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Vet Nursing > Clinical Pathology > Flashcards

Clinical Pathology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the problem with a fast bleed/ high suction?

A

it can cause haemolysis of the blood, or a possible vein collapse.

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2
Q

what happens in a slow bleed?

A

platelet clumping, coagulation, can be caused by low blood pressure.

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3
Q

What is serum derived from?

A

clotted blood

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4
Q

how do we mix the sample?

A

invert it 5 times

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5
Q

what are the 4 microscopic powers used on a microscope?

A

10x
40x
100x
1000x

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6
Q

what does FNA stand for?

A

Fine Needle Aspiration

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7
Q

what is written on a cytology slide? (labelling)

A

patient name, owner name, date, area the sample was taken from.

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8
Q

should all slides be stained in house?

A

no, some labs prefer to do it themselves.

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9
Q

should the cell layer thickness on a cytology slide be thick of thin?

A

thin (monolayer)

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10
Q

how many 1 second dips in the diff quik?

A

5 dips in each

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11
Q

label parts of a plain tube after 30 minutes

A

serum, blood clot

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12
Q

label parts of an EDTA tube after 30 minutes

A

plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells

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13
Q

what is found in plasma thats not in serum?

A

fibrinogen

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14
Q

what microscopic fibre is formed when blood clots?

A

fibrin

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15
Q

why do we separate blood from clot for long term storage?

A

to prevent chemicals leaching out of old or damaged cells

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16
Q

what are 2 methods of separating serum from a clot?

A

pipette, serum separator tube

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17
Q

what is the most versatile anti-coagulant?

A

Lithium Heparin

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18
Q

what is the best anti-coagulant for blood smears in mammals?

A

EDTA

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19
Q

what test do we use a citrate tube for?

A

coags, PT, PTT (blue tube)

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20
Q

What test do we use a FLOX tube for?

A

glucose levels (grey tube)

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21
Q

what does serum centrifuged before clot retraction result in?

A

the serum becomes a gel (platelets will be spun out before they get a chance to contract fibrin in the clot)

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22
Q

where should we leave a sample for clotting? how long?

A

left to stand on the bench at room temperature for 30 minutes

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23
Q

how many times do we invert a serum separator tube?

A

5 times after the sample is taken

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24
Q

how do we store a serum separator tube?

A

left at room temperature to separate then serum can be frozen

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25
Q

when do we centrifuge a SST?

A

after 30 minutes

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26
Q

when should the SST sample be poured off?

A

within 60 minutes

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27
Q

which blood cells are responsible for clot retraction/ contraction?

A

platelets or thrombacin

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28
Q

why is it best to fast an animal before collecting blood?

A

to avoid lipemia

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29
Q

what is a better blood smear at gross level?

A

blood will be spread out evenly over the slide, not too skinny

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30
Q

what is a better blood smear at microscopic level?

A

cells wont overlap

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31
Q

label blood smear

A

Red blood cells (erythrocytes), platelets (thrombocytes)

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32
Q

label microhaematecrit tube

A

plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells

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33
Q

what is an anaemic PCV?

A

dogs: less than 37%
cats: less than 30%

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34
Q

healthy PCV?

A

dog: 45%
cat: 35%

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35
Q

healthy TP?

A

cats and dogs: 70g/L

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36
Q

do we read the meniscus from the top or bottom?

A

bottom

37
Q

what are the 2 blood tests which help diagnose dehydration?

A

PCV, TPP

38
Q

what is an enzyme?

A

a protein produced by a living cell that increases the rate of a chemical reaction.

39
Q

how is blood stored within 30 minutes?

A

at room temperature (around 20 degrees)

40
Q

how is blood stored between 30 mins - 48 hours?

A

in the fridge (around 4 degrees)

41
Q

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate liver injury.

A

ALP, ALT

42
Q

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate liver function.

A

ammonia, bile acids

43
Q

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate pancreatic injury.

A

amylase, lipase

44
Q

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate kidney function.

A

urea, creatinine

45
Q

what is the pigmented liver metabolite responsible for jaundice?

