood vessels, and the fibrin/fibrinolysis systems

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4
Q

Define the extrinsic system.

A

clotting factors not contained in blood: thromboplastin (tissue factor III), VII, X, V, II, I

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5
Q

Define the intrinsic system.

A

clotting factors contained in blood: XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

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6
Q

Define fibrinolysis.

A

dissolution of fiber by enzymatic action

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7
Q

Why is there usually a delay between trauma and the onset of bleeding in coagulation disorders?

A

deficiency of platelets or coagulation factors that adversely affects the normal hemostasis process

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8
Q

Differentiate between hereditary and acquired clotting defects.

A

hereditary disorders are congenital, meaning that they are due to genetic inheritance and not due to outside factors; acquired clotting defects are the result of other disease states or medication, and genetics play no role

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9
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of bleeding time?

A

Measures how fast small blood vessels in the skin stop bleeding. A blood pressure cuff is inflated around the patient’s upper arm while two small cuts are made on the lower arm. Cuff is immediately deflated, and blotting paper is touched to the cuts every 30 seconds until the bleeding stops, which should take between 1 and 9 minutes. Abnormal results can indicate blood vessel defects, platelet aggregation disorders, or thrombocytopenia; bleeding time can also be increased due to certain drug therapy.

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10
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of clot retraction?

A

Measures time it takes a platelet plug to undergo retraction, the last stage of the coagulation cascade. Blood is collected in a red top tube and allowed to clot. It is incubated at 37*C and checked at 1-, 4-, and 24-hour intervals. If half the total clot volume is serum within 24 hours, the results are considered normal. Abnormal clot retraction can indicate acquired or hereditary platelet disorders (specifically Glanzmann thrombasthenia), thrombosis, or other coagulation disorders.

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11
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of ethanol gelation testing?

A

Designed to detect the presence of fibrin monomers in the plasma, used to aid in the diagnosis of DIC and in distinguishing it from primary fibrinolysis. 0.1 N sodium hydroxide is added to citrated plasma to increase pH to >7.7. Addition of ethyl alcohol will then cause precipitation of any fibrin monomers present (+ result). Negative tests are allowed to sit for an additional 9 minutes; if gel or precipitate forms, 0.1 N NaOH is added. Persistance of gel or precipitate is +.

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12
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of euglobulin clot lysis?

A

Screening procedure for the measurement of fibrinolytic activity. The euglobulin fraction of plasma (plasminogen, fibrinogen, plasminogen activator) is precipitated with 1% HC2H3O2. Precipitate is removed and dissolved in a buffered borate solution. Thrombin is added to clot the euglobulins, and clot is incubated at 37*C. Time of complete clot lysis is recorded (normally not before 2 hrs.). 2 hrs. indicated circulatory collapse, adrenaline injections, sudden death, pulmonary surgery, pyrogen reactions, obstetric complications, or extreme stress.

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13
Q

What is the euglobulin clot test most useful for?

A

monitoring urokinase and streptokinase therapy

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14
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of fibrin degradation products (FDP)?

A

Also called Fibrin Split Products (FSP); plasmin proteolytically cleaves fibrinogen into fragments X and Y (early products), and fragments D and E (late products). Measurement provides an indirect assay of fibrinolysis. The most common test is the Thrombo-Wellcotest (direct latex agglutination slide test). Whole blood is added to thrombin (ensures clotting) and soy bean enzyme inhibitors (prevents fibrin breakdown). After clotting, serum is diluted 1:5 and 1:20 with glycine buffer, then mixed with latex particles coated with anti-FDP. Agglutination at 1:5 is >10 ug/mL; agglutination at both is >40 ug/mL; and no agglutination is

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15
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the Lee-White (whole blood) clotting time?

A

Measures the coagulation time of whole blood. 4 mL of blood are collected and dispensed into test tubes in 1 mL aliquots. They are placed into a 37C water bath or heating block for 5 min. The last tube filled is then tilted 45 and replaced. This is repeated every 30 seconds until fully clotted; the procedure is then repeated on the remaining tubes. Clotting time is that of the last tube; normal value is 5-15 minutes. Clotting time is increased in Stage I deficiencies and in heparin therapy/presence of circulating anticoagulants.

