Clinical management Flashcards

1
Q

How is GDM diagnosed?

A

75g OGTT with 2h glucose

Diagnose gestational diabetes if the woman has either:
- a fasting plasma glucose level of 5.6 mmol/litre or above or
- a 2‑hour plasma glucose level of 7.8 mmol/litre or above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who should be offered a OGTT?

A

Those with risk factors for GDM:
- BMI above 30 kg/m2
- previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or more
- previous gestational diabetes
- family history of diabetes (first‑degree relative with diabetes)
- an ethnicity with a high prevalence of diabetes
- glycosuria of 2+ or more on 1 occasion or glycosuria of 1+ on 2 or more occasions

Testing at 24-28 weeks
If previous GDM, offer OGTT ASAP after booking and again at 24-28 weeks if normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Suture materials/ techniques for repairing anal mucosa/ IAS/ EAS

A

AM: continuous or interrupted, 3-0 polyglactin (Vicryl)

IAS: interrupted/ mattress. Monofilament e.g. 3-0 PDS, or 2-0 polyglactin (vicryl).
Sutures must not overlap, end to end only.

EAS: end to end monofilament e.g. 3-0 PDS or 2-0 polyglactin (vicryl)
Sutures can be overlapping or end-to end.
For partial thickness, end to end should be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Incidence of OASIS in UK
Prognosis

A

6.1% for primip
1.7% for multip

60-80% of women asymptomatic 12 months post delivery and EAS repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Incidence of obstetric cholestasis in UK

OC monitoring

OC implications

A

0.7%

Itching in general affects 23% of pregnancies

Itching can occur before biochemical changes.
If LFTs normal, but itching continues LFTs should be repeated in 1-2 weeks & consider testing for other causes of itch

If LFTs deranged, should be monitored every 1-2 weeks throughout pregnancy and at least 10 days post natally

OC linked with increased incidence of passage of meconium, premature delivery, fetal distress, stillbirth, delivery by CS and PPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Different criteria’s used to diagnose BV

A

Amsels criteria:
3/4 criteria required for confirmation of BV
1. Thin, white, homogeneous discharge
2. Clue cells on microscopy of wet mount
3. pH of vaginal fluid >4.5
4. Release of a fishy odour on adding alkali (10% KOH)

The Nugent score:
Estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10
<4 = normal
4-6 = intermediate
>6 = BV

The Hay/Ison criteria:
- Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
- Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
- Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli

OSOM BVblue is a commercially available kit that BASHH advises performs adequately compared with Amsel criteria.

Detection of gardnella vaginalis on swab does not confirm BV, as bacteria can be present in up to 50% of women without BV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

% of pregnant vs non-pregnant women asymptomatically colonised with candida

A

Pregnant 40%
Non-pregnant 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Uterotonics

A

Oxytocin:
- Nanopeptide primarily synthezised in the hypothalamus (supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei)
- The oxytocin receptor is a G-protein-coupled receptor requiring Mg2+ and cholesterol.

Prostaglandins
- Misoprostal (Synthetic Prostaglandin E1 analogue) half-life 40 minutes
- Dinoprostone (Naturally occurring Prostaglandin E2)
- Dinoprost (Naturally occurring Prostaglandin F2 Alpha)
- Carboprost (Synthetic Prostaglandin F2 Alpha analogue)

Ergometrine
- Ergot Alkaloid
- Stimulates 5HT2, dopamine and alpha adrenergic receptors but smooth muscle contraction mechanism of action not fully understood.
- Often used as combined preparation with Oxytocin (syntometrine)
- Should not be used in HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medication regimes for medical abortion depending on gestation

A

All gestations, begin with Mifepristone 200mg PO

<7 weeks days:
24-48h later: 400mcg PO misoprostol

7-8 weeks:
24-48h later: 400mcg PO misoprostol + 2nd dose 400mcg PV or PO if no abortion 4h later

<9 weekss:
24-48h later: 800mcg misoprostol (PV/ buccal/ sublingual)

9-13 weeks:
36-48h later: 800mcg misoprostol PV. Up to 4 further doses of 400mcg misoprostol (PO/PV) at 3 hourly intervals

13-24 weeks:
- 36-48h later: 800mcg misoprostol PV. Up to 4 further doses of 400mcg misoprostol (PO/PV) at 3 hourly intervals.
- If abortion has not occurred, mifepristone can be repeated 3h after the last misoprostol followed by misoprostol 12 hours after that.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who should be given anti-D in cases of abortion?

