Clinical Final Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of shunt has cyanosis?
right to left
left to right

A

right to left

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2
Q

patient has renal function without ability to concentrate urine

A

pyelonephritis

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3
Q

decreased # of nephrons

A

chronic renal insufficiency

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4
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction in which the glomeruli become inflamed. Results in total or partial blockage of large number of glomeruli and those that are not blocked develop increased permeability of the glomerular membrane, allowing large amounts of protein and red blood cells to leak into GF.

A

acute glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

Hypoproteinemia - Peeing out lots of plasma proteins due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane causing a fall in colloid osmotic pressure and serious edema

A

nephrotic syndrome

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6
Q

retention of bilirubin in the liver causes

A

jaundice

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7
Q

barrett esophagus

A

metaplasia

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8
Q

congenital pyloric stenosis affects who

A

male newborns

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9
Q

inflammatory disease w presence of focal necrosis and petechial hemorrhages of mucosa due to aspirin, toxins, alcohol, stress, CNS trauma or hyper-secretion of gastric acid.

A

acute gastritis

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10
Q

Occurring in duodenum or stomach.
results from acid-pepsin digestion of mucosa as solitary lesions. men who smoke and drink

A

chronic peptic ulcer

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11
Q

common intestinal vascular disease due to chronic constipation, portal hypertension and pregnancy.

A

hemorrhoids

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12
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of unknown etiology causing extensive ulcerations of the mucosal surface of the colon.

Begins as mucosal hemorrhages, abscesses and ulcerations in the rectum that spreads proximally and extends to muscular layer.
Sx: manifested in adulthood as abdominal pain, cramps and bloody diarrhea.

A

ulcerative colitis

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13
Q

liver decreases in size with fine nodularity (micronodules).

A

laenecc’s alcoholic cirrhosis

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14
Q

liver is small with large, irregular regenerative macronodules interspersed among scars of varied size and prominent bile stasis.

A

postnecrotic cirrhosis

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15
Q

tetralogy of fallot has which 4 symptoms?:
pulmonary artery stenosis
atrial septal defect
ventricular septal defect
dextroposition of aorta
dextroposition of the pulmonary artery
left ventricular hypertrophy
right ventricular hypertrophy

A
  • pulmonary artery stenosis
  • ventricular septal defect
  • dextroposition of aorta
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
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16
Q

which is (are) an example of a left to right shunt?

ductus arteriosus persistant
atrial septal defect
transposition of the great vessels
ventricular septal defect

A

atrial septal defect
ventricular septal defect

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17
Q

left to right shunts divert blood away from the ___ circulation and send it to the ______circulation

A

systemic
pulmonary

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18
Q

right to left shunts divert blood away from the __ circulation and send it to the ___ circulation

A

pulmonary
systemic

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19
Q

which shunt results in reduced O2 saturation of arterial blood?

A

right to left

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20
Q

which shunt results in hypertrophy of pulmonary arteriole walls and increased pulmonary resistance leading to right ventricular hypertrophy and shunt “reversal”?

A

left to right

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21
Q

tga and vsd combined with pulmonary stenosis leads to:
more frequent chest infections and development of lung hypertension

prevent chest infections and development of lung hypertension

A

more frequent chest infections and development of lung hypertension

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22
Q

which is (are) an example of right to left shunt?

coarctation of the aorta
ventricular septal defect
tetralogy of fallot
transposition of the great vessels

A

tetralogy of fallot
transposition of the great vessels

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23
Q

the severity of tetralogy of fallot is related to:
the amount of pulmonary artery stenosis
the amount of ateriole resistance
the amount of cyanosis

A

the amount of pulmonary artery stenosis

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24
Q

what is the deadly quartet?
high hdl hypertension obesity smoking
high hdl low ldl diabetes smoking
high ldl low hdl obesity smoking
high hdl hypertension diabetes smoking

