Clinical Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Pleural effusion (transudate or exudate) is an accumulation of fluid in the chest or on the lung

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2
Q

What is pulmonary oedema?

A

- Pulmonary oedema is a condition wherein fluid accumulates in the lungs

  • It is often a consequence of congestive heart failure
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3
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease in which mineralised bone is decreased in mass to the point that it no longer provides adequate mechanical support

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4
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta is a group of genetic disorders that mainly affect the bones.
  • It results in bones that break easily and is due to abnormal Type I collagen
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5
Q

What is Perthes’ disease?

A

- Perthes’ disease is a rare childhood condition that affects the hip occurring when the blood supply to the head of the femur is temporarily disrupted

  • Without adequate blood supply, bone cells die (avascular necrosis)
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6
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Orthopnea is shortness of breath (dyspnea) that occurs when lying flat, causing the person to have to sleep propped up in bed or sitting in a chair

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7
Q

What is haemothorax?

A

A hemothorax is a type of pleural effusion in which blood accumulates in the pleural cavity

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8
Q

What is scurvy?

A
  • Scurvy is a disease resulting from a lack of vitamin C
  • Early symptoms include weakness, feeling tired, and sore arms and legs
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9
Q

What is muscle hypertrophy?

A

Muscle hypertrophy involves an increase in size of skeletal muscle through a growth in size of its component cells

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10
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

Pneumothorax is an abnormal collection of air in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall

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11
Q

What is emphysema?

A
  • Emphysema is where air becomes trapped in the alveoli during exhalation due to the destruction of alveolar walls and permanent enlargement of air spaces
  • Results from smoking or alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
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12
Q

What is lymphoedema?

A

Lymphoedema is swelling (especially in subcutaneous tissues) as a result of obstruction of lymphatic vessels or lymph nodes and the accumulation of large amounts of lymph in the affected region

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13
Q

What is pyrexia?

A

Pyrexia is elevated body temperature

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14
Q

What is pneumonia?

A
  • Pneumonia is the inflammation of the lung caused by bacteria wherein the lung consolidates as the alveoli fill with inflammatory cells
  • Most common causative bacterium is Streptococcus pneumoniae
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15
Q

What is oedema?

A

Oedema is an accumulation of an excessive amount of watery fluid in cells, tissues or serous cavities

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16
Q

What is Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) refers to attacks of severe shortness of breath and coughing that generally occur at night

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17
Q

What is muscle atrophy?

A

Muscle atrophy is a decrease in the mass of the muscle; by a reduction in the number of cells and/or size of cells

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18
Q

What is psoriasis?

A
  • Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterised by patches of abnormal skin
  • These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly and may vary in severity from small and localized to complete body coverage
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19
Q

What is empyema?

A

Pleural empyema is a collection of pus in the pleural cavity caused by microorganisms, usually bacteria

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20
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Cystic fibrosis is a condition resulting from the absence of the CFTR molecule in the apical membrane of the epithelial cells lining the duct of the sweat gland, resulting in poor reabsorption of chloride ions

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21
Q

What is Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Marfan’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder in which expression of the fibrillin gene is abnormal such that elastic tissue is abnormal

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22
Q

What is COPD?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is an umbrella term used to describe progressive lung diseases including emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma

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23
Q

What is goitre?

A
  • Goitre is an enlargement of the thyroid gland which presents as swollen neck
  • It occurs when the thyroid gland does not function properly
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24
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  • RA is a long-lasting autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the joints
  • It results in warm, swollen, painful joints as well as pain and stiffness which often worsen following rest
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25
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A
  • Achondroplasia is a bone growth disorder that causes disproportionate dwarfism
  • It occurs as a sporadic mutation most commonly, but can be inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder
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26
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune

Antibodies block acetylcholine

reduced synaptic transmission

muscle weakness

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27
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Trauma- to one compartment-internal bleeding

Pressure exerted on blood vessels and nerves

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28
Q

What are the symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A
  • Deep, constant pain
  • Paresthesia
  • Tense and firm
  • Swollen, shiny skin
  • Obvious bruising
  • Prolonged capillary refill time
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29
Q

What’s duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive- mutation of dystrophin gene

-absence of dystrophin

Excess calcium ion in muscle- excess calcium ion uptake- mitochondria burst as water taken in

Creatine kinase and myoglobin levels in blood v high

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30
Q

What are the symptoms of duchene’s muscular dystrophy?

A
31
Q

How does the botulism toxin (botox) work?

A

Blocks neurotransmitter release at motor end plate

Flacid paralysis- risk of it entering CNS

32
Q

Why are organophosphates poisonous?

A

Inhibit normal function of acetylcholine esterase

Acetyl choline activity potentiated

33
Q

What is cholinergic toxidrome?

A

Increased acetylcholine activity at both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors.

34
Q

What are the symptoms cholinergic toxidrome?

A
35
Q

Where are the preganglionic nerve cell bodies found in the CNS?

Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

A
  • Sympathetic: T1-L2 cord segments
  • Parasympathetic: S2-S4 cord segments and brain stem
36
Q

Which sympathetic preganglionics supply the skin?

A

T1-L2 cord segments–> Either ascend/descend chain to supply upper or lower parts of body

37
Q

What is the major source of parasympathetic preganglionic input to thoracic and abdominal viscera?

A

Vagus nerve

38
Q

Describe 4 parasympathetic ganglia

A
  • Ciliary ganglion
    • Receives from oculomotor nerve
    • Distributes to postganglionics to eye
  • Pterygopalatine ganglion
    • Preganglionics from facial nerve
    • Postganglionics to lacrimal gland
  • Submandibular
    • Preganglionics from facial nerve
    • Post ganglionics to submandibular and sublingual salivary glands
  • Otic ganglion
    • Preganglionics from glosopharyngeal nerve
    • Post ganglinics to parotid glands
39
Q

What is fluroscopy?