A

Rhesus Anti-D IgG should be given, by injection into the deltoid muscle, to women who are rhesus D negative and are having an abortion after 10+0 weeks’ gestation.

Anti-D prophylaxis should not be given to women who are having a medical abortion up to and including 10+0 weeks’ gestation.

Anti-D prophylaxis should be considered for women who are rhesus D negative and are having a surgical abortion up to and including 10+0 weeks’ gestation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prophylactic Abx regimes for surgical abortions

A

Doxycycline 100mg BD for 3 days

Metronidazole 1g PR or 800mg PO if tested negative for chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When to restart COCP following abortion/ miscarriage

A

Immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factors for GDM

A
  • Increasing age
  • Certain ethnic groups (Asian, African Americans, Hispanic/Latino Americans and Pima Indians)
  • High BMI before pregnancy (three-fold risk for obese women compared to non-obese women)
  • Smoking doubles the risk of GDM
  • Change in weight between pregnancies - an inter-pregnancy gain of more than three units (of BMI) doubles the risk of GDM
  • Short interval between pregnancies
  • Previous unexplained stillbirth
  • Previous macrosomia
  • Family history of type 2 diabetes or GDM - more relevant in nulliparous than parous women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Blood test monitoring on methotrexate

A

FBC/ U&E/ LTF every 1-2 weeks when initiating treatment.
Once established, every 2-3 months.

Risk of blood dyscradias (myelosuppression) and liver cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Risk of complications with laparoscopy

A

Overall risk of ‘serious complications’ is 2/1000

Risk of bowel injury 0.4/1000

Risk of vascular injury 0.2/1000

Risk of death is 0.05 in 1000

Women must be informed of the risks and potential complications associated with laparoscopy. This should include discussion of the risks of the entry technique used: specifically, injury to the bowel, urinary tract and major blood vessels, and later complications associated with the entry ports: specifically, hernia formation.

No significant safety advantage to open (Hasson)/ closed entry techniques

Reduced risk of uterine injury in Hasson compared to verses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of sub fertility in WHO group I ovulation disorders

A

Group I: hypothalamic pituitary failure (stress, anorexia, exercise induced)

Increase BMI if <19
Reduce exercise if high levels
Pulsatile GnRH or gonadotropins with LH activity to induce ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of sub fertility in WHO group II ovulation disorders

A

WHO group II: hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction

Weight reduction if BMI >30
Clomiphene (1st line)
Metformin (1st line)
Clomiphene & metformin (1st/2nd line)
Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
Gonadotrophins (2nd line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of sub fertility in WHO group III ovulation disorders

A

Consider IVF with donor eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of hyperprolactinaemia

A

Investigate cause e.g. MRI head (?pituitary adenoma) medication review (some antipsychotic medications for example can cause prolactin rise)

Dopamine agonist (Bromocriptine advised by NICE as 1st line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What should be given/ avoided in hyperemesis to reduce the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Avoid dextrose: can exacerbate Wernickes.

Give IV pabrinex (10ml solution in 100ml saline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing PCOS

A

Two of the three following criteria are diagnostic of the condition:

  • Polycystic ovaries (either 12 or more peripheral follicles or increased ovarian volume (greater than 10 cm3)
  • Oligo-ovulation or anovulation
  • Clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism

Typical Biochemistry
- Elevated LH
- FSH normal or low
- LH:FSH >2 (normal is 1:1 ratio, PCOS is often 3:1)
- Testosterone, oestrogen, prolactin all typically normal or elevated
- SHBG normal or reduced

Associated Endocrine Disorders
- Diabetes
- Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Recommendation regarding periods in PCOS

A

Oligo- or amenorrhoea in women with PCOS may predispose to endometrial hyperplasia and later carcinoma.