A

high hdl
hypertension
diabetes
smoking

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25
in transposition of the great vessels the ___ arises from the \_\_\_ventricle and the ____ arises from the _____ ventricle
aorta from the right ventricle pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
26
the most important complication of an anyeursem is? rupture followed by severe haemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity rupture followed by severe haemorrhage into the cardiac pleurae
rupture followed by severe haemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity
27
risk factor for atherosclerosis high hdl low ldl low hdl high ldl
low hdl high ldl
28
what are fatty streaks? where do they occur? in what population?
lesions which begin in children in all populations and show collections of foamy lipid-laden macrophages and smooth muscle cells just beneath the intimal surface of the arteries.
29
what is a fibrous cap? in what stage of athersclerosis does it occur? is it reversible?
2nd phase: is specific lesion that occurs later as the fibrolipid plaque, and at this point intimal changes are not reversible. In general the intimal surface shows a layer of fibrosis - "fibrous cap" which encloses a zone of fatty, necrotic, and partly calcified debris full of elongated smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts and macrophages
30
what is the third stage of athersclerosis? lesion in fibrolipid plaque foamy lipid-laden macrophages damage to the tunica intima formation of complicated plaque
formation of the complicated plaque, and it is the one that causes signs and symptoms of disease.
31
where is the aneurysm commonly caused by athersclerosis? in the aorta below the a. media, and often going down into the iliac arteries in the aorta below the a. renalis, and often going down into the iliac arteries
in the aorta below the a. renalis, and often going down into the iliac arteries.
32
Berry aneurysm may bleed to produce ? aterial wall degeneration subdural bleeding venous bleeding subarachnoid bleeding
subarachnoid bleeding
33
Tumors composed of masses of capillary-like channels filled with blood: hemangioma hemangiosarcoma
hemangioma
34
Congestive heart failure usually implies significant infarction of the ? right ventricle left ventricle pulmonary artery coronary artery
left ventricle
35
coronary vasoconstriction is superimposed on an increase in myocardial oxygen requirements ? variant angina stable angina unstable angina myocardial infarct
unstable angina
36
necrotic area is extended through the full thickness of the myocardium ? unstable angina stable angina subendocardial infarct myocardial infarct transmural infarct
transmural infarct
37
most common of all metabolic diseases in post-menopausal women Cushing's disease osteoporosis gastritis
osteoporosis
38
schemic necrosis of the heart muscle with partial-thickness that is not associated with regional thrombosis ? unstable angina stable angina subendocardial infarct myocardial infarct transmural infarct
subendocardial infarct
39
The oxygen supply to the myocardium decreases because of coronary artery vasospasm ? variant angina stable angina unstable angina myocardial infarct
variant angina
40
calcium channel blockers are the drug of choice for? stable angina unstable angina variant angina
variant angina
41
long standing heart failure is often associated with: ventricular hypertrophy hypertension hypotension tachycardia
ventricular hypertrophy
42
acute cor pulmonale is often seen with acute pulmonary embolism acute pulmonary artery hypertrophy acute pulmonary hypertension
acute pulmonary embolism
43
chronic cor pulmonale is often seen in: COPD associated with loss of pulmonary vascular cross section area and constriction of remaining vessels due to response to acidosis and hypoxia COPD associated with acute pulmonary hypertension and ventricular hypertrophy due to hypoxia
COPD associated with loss of pulmonary vascular cross section area and constriction of remaining vessels due to response to acidosis and hypoxia
44
stable angina occurs at rest after increased activity either
after increased activity
45
variant angina occurs at rest after increased activity either
either
46
unstable angina occurs at rest after increased activity either
either
47
beta blockers are the drug of choice for? stable angina unstable angina variant angina
stable angina
48
Calcific aortic stenosis, mitral valve prolapse, nonbacterial and bacterial endocarditis, systemic lupus erythematosus can result in which two ? stenosis embolus pump failure insufficiency mitral regurgitation
stenosis insufficiency
49
which type of pericarditis produces a loud pericardial friction rub with adhesions? purulent acute serous acute fibrinous acute hemorrhagic