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16
Q

What is important to remember about the Lee-White test, in regards to its sensitivity and use?

A

Test is insensitive, and often used to monitor heparin therapy. It monitors Stage I of the intrinsic system, but will not detect deficiencies in Stage II or III.

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17
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?

A

Screening procedure for the intrinsic factors (XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I). 0.1 mL phospholipid platelet substitute reagent is mixed with 0.1 mL citrated patient plasma. It is warmed for 5 min., and 0.1 mL of 0.02 M calcium chloride is added to initiate clotting. Time required for fibrin clot is recorded. Tests are performed in duplicate and should agree within one second. Normal values are generally

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18
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the plasma recalcification time?

A

Measure of overall intrinsic coagulation process. Platelet-poor plasma is mixed with sufficient calcium chloride to neutralize the effect of the anticoagulant, and clotting time is recorded. Normal value is 90-250 seconds. Decreased intrinsic factors will prolong clotting time. Deficiencies in platelets or their activity is not detected.

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19
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the platelet count?

A

Impedence method used to obtain a platelet count. Normal range is 150,000-450,000

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20
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the protamine sulfate test?

A

Tests for the presence of fibrin monomers and early FDP fragments (X and Y). Protamine sulfate causes the formation of fibrin threads or gel-like clots (paracoagulation). Patient and control plasmas are mixed with 1% protamine sulfate solution and incubated at 37*C for 15 min. Definite fibrin strands are a + result, and indicative of DIC. Fibrin monomers can also be present in pulmonary embolism, cirrhosis, deep vein thrombosis, and acute thromboembolism.

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21
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the prothrombin consumption time (PCT)?

A

Performed on serum, testing mainly for Stage I factors of the intrinsic system. Levels of prothrombin should be decreased, resulting in a prolonged PCT. When plasma thromboplastin formation is defective, excess prothrombin remains in the serum. Therefore, when fibrinogen, thromboplastin, and calcium chloride are added, shortened clotting time results. Normal PCT value is >20 seconds; abnormal is

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22
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the prothrombin time (PT)?

A

Screening procedure for extrinsic factors (VII, X, V, II, I). 0.2 mL tissue thromboplastin reagent (+ calcium) is mixed with 0.1 mL of citrated patient plasma, and the clotting time is measured. Normal value is generally 10-14 seconds. PT is increased in vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, extrinsic factor deficiencies, DIC, and coumadin therapy.

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23
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the Saltzman glass bead test?

A

Also known as the Platelet Adhesiveness Test. Measures the ability of platelets to adhere to glass beads. When anticoagulated blood is passed through a column of glass beads at a constant rate, some platelets will be retained by the beads. Two tubes of blood are drawn - one through the regular vacutainer setup, and the other through a glass bead filter. Platelet counts are then performed on both specimens. The glass bead tube should have 75-95% fewer platelets. The percentage is decreased in Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, von Willebrand’s disease, uremia, and aspirin ingestion. It is increased in thrombotic disorders, coronary disease, pregnancy, and in patients on oral contraceptives.

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24
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the Stypven time?

A

Capable of detecting deficiencies in prothrombin, and factors V and X. Deficiencies in factor VII will not give an abnormal time because the reagent (Russell’s viper venom) has similar activity. Performed as a PT time using Stypven as the source of factor VII and tissue thromboplastin. Normal values are 11-15 seconds.

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25
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the thrombin time (TT)?

A

Tests the third stage of coagulation (fibrinogen to fibrin) by measuring the amount of fibrinogen available. A measured amount of thrombin (usually 0.1 mL) is added to 0.2 mL plasma, and the clot time is recorded. Normal values are ~15 seconds. Increased values are seen when fibrinogen level is

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26
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the thromboplastin generation time (TGT)?