It is good practice to recommend treatment with gestogens to induce a withdrawal bleed at least every 3 to 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Changes to reproductive system following delivery

A

Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days

Uterine involution takes 4-6 weeks

Lochia flow 3-6 weeks

Cervical constriction takes up to 7 days

Vaginal contraction and return of tone takes 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Amniotic fluid volume- peak gestation and volume

A

Peaks at 35 weeks, then decreases until term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fetal contributions to amniotic fluid

A

Fetal Urine
- First fetal urine produced at 8-11 weeks
- By term fetus produces approximately 800ml urine per day

Fetal Swallowing
- Fetus starts swallowing 12 weeks
- 250ml swallowed per day

Fetal Lung Secretions
- 300ml/day by 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Erb’s palsy following shoulder dystocia- which nerve roots are affected?

A

C5 & C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which uterotonic is most associated with coronary artery spasm?

A

Ergometrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stages of syphilis, time from primary infection and symptoms

A

Primary: 3-90 days: chancre, lymphadenopathy

Secondary: 4-10 weeks: widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet. Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes

Latent: early <1yr after secondary stage, late >2 year after secondary stage: asymptomatic.

Tertiary: 3+ years after primary infection. Gummas (mass of dead and swollen giber-like tissue- most often seen on liver) OR neurosyphilis OR cardiovascular syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of trichomoniasis in HIV positive patients vs other patient groups

A

HIV positive: 500mg BD metronidazole for 7 days

Others: 400mg BD for 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Radiation risk to breast tissue/ fetus of CTPA

A

Radiation risks to the fetus is low - 0.1mGy

Radiation to breast tissue is considerable: 10- 20 mGy.

Delivery of 10mGy of radiation to a woman’s breast has been estimated to increase her lifetime risk of developing breast ca. by 13.6%. Background risk =12%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Relative and absolute risk of VTE in pregnancy & incidence in UK

A

Relative risk of VTE in pregnancy is increased 4 to 6 fold compared to non-pregnancy

Absolute risk of VTE in pregnancy and the puerperium is 1-2/1000 pregnancies

Incidence of Pulmonary Embolism in the UK is 1.3/10,000 maternities

10-20% of VTEs are PE’s. The majority are DVT

Inherited Thrombophilia is present in approximately 40% of women with pregnancy associated VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cut off risk for CVS/ amniocentesis following pre-natal screening for Down’s syndrome

A

1 in 150

CVS should not be performed before 10 (10+0) completed weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Histopathology features specific to serous and mucinous ovarian tumour types

A

Serous tumours = Psammoma bodies

Mucinous tumours = Mucin vacoules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management of menorrhagia

A

1st Line
Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (IUS eg Mirena)

2nd Line
Tranexamic Acid, NSAIDs (eg Mefenamic Acid), COCP

3rd Line
Norethisterone (15 mg) daily from days 5 to 26 of the menstrual cycle, or injected long-acting progestogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Prelabour Rupture of Membranes (PROM)

Risk of serious neonatal infection

A

1% (vs 0.5% with intact membranes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Prelabour Rupture of Membranes (PROM)

How any go into labour in first 24h?

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Prelabour Rupture of Membranes (PROM)

When to induce?

A

Induction appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and >24 hours post rupture and patients labour hasn’t started.

If <34 weeks induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Endometrial cancer
Stages and 5 year survival

A

Stage 1: confined to uterus
1A <1/2 depth of myometrium
1B >1/2 depth myometrium
85-90% 5 year survival

Stage 2: cervical stormal invasion, not beyond uterus. 65% 5 year survival

Stage 3: Extension beyond uterus
3A: invades serosa or adnexa
3B: Vaginal and/ or parametrial invasion
3C1: Pelvic nodal involvement
3C2: Para aortic nodal involvement
45-60% 5 year survival

Stage 4: distant metastasis
4A Tumor invasion bladder and/or bowel mucosa
4B Distant metastases including abdominal metastases and/or inguinal lymph nodes
15% 5 year survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the risk of chlamydia infection following intercourse with an asymptomatic chlamydia positive partner?

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What percentage of men and women are asymptomatic of chlamydia following initial infection?

