Clinical pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is used when a patient has a heroin overdose?

A

naloxone

opiate receptor antagonist

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2
Q

Why is it important for those with a heroin overdose to stay in hospital until treatment is complete?

A

Naloxone has a very short half-life. A single naloxone dose can be cleared from the circulation (and its sites of action) before the opiate is cleared.
Recurrence of the overdose symptoms can happen

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3
Q

What are the sever symptoms of an opiate overdose?

A

unconscious and with a low respiratory rate

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4
Q

What is he affinity of a drug?

A

The affinity of a drug for its receptors is a measure of how well it binds a chemically sensitive site, or ‘receptor’. Drugs bind to receptors at a rate proportional to the drug concentration, but they unbind at a rate that depends only on the chemical properties of the drug-receptor complex.

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5
Q

There are 2 classes of drug antagonists, name them

A

competitive and non-competitive

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6
Q

What is the definition of affinity and efficacy and how do they relate?

A

Affinity - tendency of a molecule to bind to a receptor

Efficacy- how well an agonist achieves a response

Two drugs acting on the same target can have identical affinities but very different efficacies. Therefore, different drugs acting at the same receptors can be given at very different concentrations to achieve the same effect.

Important when switching between drugs of the same class

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7
Q

How does a non competitive antagonist, effect the efficacy and affinity of a drug?

A

agonist affinity is unaltered but efficacy is decreased.

Drug can still bind but its effect is reduced at a fixed concentration

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8
Q

How is the potency of a drug commonly described?

A

the concentration (or dose) that is able to elicit 50% of the maximal response (i.e. the individual effective concentration, EC50 or individual effective dose, ED50). A drug that has a higher potency achieves that size of response at a lower concentration.

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9
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

a drug that has a lower maximal response resulting from lower efficacy

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10
Q

What are Allosteric Modulators?

A

Bind to proteins at sites other that the binding site for the principal agonist. When these allosteric modulators bind, they can either:

  • Alter the affinity of the binding site for its agonists, or
  • Change the efficacy of the response when the agonist binds
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11
Q

Allosteric Modulators can be positive or negative, what does this mean?

A

Positive (to increase the potency of the agonists) or

Negative (to decrease the potency of an agonist)

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12
Q

Give an example of a partial agonist drug type

A

Beta blockers

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13
Q

Give example of a positive Allosteric Modulator drug type? What is the advantage of this kind of drug?

A

cinacalcet, a positive allosteric modulator of Ca2+ sensing receptors. used for secondary hyperparathyroidism and parathyroid carcinoma.

Positive - they don’t directly activate (or inactivate) cell signalling, but rather they change the set-point for normal activity

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14
Q

How does desensitisations effect the potency of a drug? Describe how the long term use of a drug can alter its intended mode of action

A

Many drugs can lead to desensitisation of their receptor targets, also leading to reduced numbers of receptors. So the potency of the drug is reduced

Drugs can often have longer-term effects different from their initial action at receptors, which can result in altered levels of the drug or its target, thereby changing its potency.

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15
Q

Give an example of a drug which causes desensitisation?

A

Nicotine acts on neuronal nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptors (nAChr).

A first cigarette can cause nausea of vomiting because activation of these receptors can cause tachycardia, increased blood pressure and alteration gastrointestinal motility

Tolerance to these effects develops quickly

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16
Q

Where are nicotine receptors located? How are they able to effect the gut?

A

Nicotinic receptors are found on skeletal (not smooth) muscle, autonomic neurons, and within the central nervous system (CNS).

For action on the gut, the most likely site of action is the large network of autonomic neurons within the gut wall - the enteric nervous system.

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17
Q

Where are nicotine receptors located in relation to their ability to effect the heart?

A

Nicotinic receptors are present on the nerve cell bodies of postganglionic sympathetic neurons, their peripheral terminals (running between the cardiac muscle fibres) and on intrinsic neurons within the heart wall.

18
Q

What does tolerance mean>

A

a biochemical response that involves increased production of mediators in the pathway affected by a drug

19
Q

What is the meaning of the term Tachyphylaxis?

A

term that describes a decline in the response to repeated doses of an agonist, but doesn’t imply a particular mechanism.

20
Q

Which statins are lipophilic and which are Hydrophilic?

A

Lipophilic (‘fat-loving’) simvastatin.

Hydrophilic (‘water-loving’) pravastatin.