A

Measures the efficiency with which plasma thromboplastin is formed. Aged serum and absorbed plasma reagents are prepared from the patient sample, which are then mixed with calcium chloride and a substitute platelet factor, and incubated for 6 min. At one-minute intervals, samples are removed and added to normal plasma. Clotting times are recorded, and should be within 12 seconds. Abnormal results lead to normal aged serum (VII, IX, X, XI, XII) and absorbed plasma (V, VIII, XI, XII) substitutes, which determine which reagent corrects the patient sample. Detects deficiencies in factors VIII and IX, and can distinguish between them. Can also detect factor XI and XII deficiencies, but cannot distinguish between them. If patient platelets are used, abnormalities may also be detected.

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27
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the tourniquet test of Rumpel-Leede (Capillary Fragility Test)?

A

Measures the ability of small blood vessels to retain blood under stress. Platelet function maintains capillary integrity, so the degree of thrombocytopenia will correlate with test results. Blood pressure reading is taken, and the cuff is inflated to halfway between the systolic and diastolic (but should not exceed 100 mmHg). Cuff is left in place for 5 minutes; after removal, the patient’s arm is inspected for petechiae. If any are present, they are graded from 1+ to 4+. Normal results are “none” to “occasional” (negative test). Positive results are seen in thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and vascular purpura.

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28
Q

What are the principle and interpretation of the D-dimer?

A

Looks for the presence of D-dimers, which indicate that a stable fibrin clot has been lysed. A dilution of the patient’s plasma is mixed with latex particles coated with monoclonal antibodies to D-dimers. Normal levels in adults are 1.0 ug/dL (+ test). Positive results are seen in DIC and thrombotic conditions, though they are negative in primary fibrinolysis.

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29
Q

What is the common name for Factor I, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

fibrinogen; liver disease

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30
Q

What is the common name for Factor II, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

prothrombin; hemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN)

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31
Q

What is the common name for Factor IV, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

calcium (Ca2+); deficiency is fatal

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32
Q

What is the common name for Factor V, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

labile factor; parahemophilia

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33
Q

What is the common name for Factor VII, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

stable factor, proconvertin; easy bruising

34
Q

What is the common name for Factor VIII, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

antihemophilic factor; Hemophilia A

35
Q

What is the common name for Factor IX, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

Christmas factor; Christmas disease (Hemophilia B)

36
Q

What is the common name for Factor X, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

Stuart-Prower factor; mild coagulopathy

37
Q

What is the common name for Factor XI, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA); abnormal bleeding

38
Q

What is the common name for Factor XII, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

Hageman factor; asymptomatic

39
Q

What is the common name for Factor XIII, and a condition associated with its deficiency?

A

fibrin stabilizing factor; defective wound healing

40
Q

What process is particularly crucial in achieving arterial hemostasis?

A

platelet aggregation and vascular constriction

41
Q

What happens when there is increased capillary fragility?

A

petechiae and bruising

42
Q

How is hemophilia related to hemostasis?

A

caused by a deficiency in Factor VIII or IX; bleeding time may be significantly increased followed by recurrent bleeding

43
Q

How is pseudohemophilia related to hemostasis?

A

caused by Factor VIII deficiency (von WIllebrand’s disease); associated with vascular and/or platelet abnormalities

44
Q

How is severe liver disease related to hemostasis?

A

liver is the manufacturing site of all factors other than VIII; clinical results include increased PT and PTT, thrombocytopenia, and increased FDP

45
Q

How is vascular purpura related to hemostasis?

A

caused by a vitamin C deficiency that leads to increased bleeding

46
Q

How is vitamin K deficiency related to hemostasis?

A

causes the decreased synthesis of Factors II, VII, IX, and X, causing bleeding and the formation of fibrin clots

47
Q

What is the function of the platelet and its role in coagulation?

A

responsible for primary hemostasis; outer surface (glycolax) is sticky, allowing them to aggregate and form the initial plug at the site of trauma, and granules are released when they rupture; main roles are (1) maintenance of vascular integrity, (2) initial arrest of bleeding, and (3) stabilization of platelet plug by contributing to the process of fibrin formation

48
Q

What are the 8 constituents of the granules that are released by platelets?