A

> 50% men and 80% of women asymptomatic after initial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

FIGO staging of vulval ca

A

Stage 1: Confined to vulva
1A Lesions <=2cm with <1mm stromal invasion
1B Lesions > 2 cm in size or with stromal invasion > 1 mm confined to the vulva or perineum

Stage 2: Tumour of any size with extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower 1/3 urethra; lower 1/3 vagina; anus) with negative nodes

Stage 3: Tumour of any size with or without extension to adjacent perineal structures (lower 1/3 urethra; lower 1/3 vagina; anus) with positive inguinofemoral nodes

3A (I) With 1 lymph node metastasis ( ≥5 mm)
OR (II) 1 to 2 lymph node metastasis(es) (< 5 mm)

3B (I) With 2 or more lymph node metastases ( ≥5 mm)
OR (II) 3 or more lymph node metastases (< 5 mm)

3C Positive nodes with extra capsular spread

Stage 4: Tumour invades other regional (upper 2/3 urethra; 2/3 vagina) or distant structures

Tumour invades any of the following:
4A (I) Upper urethral and/or vaginal mucosa; bladder mucosa; rectal mucosa or fixed to pelvic bone

OR (II) Fixed or ulcerated inguinofemoral lymph nodes

4B Any distant metastasis including pelvic lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

FIGO classification of cervical cancer

A

Stage IA: Invasive carcinoma diagnosed only by microscopy with maximum depth of
invasion <5mm
IA1: Stromal invasion ≤3 mm deep
IA2: Stromal invasion >3 mm and ≤5 mm deep

Stage IB: Invasive carcinoma with measured deepest invasion >5 mm, lesion limited to the cervix:

IB1: Invasive carcinoma >/= 5 mm depth of stromal invasion, and <2 cm in greatest dimension
IB2: Invasive carcinoma >/= 2 cm and < 4 cm in greatest dimension
IB3: Invasive carcinoma >/= 4 cm in greatest dimension

Stage IIA: Involvement limited to the upper two-thirds of the vagina without parametrial involvement:

IIA1: Invasive carcinoma < 4cm in greatest dimension

IIA2: Invasive carcinoma >/= 4 cm in greatest dimension

Stage IIB: With parametrial involvement but not up to the pelvic wall

Stage IIIA: Carcinoma involves the lower third of the vagina with no extension to the pelvic wall

Stage IIIB: Extension to the pelvic wall and and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney

Stage IIIC: Involvement of pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodes:

IIIC1: Pelvic lymph node metastasis only
IIIC2: Para-aortic lymph node metastasis

Stage IVA: Spread to adjacent pelvic organs

Stage IVB: Spread to distant organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Incidence of molar pregnancy in the UK

A

1 in 600- 1 in 2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the luteo-placental shift and when does it happen?

A

When the placenta takes over from the corpus luteum for production of oestrogen and progesterone

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Strong cytochrome P450 inducers (can reduce contraceptive effect of some hormonal forms of contraception)

A

Carbemazepine
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
Esclicarbazepine
Oxcarbazepine
Primidone
St John’s Wort
Topiramate
Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Placenta accreta/ increta/ percreta

Risk factors for placenta accreta

Incidence of placenta accrete (including intreat and percreta)

A

Accreta: chorionic villi attached to myometrium rather than decidua basalis
(76% cases)

Increta: chorionic villi invade into the myometrium
(17% cases)

Percreta: chorionic villi invade through the myometrium & serosa
(7% cases)

Previous CS increases risk of placenta accreta with each CS: 1st (3%), 2nd (11%), 3rd (40%), 4th (61%), 5th (67%)

Other risk factors: maternal age, multiparity, other uterine surgery, prior uterine curettage, uterine irradiation, endometrial ablation, Asherman syndrome, uterine leiomyomata, uterine anomalies, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, smoking.