fibrinous acute
50
preload reduction ? use of diuretics reduce renal absorption of sodium and water and increase the clearance of these substance from the body and result in reduction of central blood volume agents that cause arterial dilation diminish total peripheral resistance and cardiac output rises as the left ventricle can eject more
use of diuretics reduce renal absorption of sodium and water and increase the clearance of these substance from the body and result in reduction of central blood volume
51
Cardiac edema, pitting edema, ascites right sided heart failure left sided heart failure
right sided heart failure
52
heart infarction happens during rest vigorous activity
rest
53
an extensive infarction shows - choose two hypotension hypertension bradycardia tachycardia
hypotension tachycardia
54
most sudden cardiac deaths are due to: middle meningeal artery rupture acute arrhythmia
acute arrhythmia
55
inflammatory consolidation in a patchy distribution usually on lower lobe: Viral pneumonia Bronchopneumonia Pneumococcal pneumonia Lobar pneumonia
Bronchopneumonia
56
Characterized by normal total lung capacity but DECREASED EXPIRATORY FLOW RATE restrictive obstructive
obstructive
57
Reduced expansion of lung parenchyma accompanied by DECREASED TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY but expiratory flow rate is normal restrictive obstructive
restrictive
58
episodic, reversible bronchoconstriction resulting from increased responsiveness (chronic inflammation) of the tracheobronchial tree to various stimuli. Sx: dyspnea, cough & wheezing (whistling during expiration) which disease is this? bronchitis emphysema asthma
asthma
59
COPD characterized by abnormal, permanent increase in the size of air space distal to the terminal bronchiole (the septa and alveolar walls appear broken with the wall fragments floating in large distorted air space) which disease is this? bronchiectasis emphysema asthma
emphysema
60
permanent dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles due to destruction of the muscle and elastic supporting tissue, resulting from chronic necrotizing infections (non-obstructive; widespread), or mechanical obstruction of bronchi by tumors or foreign bodies (obstructive; localization distal to the obstruction which disease is this? bronchiectasis emphysema asthma
bronchiectasis
61
lung abscess has ? suppuration and coagulative necrosis suppuration and liquefactive necrosis liquefactive gangrene and suppuration liquefactive gangrene and consolidation
suppuration and liquefactive necrosis
62
when traction from a scarred or congenitally shortened esophagus pulls the cardia of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus sliding hernia rolling hernia
sliding hernia
63
Failure of the gastroesophageal sphincter to relax. diverticula atresia achalasia
achalasia
64
the most common to least common sites for the thrombosis in a transmural infarct are in order: left anterior descending, right coronary, and left circumflex artery left anterior descending, left circumflex artery, and right coronary right coronary, left anterior descending, and left circumflex artery
left anterior descending, right coronary, and left circumflex artery
65
Blind upper segment of the esophagus, which has a hypertrophied wall and lower segment, which is connected to the trachea with tracheo-esophageal fistula. diverticula atresia achalasia
atresia
66
portion of the gastric fundus protrudes through a defect in the esophageal hiatus hiatal hernia rolling hernia sliding hernia
rolling hernia
67
dysphagia, food regurgitation and aspiration pneumonia are symptoms of which disease? hiatal hernia reflux esophagitis chronic gastritis achalasia atresia
achalasia
68
"pigeon-breast"- the ribcage is pulled outward by the muscles attached to it, barreling out over the diaphragm, lumbar lordosis, bowed is a characteristic of which disease? paget's disease osteomalachia rickets kyphosis
rickets
69
the three phases of bone healing in correct order inflammatory reparative remodeling inflammatory remodeling reparative
inflammatory reparative remodeling
70
Sx: Sacrum and vertebral column localization w. asymmetric joint involvement , Inflammation of periarticular tendons, Carditis (heart inflammation), aortitis osteoarthritis gout arthritis rheumatoid arthritis ankylosing spondylitis
ankylosing spondylitis
71
benign, painful lesion in the diaphysis of long bones (femur, tibia) osteosarcoma enchondroma osteoid osteoma chondrosarcoma
osteoid osteoma
72
