Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Chemistry > Clinical Chemistry: Maam Peewee Lecture Notes > Flashcards

Clinical Chemistry: Maam Peewee Lecture Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Base quantity and their based units

A

“LTM TALE”

Length = meter
Time = seconds
Mass = kilogram
Temperature = Kelvin
Amount of substance = mole
Luminosity = Candela
Electric Current = Ampere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All of the base quantities are expressed in based unit except for:

A

Mass —> kilogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Enzyme assay base unit
KATAL= _______
International Unit = _______

A

KATAL = mol / L / sec
International Unit = umol / min / L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Enumerate the prefixes and their corresponding factors:

A

exa = ^18
peta = ^15
tera = ^12
giga = ^9
mega = ^6
kilo = ^3
hecto = ^2
deka = ^1
deci = ^ -1
centi = ^ -2
milli = ^ - 3
micro = ^ -6
nano = ^ -9
pico = ^ -12
femto = ^ -15
atto = ^ -18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Factor for prefix femto

A

10^-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Factor for prefix mega

A

10^6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Factor for prefix milli

A

10^-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Analytes with 1 as their conversion factor

A

“Bi CLOPS”

Bicarbonate
Chloride
Osmolality
Potassium
Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Analytes with 10 as their conversion factor

A

“ HAT “

Hemoglobin
Albumin
Total Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Conversion factors of:
Glucose
Uric Acid
Ammonia
Magnesium

A

“GUAM”

Glucose = .0555
Uric Acid = .0595
Ammonia = .587
Magnesium = .5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Conversion factors of:
Thyroxine (T4)
Bilirubin
Folic Acid
Creatinine

A

“The Big Fat Cock”

Thyroxine (T4) = 12.9
Bilirubin = 17.1
Folic Acid = 2.27
Creatinine = 88.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Conversion factor of:
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
BUN

A

Triglycerides = .0113
Cholesterol = .026
BUN = .357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Conversion factors of:
AST
Creatinine Clearance
Cortisol
Vit. B12
Iron
Calcium
Phosphorus

A

“ACC to VIC P”

AST= .0167
Creatinine Clearance = .0167
Cortisol = .0276
Vit. B12 = .0738
Iron = .179
Calcium = .25
Phosphorus = .323

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Conversion factor of Albumin

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Conversion factor of bilirubin

A

17.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Conversion factor of BUN

A

0.357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Conversion factor of Chloride

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Conversion factor of Cholesterol

A

0.026

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Conversion factor of Creatinine

A

88.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Conversion factor of Creatinine Clearance

A

0.0167

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Conversion factor of Glucose

A

0.0555

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Conversion factor of lithium, potassium, sodium

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Conversion factor of Uric Acid

A

0.0595

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BUN representation of urea measures the _____ content

A

Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BUN to Urea conversion factor

A

2.14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Urea to BUN conversion factor

A

0.467

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Convert 5.5 g to mg

A

5,500 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Convert 555 mm to m

A

0.555

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Grade of a particular chemical is dependent on the ______ of chemical

A

Purity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Grade of Purity of Analytic Chemicals is established by _______.

A

American Chemical Society (ACS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Type of reagent suitable for most of analytical laboratory procedures, and second purest

A

Analytic Reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Put through additional purification steps —> extremely pure chemicals, and is the purest of the pure, and is for special procedures like HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography)

A

Ultrapure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Used for manufacture of drugs (medicine); sole criterion is should not be injurious to individuals; may be pure enough for used in medical (chemical) procedures; and is not based on the needs of the laboratory

A

United States Pharmacopeia (USP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Type of analytic chemical used in manufacturing; should never be used in clinical laboratories

A

Technical or Commercial Grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Grading system of analytic chemicals is established by ______.