21
Q

What are Voltage-dependent ion channels?

A

membrane proteins that conduct ions passively across the membrane, under the influence of an electrochemical gradient.

enable a cell to be excitable (able to generate action potentials, e.g. nerve and muscle).

open in response to depolarisation of the cell membrane (usually).

22
Q

What is the name of the pore forming unit of a Voltage-dependent ion channel?

A

alpha subunit

23
Q

How many alpha subunit genes are do calcium, potassium and sodium channels have?

A

Calcium - 10
Potassium - 40
Sodium 9

24
Q

What effect do calcium channels have in neurones and in smooth muscles?

A

In neurons, the classical role is involvement in the release of neurotransmitter at a synapse.

In smooth and cardiac muscle cells, the increase in intracellular calcium leads to contraction.

25
Q

What is the important therapeutic calcium channel target in both cardiac and vascular smooth muscle?

A

L - type channels

26
Q

Why is it that via a calcium channel, it is possible to affect smooth and cardiac muscle differently?

A

This is because drugs that target calcium channels can selectively target molecular subtypes of the channel in the different tissues.

27
Q

Gives examples of Dihydropyridine ‘calcium-channel blockers. What is there mode of action?

A

nifedipine and amlodipine

vasodilators
bind to the alpha subunit of L-type calcium channels
reducing calcium channel opening. Lower intracellular calcium leads to relaxation of smooth muscle and vasodilation (predominately arterial).

28
Q

State calcium channel blockers which act on the CaV1.2 subunit of L-type calcium channels?

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

29
Q

Which calcium channel blocker is useful for the treatment of angina but is dangerous to use in heart failure and why?

A

verapamil
Targets L-type calcium channels in cardiac muscle.

Therefore has a negative ionotropic effect on the heart (reduced contractility),

Causes depression of
cardiac contractility

Also causes fluid overload - lower limb oedema

30
Q

Which calcium channel blockers are used for the depression of SA and AV nide?

A

verapamil
and
diltiazem

31
Q

Why does Nifedipine not precipitate heart failure in the same way verapamil does despite the fact they are both calcium channel blockers?

A

Nifedipine targets L-type calcium channels in smooth muscle and has little action on channels in cardiac muscle, so there is a relatively small negative ionotropic effect.

32
Q

Why does dlitiazem not cause heart failure even though it targets L type channels in the heart?

A

Although dlitiazem does target cardiac L-type channels and therefore has a negative ionotropic effect, it also affects smooth muscle channels causing reduction in peripheral vascular resistance, which helps to cancel out any tendency to cause cardiac failure.

33
Q

Name the monamine transporters for noradrenaline (NA), 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) and dopamine (DA)?

A

dopamine - DAT
noradrenaline NET
hydroxytryptamine SERT

34
Q

Which monoamine transporter does cocaine inhibit?

A

dopamine - DAT

noradrenaline NET

35
Q

What effect do amphetamine have on monoamine transporters? What effect does this have on the body?

A

its a substrate for all three transporters

Amphetamines enter the nerve terminal and induce the release of the monoamines at the synapse (causing euphoria and excitement).

36
Q

Which drug is Ecstasy a derivative of? Which monoamine transporter is it selective to?

A

derivative of amphetamine

more selective for SERT.

37
Q

What is responsible for the euphoric effects of ecstasy and amphetamine abuse?

A

increased levels of dopamine at a synapse. This is because these drugs inhibit the monamine transporters for
dopamine - DAT
noradrenaline NET and
hydroxytryptamine SERT

This increases the levelof each monamine e.g. dopamine in the synapse

38
Q

Which drug classes inhibit monoamine transporters?

Why does this not lead to euphoria?

A

Anti- depressants

tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Do not effect DAT transporters

39
Q

Which therapeutic drug inhibits both DAT and NET? Which condition is it used to treat?

A

Methylphenidate

narcolepsy and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

40
Q

What are the side effects of tricyclic antidepressants and which mechanism causes these side effects?

A

Side effects -
cardiac dysrhythmias, dry mouth, blurred vision and constipation.

Side-effects of the TCAs can result from antagonism of muscarinic ACh receptors (common in the peripheral autonomic nervous system)

41
Q

Give an example of a serotonin/noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) drug?

Why do these drugs cause better side effects than tricyclic antidepressants?

A

venlafaxine

side-effect profile is slightly more favourable as they do not have antimuscarinic effects