Incidence: 1.7 per 10,000 deliveries in the UK

48
Q

Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy
- Presentation
- Risk factors
- Prevalence
- Mortality
- Cause

A
  • Presentation
    Abdo pain, lethargy/ malaise, jaundice, deranged LFTs, coagulopathy, hypoglycaemia/ hyperuricaemia
  • Risk factors
    Primp, male fetus, multiple pregnancy, obesity
  • Prevalence
    1 in 10,000-20,000
  • Mortality
    Fetal & maternal mortality around 20%
  • Cause
    Fetal deficiency of long chain 3 hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD)
49
Q

Delay in second stage of labour in nulliparous vs multiparous

A

Nulliparous:
- Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1h
- Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 2h

Multiparous
- Suspect delay if inadequate progress after 30 minutes
- Diagnose delay if progress in adequate after 1h

If delay suspected- offer amniotomy if waters in tact
If delay diagnosed, prepare for CS

50
Q

According to green top guidelines- when should CVS be performed/ not be performed?

A

It should be performed from 11+0 weeks as it is technically difficult before then (and some suggest risk of limb and mandibular defects increased)

It should NOT be performed before 10+weeks

In practice CVS is usually performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks

51
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?

A

1.5%

52
Q

Definition of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Severe nausea and vomiting associated with weight loss >5% of pre-pregnancy weight with metabolic disturbance (typically dehydration and/or ketosis).

53
Q

Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone

A

Prolactin

54
Q

What is required for oxytocin to bind to its receptor?

A

Magnesium and cholesterol

55
Q

What percentage of women with gonorrhoea will develop PID?

A

15%

56
Q

Cervical screening: what is the incidence of the following results?
- Negative
- Borderline changes
- Mild dyskaryosis
- Moderate dyskaryosis
- Severe dyskaryosis
- Inadequate sample

A
  • Negative: 93.8%
  • Borderline changes: 2.5%
  • Mild dyskaryosis: 2.4%
  • Moderate dyskaryosis: 0.5%
  • Severe dyskaryosis: 0.7%
  • Inadequate sample: 2.7%
57
Q

Most common form of fibroid degeneration?

A

Hyaline degeneration (60%), except during pregnancy, when red (carneous) degeneration is more common

58
Q

Histological features of lichen sclerosis vs lichen simplex vs VIN

A

Lichen sclerosis:
- Epidermal atrophy/ thinning
- Hydronic degeneration of the basal layer (sub-epidermal hyalinisation)
- Dermal inflammation

Lichen simplex:
- Epithelial thickening
- Increased mitosis in basal and prickle layers

VIN:
- Epithelial nuclear atypia
- Loss of surface differentiation
- Increased mitosis

58
Q

Klinefelters syndrome

A

47XXY
Azoospermia & infertility, small testicles
Male phenotype

59
Q

Use of EPO in anaemia in pregnancy

A

Currently, used in end-stage renal anaemia only

No evidence to suggest harm to mother/ fetus or neonate

60
Q

Management of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

Propylthiouracil is 1st choice- crosses placenta less readily than carbimazole

Radioiodine is contra-indicated

61
Q

COCP use impact on bloods (FSH/ LH/ E2)

A

Decreases all
AMH not significantly changed

COCPs work by both progesterone and oestrogen negative feedback- resulting in decreasing the frequency of GnRH release and a subsequent drop in FSH and LH. Decreased follicle development from a lower FSH results in reduced E2 production.

Causes reduction in ovarian and adrenal androgen synthesis. Elevates SHBG.

62
Q

Risk of developing endometrial cancer with endometrial hyperplasia

A

EH without atypia (overall) <5%

Simple EH without atypia 1%

Complex EH without atypia 4%

EH with atypia 40%

63
Q

Risks of abdominal hysterectomy

A

Overall risk of serious complication 4%

Haemorrhage requiring blood transfusion 2.3%

Bladder and/ or ureter injury and/ or long term disturbance of bladder function 0.7%

Return to theatre 0.7% (e.g. bleeding/ wound dehiscence)

VTE 0.4%

Pelvic abscess/ infection 0.2%

Bowel injury 0.04% (4 in 10,000)

Death within 6 weeks 0.03%

64
Q

What increases the risk of ureteral injury in abdominal surgery?

A

Previous surgery, adhesions, past cancer treatment, endometriosis

64
Q

What does NICE advise pregnant diabetic women should keep their HbA1c below?