A

International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Grading A in the grading system by IUPAC

A

Atomic Weight Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Grading B in the grading system by IUPAC

A

Ultimate Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Grading C in the grading system by IUPAC

A

Primary Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Grading D in the grading system by IUPAC

A

Working Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Grading E in the grading system by IUPAC

A

Secondary substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most highly purified chemical or reagent that can be measured directly in order to produce of exact purity; tolerance level is 100 +/- .02 %; 99.98 % pure, but not applicable to laboratory

A

Primary Standards Reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Used in the laboratory, NIST certified standard materials in place of primary standards; it is utilized by manufacturers in order to produce calibrators and standard materials utilized in the laboratory

A

Standard Reference Material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lower purity compared to primary standard

A

Secondary Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Grades of water
- Highest; utilized in procedures that require maximum water purity like standard solution preparation, ultramicrochemical analyses measurements at nanogram or subnanogram, and tissue and cell cultures

A

Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Used for most laboratory methods; for quantitative and qualitative determinations in CC,, HEMA, MICRO, IMMUNOSERO and other chemical laboratory areas

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Used for qualitative measurements only; most procedure in Urinalysis, PARA, and HISTO; and is used for washing glasswares

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Parts er hundred or amount f solute per 100 total units of solution

A

Percent Solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Most common expression of concentration as to percent solution

A

Weight per volume (w/v)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Molarity Formula

A

M = mol of solute / L of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Molality Formula

A

m = moles of solute / kg of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Normality Formula

A

N = gram equivalent weights / Liter of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pipets according to graduations or purpose

A
  • Transfer Pipets:
    - Volumetric
    - Ostwald-folin
    - Pasteur
    - Automatic Pipet
  • Measuring Pipets:
    - Mohr
    - Serological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pipets according to use or design

A
  • To contain
  • To delver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pipets according to drainage

A
  • Blow out
  • Self-draining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Designed to dispense volume only and has one graduation

A

Transfer Pipets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Transfer pipet that has a highest degree of accuracy and precision, and the value is near the midway of stem and is self-draining

A

Volumetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pipet used for high-viscosity and a type of blow out pipet

A

Ostwald-Folin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Automatic pipet that uses piston commonly used in laboratory

A

Air displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pipet used for carry over problems and requires rinsing and blotting in between samples / reagents

A

Positive displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Measuring pipet that has no graduations and is self-draining

A

Mohr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Measuring pipet that has a graduated tip and is a blow out pipet

A

Serological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pipet that HOLDS a particular volume but DOES NOT DISPENSE EXACT VOLUME and it requires rinsing

A

To contain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Pipet that DISPENSES the exact volume and DOES NOT require rinsing

A

To deliver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pipet that uses pipettol; last drop should be expelled; has 2 etched rings r 2 small continuous rings

A

Blow out pipet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pipet in which contents drain by gravity ; no etched rings or markings; no need to expel

A

Self draining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In cleaning of glasswares, what do we use or pre-soaking?

A

soapy water or dilute bleach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Serves as decontamination process in cleaning glaswares

A

Pre-soaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Used in Cleaning Glasswares

A

Acid Dichromate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Acid Dichromate contains

A

Potassium dichromate and Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) or nitric acid (HNO3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Acid Dichromate contains

A

Potassium dichromate and Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) or nitric acid (HNO3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In cleaning glasswares, what is used for final rinsing?

A

Type I or Type II water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Used for washing of glasswares

A

Type III water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is used for sterilization of glasswares?

A

Dry heat oven with temp >140 C or 160-180 C; for 1.5 to 2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Utilized to separate components or substances via differences in density

A

Centrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

RPM ((Revolution per minute) is referred to as

A

Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Calibration of centrifuge / Checking for speed of RPM

A

Tachometer or Strobe light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How often is the Disinfection for Centrifuge

A

Weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How often is the checking of timer of centrifuge and what is used to check the timer

A

Monthly; Stopwatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

RCF (relative centrifugal force) is determined by

A

Nomogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

This centrifuge is not in motion when vertical, in motion when horizontal;
capable of the speed of up to 3000 RPM;
recommended for serum separator tubes;
has high air friction and resistance which result to high heat generation

A

Horizontal Head or Swinging Bucket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Desk or bench type centrifuge;
less air friction and resistance —> less heat regenerated —> prevent lysis and disintegration of sediment;
angle of tubes: 25 - 50 degrees or 52 degrees
centrifugal force : outward force;
speed: 7000 rpm;
most commonly used in the laboratory —> faster to separate sample

A

Fixed Angle / Angle Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Reference method for lipoprotein analysis