disordered bone remodeling (tile or puzzle like) resulting in a mosaic pattern in a bone.. It can be mono or polyostotic and can involve any bone (usually spine, skull, pelvis, proximal femur and tibia). The common symptoms are unexplained bone fractures (snapping) Osteogenesis imperfecta Osteitis fibrosa cystica Osteitis deformans
Osteitis deformans
73
Sx: Slowly progressive joint stiffness, Spur formation in distal IP joints, causing pain and ↓ mobility, Nodular swelling osteoarthritis gout arthritis rheumatoid arthritis ankylosing spondylitis
osteoarthritis
74
associated with advanced primary hyperparathyroidism Paget's disease Osteomyelitis von Ricklinghausen's disease
von Ricklinghausen's disease
75
osteitis fibrosa cystica "brown tumor." The basic lesion is osteoclastic resorption of bone with fibrous replacement and formation of cysts. Mandibula and maxilla are initially affected but entire skeletal system may develop lesions Paget's disease Osteomyelitis von Ricklinghausen's disease
von Ricklinghausen's disease
76
in the reparative stage of fracture healing: Process proceeds from the periphery toward the center of the fracture Process proceeds from the center of the fracture toward the periphery
Process proceeds from the periphery toward the center of the fracture
77
Occurs usually in children secondary to transient bacteriemia: hematogenous route (involving ends of the long bones: knee, ankle, hip or in adults vertebral bodies) or by direct bone penetration (wounds, fractures or surgery) Paget's disease Osteomyelitis von Ricklinghausen's disease
Osteomyelitis
78
pain and lung metastases are early features of ? neoblastoma osteoid osteoma osteosarcoma Ewing sarcoma
osteosarcoma
79
is rare but extremely malignant neoplasm (early metastases and poor prognosis) that occurs in older children. neoblastoma osteoid osteoma osteosarcoma Ewing sarcoma
Ewing sarcoma
80
malignant tumor of chondroblasts that occurs in pts over 35 y.o. (older than in osteosarcoma). Involves pelvic bones, ribs, and vertebrae osteosarcoma enchondroma osteoid osteoma chondrosarcoma
chondrosarcoma
81
Sx: fatigue, low-grade fever, and progressively deforming arthritis affecting multiple, bilateral, symmetric, small joints of the feet and hands. (claw-like appearance w. ulnar deviation) joint induration, morning stiffness, w. permanent, disabling ankylosis (abnormal stiffening and immobility of a joint, due to bone fusion) osteoarthritis gout arthritis rheumatoid arthritis ankylosing spondylitis
rheumatoid arthritis
82
Sx: recurrent attacks of acute arthritis due to precipitation of uric acid crystals deposits (Tophus is chalky masses of the crystal deposits) creating inflammatory response. osteoarthritis gout arthritis rheumatoid arthritis ankylosing spondylitis
gout arthritis
83
benign neoplasm occurring in small bones of the hands and feet in young adults. May cause pain, swelling, or pathological fx. osteosarcoma enchondroma osteoid osteoma chondrosarcoma
enchondroma
84
most common primary bone tumor in young people osteosarcoma enchondroma osteoid osteoma chondrosarcoma
osteosarcoma
85
which 2 of these diseases is X-linked recessive? which 2 of these diseases is autosomal dominant? Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy Becker Muscular Dystrophy Myotonic Dystrophy Limb Girdle Muscular Dystrophy Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy
x-linked: Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy Becker Muscular Dystrophy autosomal: Myotonic Dystrophy Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy
86
autosomal recessive disease? Myotonic Dystrophy Limb Girdle Muscular Dystrophy Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy
Limb Girdle Dystrophy
87
an acquired autoimmune remitting disease in which weakness and extreme muscular fatigue are main characteristics. In this disease antibodies attack the acetylcholine receptor of the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction. Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy Becker Muscular Dystrophy Myotonic Dystrophy Myastenia Gravis
Myastenia Gravis
88
Myoglobin will appear in the urine, and creatinin kinase (enzyme) will rise in blood serum. myasthenia gravis rhabdomyolysis
rhabdomyolysis
89
hearing loss due to fractures of middle ear ossicles Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica Osteogenesis Imperfecta Osteomalacia
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
90
autosomal recessive disease. Weakness in the hips or shoulders leads to progressive disability Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy
91
acquired autoimmune remitting disease in which weakness and extreme muscle fatigue are main characteristics. caused by circulating antibodies that block nicotinic ACh receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction. Receptors then degrade rapidly. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy Paget's Disease Rheumatoid Arthritis Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia Gravis