A

6.5% or 48mmol/ mol

65
Q

When to use tocolytics (TPTL) and 1st/2nd line

A

Use of tocolytic drugs is not associated with a clear reduction in perinatal or neonatal mortality, or neonatal morbidity.

Women most likely to benefit are those in very pre-term labour, those needing transfer to a hospital which can provide neonatal intensive care and those who have not yet completed a full course of corticosteroids

1st line: Nifedipine (unlicensed)
2nd: Oxytocin receptor antagonists e.g. atosiban

Ritodrine and atosiban are licensed for treatment of threatened pre-term labour

66
Q

Management of OAB

A

Bladder training
Treat vaginal atrophy and nocturne with topical oestrogen & desmopressin
Consider catheterisation is chronic retention

Medications
First line:
1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) - don’t offer to elderly frail patients
2. Tolterodine
3. Darifenacin

2nd line:
Consider transdermal anticholinergic
Mirabegron

67
Q

Appropriate entry techniques according to BMI

A

Normal BMI- no preferential method

Morbid obesity (BMI >40): hasson technique or entry at Palmer’s point is preferred.
Varess needle: difficult penetration

Very thin: bassoon technique or insertion at Palmer’s point. Higher risk of vascular injury

68
Q

Type of COCP best suited for acne management

A

Marvelon can be used for acne.

Dianette’s licence is for use in severe acne that has failed to respond to oral antibacterials and for moderately severe hirsutism.

Yasmin contains drosperinone which has antiandrogenic effects so would also be a reasonable choice but is not licensed for acne.

69
Q

Definition of anaemia 1st trimester/ 2nd & 3rd, post partum

A

1st: Hb <110
2nd & 3rd: Hb <105
Post partum: Hb <100

70
Q

Typical pattern of FM

A

First perceived at 18-20 weeks & increase until 32 weeks, then plateau

By term, average number of generalised movements per hour is 31

If RFM and >28 weeks, should undergo CTG +/- USS if RFM persist despite normal CTG

71
Q

Typical breast milk composition (fat/ protein/ sugar)

A

Fat 4%, protein 1%, sugar 7%

72
Q

Prevalance of fibroids

A

Occur in 20-50% of women holder than 30

Lifetime prevalence is 30%

Peak incidence in 40s

Nearly 70% of white women and >80% black women have at least 1 fibroid by the age of 50

40% of white women and 60% of black women have had fibroids by the age of 35 years

73
Q

Process of cervical ripening in labour

A

Overall process = type 1 collagen breakdown by collagenase

Increased activity of metalloproteinases 2 & 9 that degrade extracellular matrix proteins

Cervical collagenase and elastase also increase and degradation of collagen increases, leading to decreased collagen content in the cervix

Increased oestrogen leads to increased collagenase activity- increase COX2 causing increased PGE2 in the cervix.

PGE2 leads to:
- increase in collagen degradation
- increase in hyaluronic acid, - increase in chemotaxis for leukocytes, which causes increased collagen degradation
- increase in stimulation of IL 8 release
- Prostaglandin F2-alpha is also involved in the process via its ability to stimulate an increase in glycosaminoglycans

74
Q

Incidence of PPH in the UK

A

13.8% (HSCIC data)

75
Q

AEDs: strong/moderate inducers and those with no effect

A

Strong inducers:
Carbamazepine, Eslicarbazepine, Oxcarbazepine,
Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Primidone

Moderate:
Rufinamide
Topiramate

No effect:
BDZ, ethosuximide, gabapentin, lamotrigine, levetiracetam, pregabalin, sodium valproate

76
Q

COCP and lamotrigine

A

May reduce levels of lamotrigine and increase risk of seizures

POP is safe. Oestrogen component is what reduces lamotrigine levels

77
Q

Incidence of hyperthyroidism in molar pregnancy? Cause?

A

3%
Cause = excessive hCG

78
Q

How often does brachial plexus injury occur in shoulder dystocia?