A

Ultracentrifugation / Refrigerated Box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Reference method for protein synthesis

A

Electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Reference method for lipoprotein analysis;
highest speed —> very tight sediment;
tubes are held at a fixed angle;
refrigeration serves as an advantage: serves to decrease or counteract the heat, enhances separation of lipoproteins

A

Ultracentrifugation / Refrigerated Box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Ultracentrifugation tube (from top to bottom)

A

“C (si) V Laging Highblood”
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Lipoprotein referred to as the largest and the lightest

A

Chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Lipoprotein referred to as the smallest but the heaviest

A

HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

For the maintenance of centrifuge
Disinfection: _____ by using _____
Checking for unusual vibrations, braking mechanisms and TIMER: ____ by using _____
Calibration: ____ using ____

A

Disinfection: Weekly by using 10% bleach or lysol
Checking or unusual vibrations, braking mechanisms and timer: Monthly by using Stopwatch
Calibration: Quarterly using Tachometer or Strobe Light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Centrifuge breakage hazard

A

Aerosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Purpose of capping of tubes

A

Prevent aerosol and evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Goal of Quality Management

A

To provide high quality services at low cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A complete system of creating and following procedures and policies to aim for providing the most reliable patient lab results and to minimize errors in the pre-analytical , analytical, and post-analytical

A

Quality Assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Concept involving total/overall testing in the laboratory

A

Quality Assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

An aspect of quality assurance that is used o assess the analytical phase of patient testing; it is under quality assurance and focuses on analytical phase

A

Quality Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A step higher than quality assurance;
it goes beyond monitoring and detecting errors
seeks to achieve a new level of performance;
addresses chronic problems in the laboratory

A

Quality Improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

A concept or strategy used in Quality Improvement

A

Lean Six Sigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Phases of Lean Six Sigma

A

“DMAIC”
Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Involves describing the Quality Improvement issues —> to address chronic problems

A

Define

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Collecting data to measure he process;
Measure by determining the difference between the current process and the desired process

A

Measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Searches the root causes of inefficiencies in the process

A

Analyze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Piloting or implementing the process changes that seek to remove the identified root problems from analyze phase

A

Improve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Continues to measure the process and ensures that changes are maintained

A

Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the 3 most common team roles and the 1 not common team role

A

3 most common
- black belt
- green belt
- blue belt
1 not common
- purple belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Project coaches / leaders; they dedicate their 100% time

A

Black Belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Project team members; they dedicate 20% of their time

A

Green belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Project sponsors review the projects and encourage team members; mid-level and senior-level sponsors

A

Blue belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Heads smaller scale improvement projects; duration is 1 week

A

Purple belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Duration of full six sigma improvement project

A

6 to 8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

This is applied to detect laboratory errors

A

Lean Six Sigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Percentage of Pre-Analytical Errors

A

32 - 75 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Percentage of Analytical Testing Errors

A

4 - 32 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Percentage of Post-Analytical Errors

A

9 - 55 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Performance improvement program;
It’s goal is improvement by eliminating process variations (defects)

A

Six Sigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

It is anything that does not meet customer’s equirements;
aka process variations

A

Defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Strategy used in Six Sigma

A

DMAIC
-define
-measure
-analyze
-improve
-control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The unit used for Six Sigma

A

DPMO ( defects per ion opportunities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A system that reduces “waste” in the laboratory

A

Lean

118
Q

Includes non-valued activities in the lab

A

Waste

119
Q

2 strategies in Lean

A

5S & PDCA

120
Q

5S stands for:

A

“SoSeShStSu”
Sort
Set in order
Shine
Standardize
Sustain

121
Q

PDCA stands for:

A

Plan
Do
Check
Act

122
Q

Pre-Analytical Errors

A

Test order
Patient Identification
Specimen Collection

123
Q

Analytical Errors

A

Instrument Selection
Assay validation
Sample identification
Laboratory staff competence
Quality Control