92
Middle meningeal artery is severed Subdural Hematoma Subarachnoid Hematoma Epidural Hematoma
Epidural Hematoma
93
Compressing the brain parenchyma rather than destroying it hemorrhage infarction
hemorrhage
94
The result of an inertial brain injury. When the skull is struck, it stops moving but the brain continues moving causing vein injury Subdural Hematoma Subarachnoid Hematoma Epidural Hematoma
Subdural Hematoma
95
loss of blood supply with ensuing necrosis hemorrhage infarction
infarction
96
blockage is in the brain noncommunicating hydrocephalus communicating hydrocephalus
noncommunicating hydrocephalus
97
blockage is in subarachnoid space communicating hydrocephalus subarachnoid hemmorhage
communicating hydrocephalus
98
Acute inflammatory reaction with neutrophil infiltrations and liquefactive necrosis associated with extensive cerebral edema. leptomeningitis cerebral abscess
cerebral abscess
99
autoimmune reaction (after viral infection) against oligodendroglia with numerous patches of demyelination throughout white matter "plaque" multiple sclerosis alzheimer's disease guillain-barre disease charcot-marie-tooth
MS
100
meninges are thickened, the gyri become atrophic with dilation of ventricles due to cortical atrophy guillain-barre disease parkinson's disease multiple sclerosis alzheimer's disease
alzheimer's disease
101
loss of neurons in the substantia nigra, loci cerulei and dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus myasthenia gravis parkinson's disease multiple sclerosis alzheimer's disease
PD
102
Sx: tremors and bradykinesia which progresses to rigidity and postural changes, slowness of voluntary movements, poor balance, shuffling gate, mask-like face & dementia myasthenia gravis parkinson's disease multiple sclerosis alzheimer's disease
PD
103
autoimmune disorder with progressive ascending motor paralysis, which may affect spinal and cranial nerves. preceded by viral infection characterized by segmental demyelination multiple sclerosis alzheimer's disease guillain-barre disease charcot-marie-tooth
guillain-barre disease
104
degeneration of upper motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain stem. Damage to the corticospinal tracts and degeneration of anterior horn cells results in denervation atrophy of muscles myasthenia gravis Huntington's disease Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis viral meningitis
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
105
hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy characterized by progressive loss of muscle tissue and touch sensation across various parts of the body multiple sclerosis alzheimer's disease guillain-barre disease charcot-marie-tooth
charcot-marie tooth
106
Atrophy of the caudate and putamen nucleus with corresponding ventricular enlargement myasthenia gravis Huntington's disease Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis viral meningits
Huntington's disease
107
Protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm hiatal hernia rolling hernia sliding hernia
hiatal hernia
108
reflux esophagitis and heartburn atresia hiatal hernia
hiatal hernia
109
healing of inflammatory process external to the esophagus with fibrosis creating distortion? atresia hiatal hernia achalasia diverticula
diverticula
110
Superficial epithelial necrosis, peptic ulcerations, and submucosal inflammation are present to varying degrees in the distal third of the esophagus leading to fibrosis and strictures or replacement of squamous by columnar epithelium- Barrett esophagus atresia gastritis reflux esophagitis diverticula
reflux esophagitis
111
ulcer with bleeding that does not progress to chronic acute peptic ulcer erosive gastritis hypersecretory type B gastritis
acute peptic ulcer (stress ulcer) - what Milo is giving us
112
Intestinal inflammatory disease probably initiated by obstruction of mucus drainage hemorrhoids ulcerative collitis acute appendicitis
acute appendicitis
113
Divert blood containing reduced hemoglobin away from the pulmonary circuit into the systemic circulation, reducing O2 saturation of the arterial blood that results in cyanosis right to left shunt left to right shunt
right to left shunt
114
This defect is associated with an atrial or ventricular septal defect (VSD) or patent ductus arteriosus, which will keep the child alive for a few days and can be repaired. ductus arteriosus patent transposition of the great vessels coarctation of the aorta
transposition of the great vessels
115