A

bilirubin

46
Q

detecting antigens - do they detect infection and previous exposure?

A

yes

47
Q

what do antibodies do?

A

detect antigens, formed as an immune reaction to fight infection

48
Q

when can antigens be detected?

A

2-3 weeks after the infection

49
Q

how long can antigens remain in the body?

A

months or year after infection

50
Q

when should urine be refrigerated?

A

if it isnt going to be tested within 30 minutes

51
Q

what are some changes that occur to urine with age?

A

glucose levels fall, pH rises, bacteria usually proliferate, renal tubular casts break up.

52
Q

why do we note urine collection method?

A

it indicates an expected level of contamination by bacteria and blood

53
Q

when can we dipstick a refrigerated sample?

A

when it has warmed back to room temperature

54
Q

why do we hold the dipstick horizontally?

A

so that the urine from the different pads dont mix

55
Q

why do we not remove desiccating gel from dipstick bottle?

A

if it is removed the moisture can ruin the dipsticks, they absorb moisture

56
Q

should we refrigerate dipsticks?

A

no

57
Q

non-haemolysed blood in urine dipstick is indicated by? indicates what?

A

it is indicated by red spots, indicates the presence of intact red blood cells

58
Q

which 2 urine dipstick tests are considered inaccurate?

A

USG (specific gravity) and leukocytes

59
Q

which 2 tests may be affected by flea droppings on a urine dipstick?

A

blood and protein

60
Q

should pH of urine always be recorded?

A

yes

61
Q

advantage and disadvantage of collecting urine via cysto.

A

advantage: less contamination, sterility
disadvantage: invasive, could be contaminated by blood on the needle

62
Q

what does turbidity mean?

A

cloudiness

63
Q

what does flocculent mean?

A

floating particles

64
Q

list 2 gross characteristics of urine other than turbidity.

A

colour, smell, volume

65
Q

list 3 alternatives for “coffin lid” crystals found in cat and dog urine

A

struvite, triple phosphate, magnesium ammonium phosphate

66
Q

what is the zoonotic disease contracted from dog urine?

A

leptospirosis

67
Q

what is the parasite egg found in dog faeces which is dangerous to humans?

A

hydatid tapeworm

68
Q

how much poo is needed in faecal floatation decide?

A

1ml

69
Q

how long should a faecal floatation device float for?

A

10-20 minutes

70
Q

whipworm egg looks like:

A

a casserole dish

71
Q

hookworm egg looks like:

A

oval with big circles in the middle

72
Q

roundworm egg looks like:

A

big circle with fuzzy edges

73
Q

tapeworm egg looks like:

A

circle with shaded inside,lines around the edge

74
Q

eggs that look like a string of circles:

A

coccus

75
Q

eggs that look like rods:

A

bacillus

76
Q

adult dog faecal floatation with mucoid blood, flecked diarrhoea is which worm?

A

whipworm

77
Q

what is the name of the stain used to divide bacteria into 2 groupings?

A

gram stain

78
Q

what is the purpose of a bacterial culture plate?

A

culture and sensitivity

79
Q

what is a fungassay?

A

test for ringworm

80
Q

where do we grow a bacterial culture plate?

A

on a shelf, away from direct sunlight

81
Q

how should the cap be placed on a culture plate?

A

partially closed

82
Q

how often should the culture plate be checked?

A

daily for up to 2 weeks

83
Q

a pathogenic fungus is indicated by the appearance of what?

A

colour change during early growth

84
Q

how is a deep skin scraping performed?

A

the skin is squeezed to get the mites out of the follicles, a blunt scalpel is used

85
Q

how many superficial skin scrapings are needed for scabies?

A

up to 10

86
Q

should the scalpel blade be sharp or blunt?

A

blunt

87
Q

what 3 things make skin adhere to slide?

A

sterile lube, paraffin oil, water/saline

88
Q

how do we minimise tissue deterioration of a biopsy before placing in formalin?

A

keeping moist with sterile physiological saline

Vet Nursing (3 decks)

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