124
Q

Also known as Intralab; daily/short term; inside laboratory

A

Internal QC

125
Q

Also known as Interlab ; monthly/long term ; outside or other laboratory

A

External QC

126
Q

Post-Analytical Errors

A

Results
Reports
Px and Physician satisfaction
TAT

127
Q

Used in measuring central tendency

A

Mean, median and mode

128
Q

It represents the true value

A

Central Tendency

129
Q

It refers to the closeness to the true value

A

Accuracy

130
Q

The average ; most commonly used

A

Mean

131
Q

The middle value; mid-point in a given et of data

A

Median

132
Q

The most frequently obtained value

A

Mode

133
Q

Measuring Dispersion of Values

A

Range
Standard Deviation
Variance
Coefficient of Variation

134
Q

How close your values to one another

A

Precision

135
Q

Simplest measure of dispersion

A

Range

136
Q

Considered to be the indicator of precision

A

Standard Deviation

137
Q

Merely a modification of Standard Deviation

A

Variance

138
Q

Relative indicator of precision; expressed in percentage

A

Coefficient of Variation

139
Q

Ideal CV is:

A

< 5 %

140
Q

Normal distribution in Gaussian Curve

A

Mean=Median=Mode

141
Q

The most commonly used interval is

A

+/- 2SD

142
Q

Percentage of +/- 1SD that fall inside

A

68.3 %

143
Q

Percentage of +/- 2SD that fall inside

A

95.5 %

144
Q

Percentage of +/- 3SD that fall inside

A

99..7 %

145
Q

Most commonly used significance —> p value:

A

5 % or 0.05

146
Q

If the p value is < 0.05 it is considered as

A

Statistical Significance / Statistically Significant

147
Q

If the p value is > 0.05 it is considered as

A

No statistical significance / Non-statistically significant

148
Q

A significant difference between two means, and helps evaluate accuracy

A

T-test

149
Q

A significant difference between two variance or standard deviations; helps evaluate precision

A

F-Test

150
Q

Closeness to the true value

A

Accuracy

151
Q

Closeness to a repeated value

A

Precision

152
Q

Maintain accuracy and precision over an extended period of time

A

Reliability

153
Q

Determining the ability of the method or machine to detect small quantities of the analyte

A

Analytical Sensitivity

154
Q

Ability of the machine to detect the only analyte designed to detect or measure

A

Analytical specificity

155
Q

Proportion of individuals with the disease

A

Diagnostic Sensitivity

156
Q

Proportion of individuals without the disease

A

Diagnostic Specificity

157
Q

Probability that a positive test indicates the presence of a disease

A

Positive Predictive Value

158
Q

Probability that a negative test indicates the absence of a disease

A

Negative Predictive Value

159
Q

It is also known as calibrator;
A reagent or material of known concentration;
Used for calibration of instruments

A

Standard

160
Q

Material of known value that is analyzed with patient samples;
It is treated like a patient sample —> it resembles patient sample;
Used to determine the acceptability of the results

A

Control

161
Q

Performed by laboratory personnel using controls of known values;
Control reference values & MSDS from manufactureres

A

Internal Quality Control

162
Q

Performed by laboratory personnel using specimens sent by another institution (NRL)

A

External Quality Control

163
Q

Individuals necessary to establish a reference interval

A

120 - 700 individuals

164
Q

Individuals necessary to verify a reference interval

A

20 individuals

165
Q

QC chart in which you are to plot different control values

A

Levy-Jennings Chart

166
Q

Determine plotted control value to detect or evaluate any violation

A

Westgard Multirule

167
Q

If there is an outlier ____

A

Reject the run —> recalibrate —> rerun

168
Q

X-axis

A

Abscissa or Horizontal axis
Independent variables (time, age, gender)

169
Q

Y-axis

A

Ordinate or Vertical axis
Dependent variables

170
Q

Sudden or abrupt change in the values;
Values distribute themselves on the same side of the mean;
Main cause: Improper Calibration of Instruments / Methodologies

A

Shift

171
Q

A gradual deviation of control values that either increase or decrease;
Values has either increasing or decreasing pattern;
Main cause: deterioration of reagent