Upper extremities exhibit increased blood pressure (and left ventricular hypertrophy), but lower extremities show decreased blood pressure, diminished peripheral pulses, pallor and coldness predisposing to intermittent claudication in calf muscles transposition of the great vessels coarctation of the aorta atrial septal defect atherosclerosis
coarctation of the aorta
116
Divert blood from the systemic into the pulmonary circulation depriving tissues of O2 right to left shunt left to right shunt
left to right shunt
117
dissecting aneurysm type A involves ascending aorta descending aorta
ascending aorta
118
usually associated with pulmonary congestion and respiratory symptoms like dyspnea and orthopnea progressing to pulmonary edema left sided heart failure right sided heart failure cor pulmonale
left sided heart failure
119
the oxygen supply to the myocardium decreases because of coronary artery vasospasm stable angina unstable angina variant angina
variant angina
120
chronic passive congestion of the liver, spleen and gut and is associated with peripheral edema and ascites ? left sided heart failure right sided heart failure cor pulmonale
right sided heart failure
121
coronary vasoconstriction is superimposed on an increase in myocardial oxygen requirements stable angina unstable angina variant angina
unstable angina
122
myocardial oxygen demand greatly exceeds oxygen supply, with attacks usually precipitated by a certain level of **physical activity** stable angina unstable angina variant angina
stable angina
123
RNA virus liver infection usually spread through contaminated blood Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C
124
right ventricular enlargement and associated heart failure developed secondary to pulmonary disease that is associated with pulmonary hypertension left sided heart failure right sided heart failure cor pulmonale
cor pulmonale
125
Buffalo hump, menstrual disorders, osteoporosis, truncal obesity hypoadrenalism hyperadrenalism hypothyroid hyperthyroid
hyperadrenalism
126
myxedema, apathy, dilated heart, mental retardation in infants, impaired growth hypoadrenalism hyperadrenalism hypothyroid hyperthyroid
hypothyroid
127
hyperkinesia, increased appetite with **decreased weight**, heat intolerance, muscle weakness with tremors, warm moist skin, sweating hypoadrenalism hyperadrenalism hypothyroid hyperthyroid
hyperthyroid
128
fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, nausea, vomiting hypoadrenalism hyperadrenalism hypothyroid hyperthyroid
hypoadrenalism
129
alteration in **posterior pituitary function** affects the secretion of _____ which leads to \_\_\_\_\_\_ ACH, diabetes insipidus ADH, diabetes insipidus ACH, dwarfism ADH, dwarfism
ADH, diabetes
130
loss of large quantities of plasma proteins into the urine due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane acute glomerulonephritis chronic renal insufficiency nephrotic syndrom
nephrotic syndrome
131
RNA virus liver infection acquired from fecal contaminated food/water Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C
Hepatitis A
132
DNA virus liver infection Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
133
a complication of cirrhosis hemorrhoids gallstones gastritis portal hypertension
portal hypertension
134
protein deprivation greater than calorie reduction marasmus kwashiorkor canandria
kwashiorkor
135
antigen-antibody reaction where the glomeruli become inflamed causing partial or total blockage acute glomerulonephritis renal ischemia chronic renal insufficiency pyelonephritis
acute glomerulonephritis
136
infectious and inflammatory process that usually begins in the renal pelvis and extends progressively into renal parenchyma. patients have reasonably normal renal function with inability to concentrate urine. acute glomerulonephritis renal ischemia chronic renal insufficiency pyelonephritis
pyelonephritis
137
BENIGN but PAINFUL (exacerbated by alcohol & relieved by aspirin) occurring in the diaphyses of long bones in patients under 30 Osteoid osteoma Osteosarcoma Enchondroma Chondrosarcoma
Osteoid osteoma
138
Malignant tumor of forming cells that occur in an older group than osteosarcoma (after age 35) It involves pelvic bones, ribs and vertebrae and prognosis is better than for osteosarcoma? Enchondroma Chondrosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
139
occurs in patients over age 20 at the ends of the long bones (present with pain in local joints)? giant cell tumor ewing sarcoma ankylosing spondylitis
giant cell tumor
140
adult form in which the presenting complaint is usually muscular weakness (facial muscles) and atrophy plus MYOTONIA becker muscular dystrophy duchenne's muscular dystrophy myotonic dystrophy
myotonic dystrophy
141