A

ADP, ATP, calcium, serotonin, pyrophosphate, catecholamines, plasma proteins (Factors I, V, VIII, and albumin), and platelet factors

49
Q

Define thrombocytopenia.

A

abnormal drop in the number of circulating platelets

50
Q

What are two mechanisms responsible for thrombocytopenia?

A

bone marrow abnormalities, multiple factor deficiencies

51
Q

What can be done to measure functional platelet disorders (4 tests)?

A

platelet count, bleeding time, platelet-mediated thrombin generation, platelet aggregometry

52
Q

What are three sources of error in coagulation testing?

A

aspiration error, probe malfunction, expired reagents

53
Q

What coagulation results may be seen in patients with von WIllebrand’s disease?

A

platelet counts and clot times are normal, but bleeding time is increased, and Factor VIII levels are decreased

54
Q

What are the adsorbed plasma factors?

A

I, V, VIII, XI, XII

55
Q

What are the aged serum factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII

56
Q

What are the extrinsic factors, and which test screens for them?

A

I, II, V, VII, X; PT

57
Q

What are the factors common to both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

A

I, II, V, X

58
Q

What are the intrinsic factors, and which test screens for them?

A

I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII; PTT

59
Q

What are the labile factors?

A

V and VIII

60
Q

What are the liver factors?

A

I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII, XIII

61
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X

62
Q

What factor assay is especially helpful in distinguishing bleeding due to liver disease from that due to vitamin K deficiency?

A

V

63
Q

Describe disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

A

pathological activation of coagulation mechanisms which lead to the formation of small blood clots inside the blood vessels throughout the body

64
Q

What four things are consumed in DIC?

A

platelets, and Factors I, V, and VIII

65
Q

How can DIC be differentiated from primary fibrinolysis in the laboratory?

A

D-dimer is positive in DIC, negative in primary fibrinolysis

66
Q

What effect do the fibrin degradation products resulting from fibrinolysis have on the blood?

A

anti-thrombin activity, which interferes with polymerization of fibrin monomers and with platelet activity (inhibits aggregation)

67
Q

Differentiate between (1) thrombocytopenic purpura and (2) non-thrombocytopenic purpura.

A

(1) involves clots formed by platelets throughout the body due to disease or certain medications; (2) does not involve platelets, and the origin is vascular

68
Q

How does the principle of the fibrometer differ from other coagulation analyzers?

A

the fibrometer is based on the principle of an electrical circuit completed by clot formation, while the others use a measure of photo-optical density

69
Q

What is substitution testing and how is it used in coagulation testing?

A

used when a patient has abnormal PT or PTT results; can identify specific factor deficiencies by mixing correcting reagents with the patient’s plasma and re-running the PT/PTT

70
Q

How could a substitution test help in differentiating Hemophilia A from Hemophilia B?

A

if aged serum corrects the PTT, the patient has Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency); if adsorbed serum correct the PTT, the patient has Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency)

71
Q

What are the four basic stages of coagulation?

A

(1) formation of thromboplastin, (2) prothrombin converted to thrombin, (3) fibrinogen converted to fibrin, (4) fibrinolysis

72
Q

What test is used to evaluate coumadin therapy?

A

PT

73
Q

What test is used to evaluate extrinsic factors?

A

PT

74
Q

What test is used to evaluate fibrinolysis?

A

FSP

75
Q

What test is used to evaluate heparin therapy?

A

PTT

76
Q

What test is used to evaluate intrinsic factors?

A

PTT

77
Q

What test is used to evaluate Stage I of coagulation?

A

prothrombin consumption

78
Q

What test is used to evaluate Stage II of coagulation?

A

PTT

79
Q

What test is used to evaluate Stage III of coagulation?

A

thrombin time

80
Q

What test is used to evaluate the vascular system?

A

tourniquet test

81
Q

Why is it better to report out a normal range established by the hospital with patient results, rather than simply reporting out the control values?

A

altitude and diet can affect coagulation values

82
Q

What is the INR, how is it calculated, and how is it used?

A

International Normalized Ratio; established to normalize heparin, coumadin, Lovenox, and warfarin therapy across the world; INR = (patient PT/normal PT) - 181