A

Trend

172
Q

Random Errors

A

12S
13S
R4S

173
Q

Systematic Errors

A

22S
41S
10X

174
Q

One control observation that exceed +/- 2SD

A

12S

175
Q

One control exceeds 3SD

A

13S

176
Q

Two consecutive values differ by more than 4SD

A

R4S

177
Q

Two consecutive control observations fall more than 2SD on the same side of the mean

A

22S

178
Q

Four consecutive control observations fall more than 1 SD away from the mean in the same direction

A

41S

179
Q

Ten consecutive control observations are on the same side of the mean

A

10x

180
Q

Error with no trend and occurs unpredictably;
Does not recur;
No pattern and occurs by chance

A

Random Error

181
Q

Error seen as a trend that occurs predictably;
Recurring error;
Predictable because it has a pattern recognition

A

Systematic error

182
Q

Color Blue in NFPA symbol

A

Health Hazard

183
Q

Color Red in NFPA symbol

A

Fire Hazard

184
Q

Color Yellow in NFPA symbol

A

Reactivity / Stability

185
Q

Color White in NFPA symbol

A

Specific hazard

186
Q

Health Hazard from 0-4

A

“No SHED”
0 - Normal material
1 - Slightly hazardous
2 - Hazardous
3 - Extreme danger
4 - Deadly

187
Q

Fire Hazard from 0-4

A

0 - Will not burn
1 - Above 200 F
2 - Below 200 F
3 - Below 100 F
4 - Below 75 F

188
Q

Reactivity or Stability from 0-4

A

“SUV in SM”
0 - Stable
1 - Unstable if heated
2 - Violent chemical change
3 - Shock and heat may detonate
4 - May detonate

189
Q

The single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection

A

Handwashing

190
Q

Handwashing should be done for at least

A

15 - 20 seconds

191
Q

All patients should be considered as possible carriers of infection

A

Universal Precaution

192
Q

All specimens are included even moist substances;
Treat all as potentially infectious;
Requires wearing of gloves (as its most important regulation); does not require handwashing

A

Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

193
Q

Combination of Universal Precaution and BSI; requires the use of gloves and PPE

A

Standard Precaution

194
Q

Different type of safety controls in laboratory according to Henry

A

Engineering
Work Practices
PPE

195
Q

Different type of safety controls in laboratory according to WHO

A

“ESEAP”
Elimination
Substitution
Engineering controls
Administrative controls
PPE

196
Q

RACE stands for

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Evacuate / Exit / Extinguish

197
Q

PASS stands for

A

Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

198
Q

Class A fire is used for what material

A

“A tigas”
Solid Material

199
Q

Class B fire is used for what material

A

“B - basa”
Liquids

200
Q

Class C fire is used for what material

A

“C - current”
Electrical

201
Q

Class D fire is used for what material

A

“MeDal”
Metal

202
Q

Class K fire is used for what material

A

“K - kitchen”
Cooking liquids

203
Q

Class E fire is used for what material

A

“ArsEnal”
Arsenal

204
Q

Red container is used for

A

Sharps
Needles
Empty aerosol containers
Pressurized containers

205
Q

Yellow container

A

Infectious waste

206
Q

Yellow with black band container

A

Chemical waste

207
Q

Orange container

A

Radioactive waste

208
Q

Green container

A

Non-infectious wet

209
Q

Black container

A

Non-infectious dry waste

210
Q

What color of container is used for Biodegradable Wastes?

A

Green Container

211
Q

What color of container is used for Non-biodegradable Wastes?

A

Black Container

212
Q

Wavelength is expressed in

A

Nanometers (nm)

213
Q

Wavelength of Visible Light

A

400 - 700 nm

214
Q

Wavelength of UV light

A

<400 nm

215
Q

Wavelength of Infrared Light

A

> 700 nm

216
Q

Highest energy and shortest wavelength

A

Violet / UV

217
Q

Lowest energy and longest wavelength

A

Red / Infrared

218
Q

According to the Beer’s law, concentration is _____ proportional to absorbed light, and is _____ proportional to transmitted light

A

Concentration is DIRECTLY proportional to ABSORBED light; but INVERSELY proportional to transmitted light

219
Q

Provides a continuous spectrum of polychromatic light

A

Light source

220
Q

What are the lamps visible to infrared region

A

“Tungsten HIL”
Tungsten-halogen
Tungsten-iodide lamp
Tungsten lamp

221
Q

What are the lamps visible to UV region

A

“MXD”
Mercury arc
Xenon
Deuterium-discharge

222
Q

Allows entry of a narrow beam of radiant energy or light energy;
It also minimizes stray light or unwanted light

A

Entrance Slit

223
Q

What type of light passes through the entrance and exit slit?