Muscular weakness is progressive (usually not apparent until age 3: Gower's sign - using UE to get up) and most patients can no longer walk by age 10. becker muscular dystrophy duchenne's muscular dystrophy myotonic dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
142
what is the cause of epidural hemotoma? CAUSE: Usually severing of middle meningeal artery due to blow to side of head (fracturing temporal bone) CAUSE: inertial brain injury (frontal or occipital portion of the head is struck usually without skull fracture, but when the skull stops the brain continues moving causing veins injury). CAUSE: trauma and rupture of a preexisting arterial ANEURYSM
middle meningeal artery
143
what is the cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage? CAUSE: Usually severing of middle meningeal artery due to blow to side of head (fracturing temporal bone) CAUSE: inertial brain injury (frontal or occipital portion of the head is struck usually without skull fracture, but when the skull stops the brain continues moving causing veins injury). CAUSE: trauma and rupture of a preexisting arterial ANEURYSM
rupture preexisting arterial aneurysm
144
saccular aneurysm arises from at bifurcation of vessels in ? middle meningeal artery middle cerebral artery a. renalis
middle cerebral artery
145
an infarction is loss of blood supply and ensuing necrosis due to - **pick two** vascular thrombosis aneurysm rupture of artery embolism arterial insufficiency
vascular thrombosis embolism
146
leptomeningitis in adults is caused by e. coli n. meningitidis h. influenza strep. pneumoniae
strep. pneumoniae
147
leptomeningitis in children is caused by e. coli n. meningitidis h. influenza strep. pneumoniae
h. influenza
148
"dying back" involve toxic & metabolic neuropathies with proximal axon intact & regeneration if cause is removed segmental demyelination wallerian degeneration myastenia gravis distal axonopathy
distal axonopathy
149
refers to degenerative changes in distal segment of a transected nerve & atrophy of Schwann cells replaced by fibrotic tissue. segmental demyelination wallerian degeneration myastenia gravis distal axonopathy
wallerian degeneration
150
the pathologic lesions are peribronchiolar and within the alveolar walls which are widened by edema. The alveolar spaces are generally FREE OF SIGNIFICANT EXUDATION. viral pneumonia bacterial pneumonia
viral
151
the 4 stages of pneumococcal pneumonia are ? red hepatization grey hepatization suppuration brown hepatization congestion serrous exudate resolution
congestion red grey resolution
152
name 4 obstructive lung diseases
asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis
153
leading cause of death in children under one y.o ? kwashiorkor congenital heart disease pneumonia meningitis
congenital heart disease
154
myasthenia gravis is due to type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type II
155
multiple sclerosis is due to type 1 hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type IV
156
anaphylactic shock is due to type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type I
157
Antigen-antibody (IgM, IgG, IgA) complexes formed and deposited in different tissues. Complexes activate enzymes responsible for tissue damage. type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type III
158
Cell-mediated immune response (no antibodies involvement) with sensitized lymphocytes as the ultimate cause of the tissue injury type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type IV
159
IgG or IgM antibody identifies antigen on cell and participates in direct cytotoxicity. type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Type II Hypersensitivity
160
Antigen binds to antibody IgE on mast cell or basophil. type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type I
161
Destruction via: - direct lysis: membrane attack complex (C5-9) - opsonization: enhancing phagocytosis (C3b) type I hypersensitivity reaction type II hypersensitivity reaction type III hypersensitivity reaction type IV hypersensitivity reaction
type II
162
inflammatory response correct order: vasodilation then vasoconstriction vasoconstriction then vasodilation
vasoconstriction then vasodilation
163
1. Excessive damage of cell membrane 2. Vacuolization (formation of vacuoles) of mitochondria 3. Swelling of lisosomes 4. calcium influx into cell 5. Release of oxygen free radicals reversible cell injury irreversible cell injury acute cell injury
irreversible cell injury
164
1. cell swelling 2. mitochondrial swelling 3. plasma membrane alterations 4. dilation of ER 5. nuclear alterations reversible cell injury irreversible cell injury acute cell injury
acute cell injury
165
which is more deadly, bacterial or viral meningitis?
bacterial