A

Type of x-ray imaging- real time

Eg GI tract

Allows demonstration of dynamic processes

40
Q

In what plane is a tomogram (CT/CAT) acquired?

A

Cross-sectional

Axial plane

41
Q

What is PET?

A

Positron Emission Tomography

Shows metabolic activity

42
Q

Where is grey matter found in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Peripheral in brain

Central in spinal cord

43
Q

What is grey matter composed of?

A
  • Nerve cells
  • Dendrites
  • Axon terminals
  • Non-myelinated axons
  • Neuroglia
44
Q

Where is white matter found?

A
  • Central in brain
  • Peripheral in spinal cord
45
Q

What does white matter contain?

A

Myelinated material

46
Q

Which cell produces myelin in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocyte

47
Q

Which cell produces myelin in the PNS?

A

Schwann cell

48
Q

What is the most common type of neuron?

A

Multipolar neuron:

One axon

Multiple dendrites

(Most neurons in brain and spinal cord)

49
Q

Apart from multipolar neurons, what other types of neurons are there?

A
  • Bipolar: 1 axon, 1 dendrite
    • Olfactory, retina, inner ear
  • Unipolar: Single process
    • Lead away from soma- sensory from skin and organs to spinal cord
  • Axanomic neuron
    • No axon- only dendrites- visual processes- acts as relay- holds signal
50
Q

Name the 5 different types of synapse.

A
  1. Axosomatic
  2. Axodendritic
  3. Axoaxonic
  4. Dendro-dendritic
  5. Axo-axonal
51
Q

Describe the layers of the peripheral nerve.

A
  1. Paraneurium- fascia- separates nerves from surrounding structures
  2. Epineurium- Dense, irregular connective tissue- separates nerve types and fills spaces
  3. Perineurium- Specialised CT- surrounds axon clusters
  4. Endoneurium- loose CT- surrounds single nerve cell
52
Q

What are astrocytes and what is their function?

A

Cell’s with star-like structure

  • Control flow of nutrients in CNS
  • Release glutamate- regulate nerve impulses
  • Have perineural feet- contain gap junctions
    • Transport nutrients from blood to nerve cells
53
Q

What is a microglial cell and what is it’s function?

A

Large cell- elongated nucleus

=Resident macrophage

  • Immune function
  • Remove damaged nerve cells
54
Q

What is an Ependymal cell and what is it’s function?

A

Cell lining spinal canal

Derived from neural crest

  • Synthesise and secrete cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) to spinal cord
  • NOT epithelial cells- NO BASEMENT MEMBRANE
  • Also absorb CSF- present to astrocytes and macrophages for pathogen removal
55
Q

What is MS?

A

Multiple sclerosis

Autoimmune degradation of myelin

Causes loss of conduction velocity

56
Q

What are the symptoms of MS?

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Vision problems
  3. Slurred speech
  4. Muscle spams
  5. Mobility issues
  6. Numbness/tingling
57
Q

How many Kilojoules are there in a kilocalorie?

A

1kcal=4.2 Kilojoules

58
Q

What is Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

Fibrillin I gene- elastic tissue= abnormal

59
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

Mutated collagen fibres

Brittle bone disease

  • Weakened bones
  • Short
  • Blue sclera
  • Hearing loss
  • Poor teeth development
  • Don’t often live to adulthood
60
Q

What causes primary lactase deficiency?

A

Absence of lactase persistence allele

Only occurs in adults

61
Q

What causes secondary lactase deficiency?

A

Injury to small intestine

Occurs in both infants and adults

(reversible)

62
Q

What causes congenital lactase deficiency?

A

Autosomal recessive defect in lactase gene

Cannot digest breast milk

(extremely rare)

63
Q

What is hyperlactaemia?

A

Blood lactate 2-5mM

No change in blood pH due to buffering capcity

64
Q

What is lactic acidosis?

A

Lactate concentration > 5mM

Above renal threshold

Blood pH lowered

65
Q

What is galactosaemia?

A

Someone cannot use galactose obtained from diet

  • Lack of kinase : galactose builds up in tissues
  • Lack of transferase enzyme: galactose and galactose-1-P builds up in tissues (more common and more serious)
66
Q

What is essential fructosuria?

A

Fructokinase= missing

Fructose in urine

67
Q

What is fructose intolerance?

A

Aldolase missing

Fructose-1-P accumulates in liver- damaging

Treatment= remove fructose from diet

68
Q

The transit time of which cell the the epidermis is reduced in psoriasis?

A

Keratinocyte- transit time from basal layer to stratum corneum

69
Q

Give 4 possible causes of osteomalacia

A
  1. Kidney disease
  2. Insufficient sunlight exposure
  3. Surgery- reduced vit D absorption
  4. Drugs eg phenytoin
70
Q

What are the different types of osteoporosis?

A
  1. Primary
    1. Type 1: postmenopausal women- loss of oestrogen after menopause
    2. Type 2: Older men/women- loss of osteoblast function
  2. Secondary
    1. Drug therapy
      1. Eg anabolic steroid
    2. Malnutrition
    3. Metabolic bone disease eg hyperparathyroidism
71
Q

What are the 3 modifiable risk factors for Osteoporosis?

A
  • Insufficient calcium intake
  • Exercise
  • Cigarette smoking
72
Q

Why do patients with achondroplasia have a short stature but normal sixed head and torso?

A

Inherited FGF3 receptor gene: promotes collagen formation from collagen

Affects endochondral ossification not intramembranous ossification

73
Q

What is situs inversus?

A

Congential condition

Major organs= reversed/mirrored

Usually no associated morbidity