A

Polychromatic

224
Q

Known as a wavelength selector;
Has 2 functions: to disperse polychromatic light into a separate wavelength and isolates a specific wavelength

A

Monochromator

225
Q

What type of light passes through monochromator

A

Polychromator

226
Q

What type of light is from the monochromator

A

Monochromatic

227
Q

This controls the width of light beam (bandpass)

A

Exit slit

228
Q

Hold the solution to containing the analyte to be measured

A

Cuvette or Sample Holder

229
Q

The most preferred type of cuvette

A

Square-end Cuvette

230
Q

This measures and converts the transmitted light into an equivalent amount of electrical energy

A

Detector

231
Q

Most sensitive type of detector

A

Photo Multiplier Tube (PMT)

232
Q

It measures the magnitude of the current or electrical energy that is generated by the detector

A

Read-out Device or Meter

233
Q

What type of light reaches the cuvette

A

Monochromatic Light

234
Q

Contains 2 cuvettes or sample holders;
All are duplicated except the light source

A

Double Beam in Space

235
Q

Contains 2 cuvettes or sample holders;
Only cuvette is duplicated

A

Double Beam in Time

236
Q

Light source of fluorometry

A

Xenon / Hydrogen Discharge Lamp

237
Q

Has 2 monochromators (primary and secondary)

A

Fluorometry

238
Q

Receives light energy from the light source / receives excited light

A

Excitation Filter / Primary Monochromator

239
Q

Receives fluorescence / emitted light

A

Emission Filter / Secondary Monochromator

240
Q

Receives fluorescence / emitted light

A

Emission Filter / Secondary Monochromator

241
Q

Charcteristics of excited lighht

A

High energy ; Short wavelength

242
Q

Characteristic of fluorescence or emitted light

A

Low energy; Longer wavelength

243
Q

The reason why the filter or the secondary monochromator is arranged at a right angle (90 degree angle) is that:

A

Emission filter is arranged at a 90 degree in reference to the excitation filter;
Emission is arranged in 90 degree angle in order to avoid any interference from the transmitted excited light or;
to avoid detecting light from the light source and assure accuracy

244
Q

Presence of molecules that absorbs or steals the fluorescence of the analyte

A

Quenching

245
Q

What instrument contains 2 monochromators

A

Fluorometer

(Second answer: Spectrophotometer (if there is no fluorometer in the choices)

246
Q

What components are the filters?

A

Can be used as monochromators

247
Q

It is base on the characteristic emission of light by analytes which are easily excited when exposed to sufficient heat energy

A

Flame Emission Phtometry

248
Q

What are the easily excited analytes

A

Na, K, Lithium

249
Q

Color Emissions
Lithium:
Rubidium:
Potassium:
Sodium:
Magnesium:

A

Color Emissions
Lithium: “Litem ni Ruby” — lithium RED
Rubidium: “Litem ni Ruby” — rubidium RED
Potassium: “PoV” — potassium VIOLET
Sodium: “SOY” — sodium YELLOW
Magnesium: “Mlue” — magnesium BLUE

250
Q

The dilution of serum for sodium or potassium flame emission photometry (FEP) analysis:

A

1:100 or 1:200

251
Q

The reference method for Calcium and Magnesium determination;
Measure light that is absorbed by atoms at a ground state;
Intended for analytes which are NOT easily excited by the flame (such as calcium)

A

AAS (Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry

252
Q

The light source used in AAS

A

Hollow Cathode Lamp

253
Q

Measures light scattered

A

Nephelometry

254
Q

In nephelometry the detector is at what degree angle

A

At 90 or 30 degree angle

255
Q

Nephelometry is usually applied in what sections in the laboratory

A

Measurement of Immune Complexes — Ag-Ab Reaction
Cell counting procedures — Hematology