A

2.3-16%

> 90% cases, no permanent neurological disability

Shoulder dystocia is most common cause of era’s palsy

79
Q

Regimes for management of chlamydia in pregnancy

A

Erythromycin 500mg QDS for 7 days or BD for 14 days

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days

Azithromycin 1g stat

80
Q

Contact tracing for chlamydia infection

A

Sexual partners in last 4 weeks for symptomatic males

Sexual partners in last 6 months for asymptomatic men and all females (or last partner if >6 months)

81
Q

Most common cause of abnormal PV discharge in women of childbearing age

A

BV

82
Q

How much do prophylactic oxytocics used for active 3rd stage reduce risk of PPH

A

60%

83
Q

Stages of endometriosis

A

1: superficial lesions & filmy adhesions

2: deep lesions at cul de sac

3: as above & ovarian endometriomas

4: as above & extensive adhesions

84
Q

Mortality rate of severe sepsis/ septic shock

A

Severe sepsis with acute organ dysfunction: 20-40%

Septic shock (persistence of hypo perfusion despite adequate fluid replacement): 60%

85
Q

Presentation of ureteral injury

What % of ureteral injuries are discovered post-operatively?

A

Flank pain
Haematuria
Ileus
Fever
Urine discharge vaginally or via wound
HTN
Elevated serum creatinine levels

70% of unilateral ureteral injuries are discovered post-operatively

86
Q

Types of metastatic spread and cancers that typically spread in that fashion

A

Lymphatic:
- carcinoma

Haematogenous:
- sarcoma
- RCC
- choriocarcinoma

Transcoelomic:
- ovarian

Implantation/ transplantation:
- movement of malignant cells during biopsy/ surgery/ procedure

87
Q

Risk of VTE for: general population, factor V Leiden heterozygotes & homozygotes

A

General population: 1 in 1000

Heterozygotes: 4-8 in 1000

Homozygotes: 80 in 1000

88
Q

Tocolytic drugs can prolong pregnancy for how long?

A

Up to 7 days

89
Q

Anti-microbials for puerperal sepsis

A

Tazocin or a carbapenem plus clindamycin

90
Q

Most common cause of puerperal sepsis

A

Endometritis

91
Q

Prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)
- What percentage will go into labour within 24h
- When is induction appropriate

A

60%

Induction appropriate >34 weeks and >24h post rupture and labour hasn’t started yet

If <34 weeks, only start induction if other obstetric indications e.g. infection

92
Q

Infectious diseases routinely screened for antenatally?

A

HIV
Hep B
Syphilis

93
Q

Which COCP is licensed for use for hirsutism

A

Dianette (Co-cyprindiol)

Should be stopped 3-4 months after resolution of hirsutism

NICE advised consider switching to Yasmin (unlicensed) if relapse occurs when DIanette is stopped

Note patients should be counselled about increased VTE risk with Dianette and Yasmin compared to other COCPs

94
Q

What is the infertility rate in endometriosis

A

40%

95
Q

Risks for diagnostic hysteroscopy

A

Serious complication 0.2%
Uterine perforation 0.13% (0.76% for therapeutic hysteroscopy)
Death (under GA) 3-8 per 100,000

96
Q

LFT monitoring in OC

A

Monitor every 1-2 weeks during pregnancy and at least 10 days post natally

97
Q

Risks at CS

A

Persistent wound and abdominal discomfort in the first few months after surgery, 9 per 100 (common)

Increased risk of repeat caesarean section when vaginal delivery attempted in subsequent pregnancies, 1 in 4 (very common)

Readmission to hospital, 5 per 100 (common)

Haemorrhage, 5 per 1000 (uncommon)

Infection, 6 per 100 (common).

Emergency hysterectomy, 7-8 per 1000 (uncommon)

Need for further surgery at a later date, 5 per 1000 (uncommon)

ITU admission, 9 per 1000 (uncommon)

Thromboembolic disease, 4 to 16 women in every 10,000 (rare)

Bladder injury, 1 per 1000 (rare)

Ureteric injury, 3 per 10 000 (rare)

Death 1 per 12 000 (very rare)

Risk fetal laceration 2%

98
Q

Interpretation of FBS

A

> 7.25 = Normal
Repeat in 1h if CTG remains abnormal

7.21-7.24 = borderline
Repeat in 30 mins

<7.2 = Abnormal
Consider delivery

99
Q

Indications/ Contraindications for FBS

A

Indications:
- Pathological CTG in labour
- Suspected acidosis in labour

Contraindications
- Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV, hepatitis
- Known fetal coagulopathy
- Prematurity (<34 weeks)
- Acute fetal compromise

100
Q

Significant proteinuria

A

Urinary protein:creatinine ratio >30mg/mmol
OR
24h urine collection >300mg protein

101
Q

NICE fertility testing

A

2 tests for all women who haven’t conceived:
- Chlamydia screen
- Mid luteal phase progesterone (take 7 days before the expected period)

FH and LH are advised in patients with irregular periods, an ovulation or oligo-ovulation

Prolactin testing is advised for those with an ovulatory disorder, galactorrhea or a pituitary tumour

TFTs are advised if they have S&S of thyroid disease

102
Q

USS appearance of the following benign ovarian cysts:
- Functional cysts
- Endometriomas
- Serous cystadenoma
- Mucinous cystadenoma
- Mature teratoma

A
  • Functional cysts: simple cyst, thin walled and unilocular. Must be >3cm diameter (if <3cm = follicle), anechoic, no colour flow or solid components.
  • Endometriomas: avascular unilocular cyst containing low-level, homogenous ‘ground glass’ like internal echoes
  • Serous cystadenoma: usually unilocular cystic/ anechoic adnexal lesion, papillary projections are absent, no flow on colour doppler
  • Mucinous cystadenoma: tend to be larger than serous cystadenomas, bilaterally is rare (2-5%). Multilocular with numerous thin separations. Loculations may contain low level internal echogenicity due to increased mucin content (different locules may contain various degrees of echogenicity)
  • Mature teratoma (account for 10-20% of all ovarian neoplasms, tend to be in young women): Diffusely or partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous maternal and hair within the cavity, echogenic, shadowing calcific or dental components, free fluid levels, dot-dash pattern, no internal vascularity. Mixed echoes
103
Q

Normal arterial pH range for cord blood

A

7.26-7.30

Threshold for adverse neurological outcomes is 7.1

104
Q

Normal progesterone conducive with ovulation

A

16-28 mol/L

105
Q

Normal ranges for semen analysis

A

Volume: >=1.5ml

pH >=7.2

Concentration >=15 million/ ml

Total sperm number: >= 39 million per ejaculate

Total motility: 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility

Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa

Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): >4%

Other points from NICE:
- Do not screen for anti-sperm antibodies
- If sperm count abnormal, repeat in 3 months (or sooner if azoospermia or severe oliogozoospermia (<5million sperm/ml)

106
Q

Management of simple cysts

A

50-70mm, yearly USS follow up.

Larger = consider further imaging (MRI) or surgical intervention

A serum ca 125 doesn’t need to be taken in all premenopausal women when an USS diagnosis of simple ovarian cyst has been made

107
Q

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy rash- management and associations

A

Benign, managed with emollients +/- topical steroids/ antihistamines. Severe cases may require oral steroids

Associated with multiple gestation pregnancies, excessive maternal weight, Rh neg blood type

108
Q

Most common cause of PPH

A

Uterine atony

109
Q

Risk factors for PET (moderate/ high)

A

Moderate:
- 1st pregnancy
- Age >=40
- Pregnancy interval >10 years
- BMI >= 35
- FHx PET
- Multiple pregnancy

High
- Hypertensive disease during previous pregnancy
- CKD
- AI disease like SLE/ APLS
- T1 or T2DM
- Chronic HTN

If two or more moderate risk factors or one high risk factor

Aspirin from 12 weeks until birth

110
Q

What is the most reliable way of assessing risk of convulsion in PET

A

Clonus

111
Q

What percentage of eclampsia occurs post-natal?

A

44%

112
Q

Treatment for magnesium toxicity

A

10ml 10% calcium gluconate IV

113
Q

Signs of magnesium toxicity

A

Moderte: loss of tendon reflexes (4h checks), resp depression

Severe: Hypotension, arrhythmia, coma, drowsiness, confusion, renal failure.

114
Q

Naegele’s rule

A

LMP + 9 m and 7 days if regular 28 day cycle.

Add extra days for every day over 28d cycle.