256
Q

Forward scatter:

A

Volume / size

257
Q

Side scatter:

A

Internal characteristic or Granulation

258
Q

Measures light blocked by particles or reduction of light

A

Turbidimetry

259
Q

Turbidimetry is usually applied in what sections of the laboratory

A

Microbiology and Hematology

260
Q

Specimen are separated by air-bubbles in between reaction system;
Multiple samples in single test

A

Batch Analysis

261
Q

Primary source of error of batch analysis;
It is the presence of remnant from the previous sample that will affect succeeding sample

A

Carry Over

262
Q

Remedy for Carry-over

A

Washing out adequately

263
Q

It uses a spinning rotor to generate centrifugal force to transfer and contain liquids in separate cuvettes for analysis;
Transfer reagent and sample by acceleration and deceleration;
Capable of performing one test in multiple samples — batch analysis

A

Centrifugal Analyzer

264
Q

Each sample and the corresponding reagent is handled separately in its respective vessel;
Runs multiple tests on one sample (parallel testing) or one test on multiple samples (batch analysis)
Most popular and versatile analyzer;
It can perform all type of testing

A

Discrete Analyzer

265
Q

Multiple sample in one test

A

Batch Analysis

266
Q

Test in a particular order or multiple tests one after the other

A

Sequential Analysis

267
Q

One sample for multiple tests

A

Parallel Testing

268
Q

System perform the reconstitution;
Reagent from other manufacturer can be used

A

Open Reagent System

269
Q

System with no reconstitution; it is fully prepared;
It only uses the manufacturer’s reagent

A

Close Reagent System

270
Q

Anticoagulant used in Arterial Blood Gas Analysis

A

Heparin

271
Q

Other term for capillary blood

A

Arteriolized blood

272
Q

Capillary puncture should not be more than what temperature

A

Should NOT be more than 42 degrees C

273
Q

Sample collection and process done in POCT and Newborn Screening

A

Capillary Puncture

274
Q

Newborn Screening is done through

A

Blood spot on filter paper or
Heel stick puncture or
Capillary puncture

275
Q

What are the preferred sites for venipuncture

A

Antecubital Veins:
- Median Cubital
- Cephalic
- Basilic

276
Q

It is caused by medicine or procedure done to the patient by the health care worker

A

Iatrogenic

277
Q

Reflective of analytes taken early morning before the patient becomes physically active

A

Basal State

278
Q

Fasting hours for
Glucose:
Lipid Profile:

A

Fasting hours for
Glucose: 8 - 10 hrs
Lipids: 12 hrs

279
Q

Term used if there is high concentration of lipid

A

Lipemic

280
Q

Term used if there is high concentration of bilirubin

A

Icteric

281
Q

Bilirubin interferes with what methods:

A

HABA method — Albumin
Assays using FeCl3 — Cholesterol
Biuret Reaction — Total Protein

282
Q

Routinely used in Antiseptic Technique

A

Isopropyl Alcohol or Isopropanol

283
Q

Used for ethanol testing

A

Benzalkonium Chloride

284
Q

Motion recommended in cleaning of site

A

Friction

285
Q

Order of Draw

A

“BB Real Girl Love Gray” “SCSHEG”
Blood culture ( Sterile tube )
Blue ( Coagulation )
Red ( Serum tube )
Green ( Heparin )
Lavender ( EDTA)
Gray ( Glycolitic inhibitor )

286
Q

Need protection from light

A

Bilirubin and CK

287
Q

Needs chilling

A

Ammonia and Blood Gas

288
Q

Acid mucopolysaccharide that has affinity to methylene blue —> produce bluish background in PBS;
Prevent in vivo and in vitro clotting;
Substance that maintains the liquid state of blood

A

Heparin

289
Q

Complication of Venipuncture

A

Anemia

290
Q

Antecubital vein that tends to roll

A

Basilic and Cephalic

291
Q

What is the minimum PPE to be worn during phlebotomy?

A

Acc to WHO: tight fitting gloves
Acc to Bishop: Gloves, Facemask and Lab gown

Clinical Chemistry (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions