Clinical Chemistry (Instrumentation and Analytical Principles) Flashcards

No.1 - 76

1
Q

Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in the visible, near IR, and near UV regions of the spectrum?

A. Tungsten-filament
B. Hydrogen
C. Deuterium
D. Mercury vapor

A

A.

A tungsten-filament lamp is the most common light source for photometry in the visible region. It provides a continuous spectrum (360-800 nm) from the near infrared (IR) through the visible to the near ultraviolet (UV) region. Most of the radiant energy is in the near IR. Only about 15% is in the visible region—the region usually used. Because of the large emission in the near IR, tungsten lamps generate a significant amount of heat.
Hydrogen and deuterium lamps are used for work in the 200-375 nm range. The mercury vapor lamp does not provide a continuous spectrum, emitting radiation at specific wavelengths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum?

A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Monochromator
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Detector

A

B.

Photometric methods are based on the use of Beer’s law, which is applicable only for monochromatic light. A monochromator is a device for selecting a narrow band of wavelengths from a continuous spectrum. The three kinds of monochromators are filters, prisms, and diffraction gratings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is not descriptive of a photomultiplier tube?

A. Emits electrons proportionally to
initial light absorbed
B. Must be shielded from stray light
C. Cannot be used with a chopper
D. Amplifies the initial signal received

A

C.

A photomultiplier tube (PMT) responds to
the radiant energy (light) it absorbs by emitting electrons in a proportional amount to the initial light absorbed. These electrons then go through a series of stages where amplification occurs. The cascade effect, as the electrons go through 10 to 15 stages, results in a final current that may be one million times the initial current. The PMT exhibits rapid response time and sensitivity. These qualities also dictate that this type of detector be shielded from stray light and room light to prevent burnout. The rapid response time of a PMT makes it able to monitor interrupted light beams produced by a chopper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is false about a photomultiplier tube?

A. Converts radiant energy (light)
to electrical energy (current)
B. Amplifies the current significantly
C. Has a very rapid response time
D. Is composed of an iron plate and
a layer of selenium

A

D. A photomultiplier tube (PMT) has two functions: (1) It is a transducer that converts light to electricity; and (2) it amplifies the signal within the tube. Amplification can be as great as one million times. The emission of electrons by a light-sensitive surface—that is, the conversion of light energy to electrical energy—is virtually instantaneous. Hence, PMTs have a very rapid response time. An iron plate and a layer of selenium are partial descriptions of the composition of a photocell or barrier layer cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of photodetector employs a linear arrangement that allows it to respond to a specific wavelength resulting in complete UV/visible spectrum analysis?

A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Phototube
C. Barrier layer cell
D. Photodiode array

A

D. Photodiode array detectors are designed
with 256 to 2048 photodiodes that are arranged in a linear fashion. This arrangement allows each photodiode to respond to a specific wavelength that results in a continuous UV/visible spectrum. Resolution is generally 1-2 nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When performing spectrophotometer quality assurance checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assess?

A. Linearity
B. Stray light
C. Absorbance accuracy
D. Wavelength accuracy

A

D. Wavelength calibration of a spectrophotometer is performed to verify that the radiant energy emitted from the monochromator through the exit slit is the same as the wavelength selector indicates. The glass filters holmium oxide, used in the UV and visible ranges, and didymium, used in the visible and near IR regions, are employed to check wavelength accuracy. Solutions of stable chromogens such as nickel sulfate may be used. Source lamps may be replaced with mercury-vapor or deuterium lamps. These lamps have strong emission lines and provide the most accurate method of wavelength calibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the
purpose of the reagent blank?
A. Correct for interfering chromogens
B. Correct for lipemia
C. Correct for protein
D. Correct for color contribution of the
reagents

A

D. The reagent blank contains the same reagents as those used for assaying the specimen. By adjusting the spectrophotometer to 100% T (or 0 absorbance) with the reagent blank, the instrument automatically subtracts the color contributed by the reagents from each succeeding reading of specimens, controls, and standards. This technique is used both in manual procedures and automated instruments. Because the reagent blank does not contain sample, there is no correction for interfering chromogens or lipemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In regard to bichromatic analysis, which of the following is false?

A. Absorbance is measured at the
spectral absorbance peak for a blank
and the sample using the same
wavelength.
B. Eliminates background interferences
C. Sample concentration determined
from difference in two measured
absorbances
D. Functions as a reference blank for
each sample

A

A. Measurement of an assay at two different
wavelengths is termed bichromatic. The wavelengths chosen for absorbance readings will represent the peak and base of the spectral absorbance curve for the particular assay. By determining the difference between the two measured absorbances, the sample’s concentration can be calculated with elimination of background interference from such substances as bilirubin and hemoglobin. Thus, bichromatic analysis functions as a reference blank for each individual sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The bandpass of a spectrophotometer is
10 nm. If an instrument is set at 540 nm,
the wavelengths that are permitted to impinge on the sample will be within what wavelength range?

A. 530-540 nm
B. 530-550 nm
C. 535-545 nm
D. 540-550 nm

A

C. The bandpass or bandwidth is the range of wavelengths that are passed by a monochromator. In the example given, the bandpass will permit a 10-nm range of wavelengths to pass through the monochromator and impinge on the sample solution in the cuvet. Thus, 540 ± 5 nm (10-nm bandpass) will be equivalent to a wavelength range of 535-545 nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following formulas is an expression of the Beer-Lambert law that is routinely applied to spectrophotometric analysis?

A. Au x Cs/As = Cu
B. Cu x Cs/As = Au
C. As X Cs/Cu = Au
D. A = 2 - log% T

A

A. When the absorbance of a sample in solution varies directly with the concentration of the sample, Beer’s law is followed. In turn, when the absorbance increases exponentially with an increase in the light path, the Lambert law is followed. Incorporation of these two laws may be stated as A = abc, where A = absorbance, a= absorptivity of the substance being measured, b = light path in cm, and c = concentration of the measured substance. When the Beer-Lambert law is applied to spectrophotometric analyses of standards and unknown samples that are being measured, the following equation is derived: Au x Cs/As = Cu where Au= absorbance of
unknown, Cu = concentration of unknown, As = absorbance of standard, and Au = absorbance of unknown. This formula is applied to assays that exhibit linear relationships between changes in absorbance with changes in concentration to calculate the concentration of the unknown sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In spectrophotometry, which of the following is a mathematical expression of the relationship between absorbance and transmittance?

A. A = abc
B, Au/Cu = As/Cs
C. A = 2 - log % T
D. A= log % T

A

C. In spectrophotometry, molecules in solution will cause incident light to be absorbed while the remaining light energy will be transmitted. Absorbance is the term used to describe the monochromatic light that is absorbed by the sample, and transmittance describes the light that passes through the sample. The mathematical relationship between absorbance and transmittance is expressed by A = 2 — log %T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is not a problem inherent in turbidimetry?

A. Variation in particle size of samples
B. Variation in particle size of standards
C. Rate of aggregation or settling of particles
D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

A

D. Turbidimetry is the measurement of the
amount of light blocked by particulate matter in passing through a turbid solution. The amount of light blocked depends on the number and the size of the particles. Hence the particle size in samples and standards must be comparable. Consistent timing of sample preparation and assay helps to avoid errors resulting from aggregation or settling of particles. The procedure is usually carried out at room temperature. Slight variations in temperature are not critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following may be associated with reflectance spectrophotometry as it relates to the dry reagent slide technique?

A. Light projected to the slide at 180-degree angle
B. Dye concentration directly proportional to reflectance
C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector
D. Reflectance values are linearly proportional to transmission values

A

C. In the dry reagent slide technique, as light from a radiant energy source passes through an interference filter, it is projected to the slide at a 45-degree angle. The light then follows a path through the clear support material and reagent layer and hits a white spreading layer; the unabsorbed light is then reflected back through the reagent and support layers. This reflected light impinges on the photodetector, which is positioned at a 90-degree angle to the slide. Because reflectance values are neither linearly proportional to transmission values nor consequently to dye concentration, the microcomputer utilizes an algorithm as a linearizing transformation of reflectance values to transmission values so that concentration may be calculated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design?

A. Prevent loss of emitted light
B. Prevent loss of the excitation light
C. Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector
D. Prevent excitation light from reaching
the detector

A

D. In a fluorometer, light from the excitation
lamp travels in a straight line, whereas the fluorescent light is radiated in all directions. If
the detector for the emitted fluorescent light is placed at a right angle to the path of the excitation light, the excitation light will not fall on the detector. In addition, baffles can be placed around the cuvet to avoid reflection of the exciting light from the surface of the cuvet to the detector. The right-angle configuration does not prevent loss of the exciting or the emitted light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following represents a primary advantage of performing fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis?

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity
B. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity
C. Purity of reagents used not as critical
D. Ease of performing assays

A

A. Fluorescence occurs when a molecule absorbs light of a particular wavelength and is thereby stimulated to emit light of a longer wavelength. The emitted light has a characteristic spectrum, the emission spectrum, that is unique for each fluorescing molecule. Hence, fluorometric methods are extremely sensitive and highly specific. Because of this extreme sensitivity, reagents used must be of a higher degree of purity than is required for spectroscopy, because even slight traces of impurities may fluoresce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following may be associated with fluorescence polarization?

A. Plane-polarized light is used for sample excitation.
B. Small molecular complexes show a greater amount of polarization.
C. It is a heterogeneous technique employed in fluorophore-ligand immunoassays.
D. Polarized light detected is directly
proportional to concentration of ligand
in sample.

A

A. Instrumentation employing fluorescence
polarization is used for such testing as therapeutic drug levels and fetal lung maturity analysis. In these immunologic assays, plane-polarized light excites fluorophors in the sample cuvet. The free fluorophore-labeled ligands rotate freely because of their small size and primarily emit depolarized light. The labeled ligand-antibody complexes rotate more slowly because of their large size and emit polarized fluorescent light. Because of the differences in emitted light, it is not necessary to separate free from bound fluorophore-labeled ligands, allowing for use of the homogeneous assay technique. The emitted fluorescence intensity is measured by a polarization analyzer in the vertical plane, followed by its 90-degree movement for measurement in the horizontal plane. The amount of polarized light detected is inversely proportional to the concentration of ligand in the serum sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following may be associated with bioluminescence?
A. Light emission produced due to enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
B. Less sensitive than direct fluorescent assays
C. Electron excitation caused by radiant energy
D. Employs a radioactive label

A

A. Bioluminescence is a type of chemiluminescence in which the excitation energy is supplied by an enzymatic chemical reaction rather than by radiant energy, as in fluorescence and phosphorescence. Bioluminescence assays may employ such systems as NADH:FMN
oxidoreductase bacterial luciferase or adenosine triphosphatefirefly luciferase. Bioluminescence assays are nonradioactive, having sensitivity levels in the attomole (10^-18) to zeptomole (10^~21) ranges, which makes them more sensitive than direct fluorescence assays. Bioluminescence has been applied in the development of immunoassays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is

A. Absorbed by particles in suspension
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
C. Produced by fluorescence
D. Produced by excitation of ground-state atoms

A

B. Nephelometry is the measurement of the amount of light scattered by particles in suspension. The amount of light scattered depends on the size and shape of the particles and on the wavelength of the incident light. Ultraviolet light should not be used because it might produce some fluorescence, which would lead to erroneously high results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following instruments is used in the clinical laboratory or in reference laboratories to detect beta and gamma emissions?

A. Fluorometer
B. Nephelometer
C. Scintillation counter
D. Spectrophotometer

A

C. Radionuclides are quantified by measuring the amount of energy that they emit. This can be in the form of alpha emission 42He²+, beta emission (electrons ejected from the nucleus of a radioisotope during radioactive decay), or gamma emission (electromagnetic radiation emitted during radioactive decay). Beta and gamma emissions can be detected by scintillation counters. The sensing element of a scintillation counter is a fluor, a substance capable of converting radiation energy to light energy. The light energy is converted to electrical energy and amplified by a photomultiplier tube. A fluor commonly employed in solid scintillation counters is a large crystal of sodium iodide containing a small amount of thallium as an activator; it is used for gamma counting. Beta emission is counted by liquid scintillation counters using fluors dissolved in organic solvents. Alpha emission has very low penetrating power
and is not measured in the clinical laboratory.
Although radioimmunoassay (RIA) is no longer
used for routine analyses and has been replaced by nonradioactive immunoassays, it is still used in a limited manner in some clinical reference laboratories and in research settings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following best describes chemiluminescence?

A. Electron excitation caused by radiant energy
B. Enzymatic oxidation of a substrate produces light emission
C. Chemical energy excites electrons that emit light upon return to ground state
D. Employs a fluorescent label that produces light

A

C. Chemiluminescence is a type of luminescence where excitation does not require absorption of radiant energy. Chemiluminescence is the process where the chemical energy of a reaction produces excited atoms, and upon electron
return to ground state photons of light are emitted. Chemiluminescence has been applied in the development of immunoassays and has ultrasensitivity in the attomole (10~18) to zeptomole (10~21)
ranges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In assaying an analyte with a single-beam atomic absoiption spectrophotometer, what is the instrument actually measuring?

A. Intensity of light emitted by the analyte on its return to the ground state
B. Intensity of light that the analyte absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Intensity of light that the analyte absorbs from the flame
D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow cathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

A

D. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) is based on the principle that atoms in a basic ground state are capable of absorbing energy in the form of light at a specific wavelength. In a single-beam AAS, the amount of light that the analyte absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp is what we wish to know. However, what is actually measured is the intensity of the beam after it
has passed through the flame. This measurement is made with and without sample in the flame. In this way, the instrument calculates the amount of light absorbed because of the presence of the analyte in the flame. Because most samples usually have the analyte in the form of a compound or an ion, the analyte must first be converted to nonionized atoms. This is achieved by heating in a flame. About 99% of the atoms of analyte in the flame are in the ground state and, therefore, are capable of absorbing energy at the appropriate wavelength. Hence, light absorbed is essentially proportional to the concentration of the analyte. The light source in AAS is a hollow cathode lamp in which the cathode contains the element that is to be measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of the flame in atomic absorption spectroscopy?
A. Absorb the energy emitted from the metal analyte in returning to ground state
B. Supply the thermal energy needed to excite the metal analyte
C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground state
D. Supply the light that is absorbed by the metal analyte

A

C. The basis of AAS is the measurement of
light, at a specific wavelength, that is absorbed by an element whose atoms are in a ground state. The flame in AAS serves two functions—to accept the sample, thus serving as a cuvet, and to supply heat for converting the element, which is usually present in the sample in molecular form, into its atomic form at ground-state energy level. The hollow-cathode lamp supplies the emission line of light required for the analysis. The metal element of interest is coated on the cathode of the lamp. When the inert gas, either argon or neon, becomes ionized, it is drawn toward the cathode. The impact excites the metal element coated on the cathode, resulting in the emission of spectral lines specific for the element. This light emission is then absorbed by the metal element in the sample. A flameless AAS employs a carbon rod (graphite furnace), tantalum, or platinum to hold the sample in a chamber. The temperature is raised to vaporize the sample being analyzed. The atomized sample then absorbs the light energy from the hollow-cathode lamp. This
technique is more sensitive than the flame
method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned amplifier. The purpose of these components is to avoid errors that would be caused by

A. Variations in flame temperature
B. Deterioration of the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Stray light from the hollow-cathode lamp
D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

A

D. A beam chopper is a device for interrupting a beam of light so that a pulsed beam is produced. In an atomic absorption spectrophotometer, if the light entering the flame from the hollow cathode lamp is pulsed, then the light leaving the flame will consist of unabsorbed pulsed light and impulsed light from the flame and from a
small amount of emission by excited atoms of
the analyte. The detector has an amplifier that is tuned to recognize and amplify only the pulsed signal. Thus errors caused by light from the flame and light emitted by the analyte are avoided. However, the beam chopper and tuned amplifier do not compensate for errors introduced by variations in flame temperature or deterioration of the hollow-cathode lamp. AAS
may be used to measure such analytes as lead, zinc, copper, aluminum, magnesium, calcium, and lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In potentiometry, which of the following is considered the standard electrode?

A. Hydrogen electrode
B. Calcium electrode
C. Potassium electrode
D. Copper electrode

A

A. A half-cell, also called an electrode, is composed of a single metallic conductor surrounded by a solution of electrolyte. An electrochemical cell consists of two half-cells. If two different kinds of half-cells are connected in such a way as to make a complete circuit, a current will flow
because of the potential difference between the two electrodes. The connection must be between the two metallic conductors and also between the two electrolyte solutions, usually by means of a salt bridge. In the analytical technique of potentiometry, a comparison is made between the voltage of one half-cell connected to another half-cell. It is customary that all half-cell potentials be compared to the potential generated by a standard electrode. The universally accepted standard half-cell with which all other half cells are compared is the standard hydrogen electrode, arbitrarily assigned a potential E° of 0.000 volt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In an electrolytic cell, which of the following is the half-cell where reduction takes place?

A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Combination electrode
D. Electrode response

A

B. Oxidation involves the loss of electrons, and reduction the gain of electrons. In an electrolytic cell composed of two different half-cells—for example, zinc in zinc sulfate and copper in copper sulfate—electrons will flow from the anode to the cathode. Thus reduction takes place at the cathode, whereas oxidation occurs at the anode.
“Combination electrode” refers to the combining of indicator and reference electrodes into a single unit. “Electrode response” refers to the ability of an ion-selective electrode to respond to
a change in concentration of the ion being measured by exhibiting a change in potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated potassium chloride solution is a description of which of the following types of electrodes?

A. Sodium
B. Calomel
C. Calcium
D. Silver/silver chloride

A

B. In practical applications of potentiometry, it
is desirable to use one half-cell with a known
and constant potential that is not sensitive to the composition of the material to be analyzed. This is called the reference electrode. One type of reference electrode is the calomel electrode, which consists of mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with a saturated solution of potassium chloride. The other half-cell, called the indicator electrode, is selected on the basis of the change in its potential with change in the concentration of the analyte of interest. The silver-silver chloride electrode is a commonly used type of reference electrode. The sodium and calcium electrodes are types of ion selective electrodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When a pH-sensitive glass electrode is not actively in use, in what type of solution should it be kept?

A. Tap water
B. Physiologic saline solution
C. The medium recommended by the manufacturer
D. A buffer solution of alkaline pH

A

C. For optimum performance, pH-sensitive glass electrodes that are not actively in use should be kept immersed in an aqueous medium. Because the exact composition of the pH-sensitive glass varies from one manufacturer to another, the glass electrode should be maintained in the medium recommended by the manufacturer.
Usual media are deionized water, dilute HC1, and buffer with a pH near the pH of the solution to be measured. The functioning of a glass electrode depends on the properties of the pH-sensitive glass. A typical glass electrode is made by sealing a thin piece of pH-sensitive glass at the end of a piece of glass tubing and filling the tube with a solution of hydrochloric acid saturated with silver chloride. A silver wire is immersed in the solution in the tube, with one end extending outside the tube for external connection. This is essentially a silver/silver chloride reference electrode sealed within the tube with the pH-sensitive glass tip. This pH-sensitive glass functions appropriately only when it is saturated with water. Then each surface of the glass develops a hydrated lattice, where exchange of alkaline metal ions in the lattice for hydrogen ions in the test solution can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

A

D. The ion-exchange electrode is a type of
potentiometric, ion-selective electrode that consists of a liquid ion-exchange membrane that is made of an inert solvent and an ion-selective neutral earner material. A collodion membrane may be used to separate the membrane solution from the sample solution being analyzed. Because of its ability to bind K+, the antibiotic valinomycin is used as the neutral carrier for the K+-selective membrane. The antibiotics non-actin and monactin are used in combination as the neutral carrier for the NH+4 selective membrane. A special formulation is used to make a selective glass membrane for the measurement of sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is false about ion-selective electrode analysis of sodium?

A. Uses a glass membrane
B. Errors occur from protein buildup on
the membrane.
C. Membrane coated with valinomycin
D. Principle based on potentiometry

A

C. Ion-selective electrodes for the measurement of sodium are glass membrane electrodes with selective capability. They are constructed from glass that consists of silicon dioxide, sodium oxide, and aluminum oxide. This type of electrode is based on the principle of potentiometry. Measurement errors may occur from protein buildup on the membrane surface. Potassium is measured using an ion-exchange electrode where the liquid ion-exchange membrane consists of valinomycin as the ion-selective carrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the principles of operation for a chloride analyzer that generates silver ions as part of its reaction mechanism?

A. Potentiometry and amperometry
B. Amperometry and polarography
C. Coulometry and potentiometry
D. Amperometry and coulometry

A

D. A chloride coulometer employs a coulometric system based on Faraday’s law, which states that in an electrochemical system, the number of equivalent weights of a reactant oxidized or reduced is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity used in the reaction. The quantity of electricity is measured in coulombs.

The coulomb is the unit of electrical quantity;
1 coulomb of electricity flowing per minute constitutes a current of 1 ampere. Thus, if the current is constant, the number of equivalent weights of reactant oxidized or reduced depends only on the duration of the current. In the chloride coulometer, the electrochemical reaction is the generation
of Ag+ ions by the passage of a direct current
across a pair of silver electrodes immersed in a conducting solution containing the sample to be assayed for chloride. As the Ag+ ions are generated, they are immediately removed from solution by combining with chloride to form insoluble silver chloride. When all the chloride is precipitated, further generation of Ag+ ions causes an increase in conductivity of the solution. Thus the instrument provides an electrometric titration, in which the titrant is Ag+ ions and the endpoint of the titration is indicated by the increase in conductivity of the solution. Amperometry is used to measure the increase in conductivity. The amperometric circuit includes a second pair of silver electrodes that are immersed
in the solution. They are provided with a small, steady, and constant voltage. The appearance of free Ag+ ions in the solution generates a sharp increase in conductivity, which, in turn, causes a sudden rise in the current between the electrodes in the amperometric circuit. This increase in current activates a relay that stops the further generation of Ag+ ions and also stops an automatic timer placed in the circuit to measure the total duration of current in the coulometric circuit. Although this system is no longer used for routine analysis of serum, it is still employed for sweat chloride analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When quantifying glucose using an amperometric glucose electrode system, which of the following is not a component of the system?

A. Product oxidation produces a current
B. Hydrogen peroxide formed
C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose
D. Platinum electrode

A

C. In an amperometric glucose electrode system, glucose oxidase reacts with glucose to produce hydrogen peroxide and gluconic acid. The platinum electrode that operates at a positive potential oxidizes the hydrogen peroxide to oxygen. The oxidation of hydrogen peroxide produces a current that is directly proportional to the glucose level in the sample

32
Q

To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that

A. The barometric pressure be known and used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

A

D. A pH/blood gas analyzer contains a pH sensitive glass electrode, a PCO^ electrode, and a PO2 electrode. The glass electrode is calibrated by comparison with two primary standard buffers of known pH. Because pH readings are temperature sensitive, the calibration must be carried out at a constant temperature of 37°C. pH readings are not appreciably sensitive to changes in barometric pressure. Note that if the PCO2 and PC>2 electrodes were also to be calibrated, then it would be essential to know the barometric pressure, because that affects the PCO2 and PO2 calibrating gases

33
Q

The measurement of CO2 in blood by means of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the

A. Passage of H+ ions through the membrane that separates the sample and the electrode
B. Change in pH because of increased carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes
C. Movement of bicarbonate across the membrane that separates the sample and the electrode
D. Linear relationship between PCO2 in the sample and measured pH

A

B. In a blood gas analyzer, the PCO2 electrode is actually a pH electrode immersed in a bicarbonate solution. The bicarbonate solution is separated from the sample by a membrane that is permeable to gaseous CO2 but not to ionized substances such as H+ ions. When CO2 from the sample diffuses across the membrane, it dissolves, forming carbonic acid and thus lowering the pH. The pH is inversely proportional to the log of the PCO2. Hence the scale of the meter can be calibrated directly in terms of PCO2. It
should be noted that whereas pH refers to the
negative logarithm of the H+ ion concentration, PCO2 refers to the partial pressure of CO2

34
Q

The measurement of oxygen in blood by means of a PO2 electrode involves which of the following?

A. Wheatstone bridge arrangement of resistive elements sensitive to oxygen concentration
B. Direct relationship between amount of oxygen in the sample and amount of current flowing in the measuring system
C. Change in current resulting from an increase of free silver ions in solution
D. Glass electrode sensitive to H+ ions

A

B. In a blood gas analyzer, the electrode for
measuring the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in the blood is an electrochemical cell consisting of a platinum cathode and a Ag/AgCl anode connected to an external voltage source. The cathode and anode are immersed in buffer. A polypropylene membrane selectively permeable to gases separates the buffer from the blood sample. When there is no oxygen diffusing into the buffer, there is practically no current flowing between the cathode and the anode because they are polarized. When oxygen diffuses into the buffer from a sample, it is reduced at the cathode. The electrons necessary for this reduction are produced at the anode. Hence a current flows; the current is directly proportional to the PO2 in the sample

35
Q

Which of the following blood gas parameters are measured directly by the blood gas analyzer electrochemically as opposed to being calculated by the instrument?

A. pH, HCO-3, total CO2
B. PCO2, HCO-3, PO2
C. pH, PCO2, PO2
D. PO2, HCO-3, total CO2

A

C. pH, PCO2, and PO2 are measured directly
from the specimen by utilizing electrodes. The
pH and PCO2 electrodes are potentiometric
where the voltage produced across a semipermeable membrane to hydrogen ions or CO2 gas is proportional to the “activity” of those ions in the patient’s sample. Activity is measured in voltage whose value can be presented in terms of concentration. POi is measured similarly, but using an amperometric electrode. For PO2 a small
charge is put on a cathode, and electrons are
drawn off the cathode in proportion to the oxygen present. The O2 becomes part of the circuit. The amount of electrons drawn is proportional to the amount of oxygen present. Bicarbonate and other parameters, such as base excess, are calculated by the instrument using pH and PCO2
values and the Henderson/Hasselbalch equation

36
Q

Which of the following statements is false about anodic stripping voltammetry (ASV)?

A. Based on potentiometry
B. Occurs in an electrochemical cell
C. Involves preconcentration of the analyte by electroplating
D. Used to measure lead

A

A. In polarography, an electrochemical cell is
used. A gradually increasing voltage is applied
between the two electrodes of the cell that are in contact with a solution containing the analyte The current flowing in the system is measured. Plotting the voltage change versus current change gives a polarogram. The voltage at which the sharp rise in current occurs is characteristic of the electrochemical reaction involved; that is, characteristic of the analyte. The amount of increase in current (i.e., the wave height) is proportional to
the concentration of analyte. In anodic stripping voltammetry, a negative potential is applied to one of the electrodes. Trace metal ions in the solution are thereby reduced and plated onto the anodic electrode. This is a preconcentrating step. The plated electrode is then used as the anode in a polarographic cell. The metal is thereby stripped off the anode. The current flow during the stripping provides a polarogram that both identifies and quantifies the trace metals. The method is particularly appropriate for assaying heavy metals such as lead in blood

37
Q

Which of the following methods allows for the separation of charged particles based on their rates of migration in an electric field?

A. Rheophoresis
B. Electrophoresis
C. Electroendosmosis
D. Ion exchange

A

B. Electrophoresis is a method of separating
charged particles by their rates of migration in
an electric field. An electrophoretic chamber
consists of two electrodes, two reservoirs to hold buffer, a means of supporting a strip in the chamber so that the ends are dipping into the reservoirs, and a means of applying an electric current to the strip. The whole chamber is sealed to make it vaporproof.

38
Q

Which of the following techniques is based on electro-osmotic flow?

A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Iontophoresis
D. Isoelectric focusing

A

A. Capillary electrophoresis is based on electroosmotic flow (EOF). When an electric field is applied, the flow of liquid is in the direction of the cathode. Thus, EOF regulates the speed at which solutes move through the capillary. Cations migrate the fastest, because EOF and electrophoretic attraction are in the direction of the cathode

39
Q

Which of the following techniques is based on electro-osmotic flow?

A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Iontophoresis
D. Isoelectric focusing

A

D. When serum is applied to a support medium placed in a buffer solution of alkaline pH and subjected to an electrical field, the serum proteins will be separated into fractions for identification and quantification. Support media that may be used for electrophoretic separations include agarose gel, starch gel, cellulose acetate, and acrylamide. The pore size of the agarose gel
and cellulose acetate is large enough that the
protein molecules are able to move freely
through the media with a resolution of between five to seven fractions. Because the pore size of starch gel and acrylamide is somewhat smaller, the resolution of approximately 20 fractions is possible with this type of medium. Agarose gel and cellulose acetate are the more commonly used media in the routine clinical laboratory. Celite provides the inert supporting phase in gas-liquid chromatography

40
Q

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?

A. Exhibit net negative charge
B. Exhibit net positive charge
C. Exhibit charge neutrality
D. Migrate toward the cathode

A

A. Buffer solutions of pH 8.6 are commonly used for seaim protein electrophoresis. At this alkaline pH, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. Therefore, the negatively charged serum proteins migrate toward the anode. This is true for all the proteins except the gamma-globulins, which tend to show the phenomenon of endosmosis

41
Q

Which of the following characteristics will a protein have at its isoelectric point?

A. Net negative charge
B. Net positive charge
C. Net zero charge
D. Mobility

A

C. Proteins are dipolar or zwitterion compounds because they contain amino acids that exhibit both negative and positive charges. The isoelectric point (pi) of a protein refers to the pH at which the number of positive charges on the protein molecule equals the number of negative charges, causing the protein to have a net charge
of zero. Because the protein exhibits electrical
neutrality at its isoelectric point, it is unable to
migrate in an electrical field.

42
Q

What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis?

A. Fat red 7B
B. Sudan black B
C. Ponceau S
D. Oil red O

A

C. Amido black 10B, Coomassie brilliant blue,
and Ponceau S are dyes that are used to stain
serum proteins after electrophoresis. Once the serum protein bands are stained, they may be quantified by scanning the support media at the appropriate wavelength with a densitometer. Oil red O and fat red 7B are dyes that are used to stain lipoproteins following electrophoresis

43
Q

When electrophoresis is performed, holes appear in the staining pattern, giving the stained protein band a doughnut-like appearance. What is the probable cause of this problem?

A. Protein denatured and will not stain properly
B. Ionic strength of the buffer was too high
C. Protein reached its isoelectric point and precipitated out
D. Protein concentration was too high

A

D. In electrophoresis, each band in the stained
protein pattern should be uniformly colored; that is, no holes should appear within an individual band. Such a doughnut-like appearance occurs when the protein is present in too high a concentration, thus exceeding the complexing ability of
the stain. To overcome this problem, dilute elevated specimens before rerunning the electrophoresis.

44
Q

What is the purpose of using ampholytes in isoelectric focusing?

A. Maintain the polyacrylamide gel in a solid state
B. Maintain the protein sample in a charged state
C. Maintain the pH of the buffer solution
D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

A

D. Ampholytes are mixtures of polyanions and
polycations used to establish a pH gradient
within the gel media in isoelectric focusing.
When an electrical field is applied to the gel,
ampholytes seek their own isoelectric point
where they become stationary, establishing a pH gradient. Similarly, proteins will migrate within the gel-gradient until they reach the pH of their isoelectric point, thus becoming stationary or focused. This system is most useful in separating proteins that have close isoelectric points.

45
Q

Which of the following is not associated with silver stains?

A. Reactive to nanogram concentrations of proteins
B. Polypeptides stain a variety of colors
C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant blue
D. Preconcentration of CSF not necessary

A

C. Silver stains react with nanogram concentrations of proteins and nucleic acids, staining them shades of green, yellow, blue, and red. Silver stains are approximately 30 times more sensitive than Coomassie blue stains. Because of their sensitivity, silver stains are being used in electrophoretic methods to identify cerebrospinal fluid and urine proteins without preconcentration of the specimens.

46
Q

Which of the following is not associated with isoelectric focusing?

A. Continuous pH gradient
B. Migration of proteins with net charge of zero
C. Separation dependent on isoelectric point
D. Zone electrophoresis

A

B. Isoelectric focusing is a type of zone electrophoresis. It requires the establishment of a pH gradient, within the agarose or polyacrylamide gel medium, to obtain the separation of charged proteins. Under constant power, the proteins migrate to the pH that corresponds to the isoelectric point of the particular protein.

47
Q

Which of the following is an electrophoretic technique employing a pH gradient that separates molecules with similar isoelectric points?

A. Zone electrophoresis
B. High-resolution electrophoresis
C. Isoelectric focusing
D. Immunoelectrophoresis

A

C. Protein molecules can exist as anions,
cations, or zwitterions, depending on the pH of the solution in which they are placed. The pH at which they exist in the form of zwitterions and hence have no net charge is called the isoelectric point. The principle of isoelectric focusing is based on the ability to separate proteins because of differences in their isoelectric points. Aliphatic polyamino polycarboxylic acids, known as ampholytes, are used to produce the pH gradient

48
Q

Given the following information on a particular compound that has been visualized by means of thin-layer chromatography, calculate the Rf of the compound.

Distance from origin to spot center = 48 mm
Distance from spot center to solvent front = 93 mm
Distance from origin to solvent front = 141 mm

A. 0.29
B. 0.34
C. 0.52
D. 0.66

A

B. In thin-layer chromatography (TLC), the
Rf (retention factor) describes the distance traveled by the solute (compound of interest) in relation to the distance traveled by the solvent (mobile phase). Measurements of the TLC plate are made from the origin or point of sample application to the center of the developed spot and from the origin to the solvent front. An Rf may be calculated by means of the following formula:

Rf = Distance from origin to spot center/ Distance from origin to solvent front

Rf = 48mm/ 141 mm = 0.34

The Rf of the compound of interest, along with chromogenic spray characteristics, may then be compared with standards for identification of the unknown compound.

49
Q

To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, to what type of detector system could a gas chromatograph be coupled?

A. UV spectrophotometer
B. Bichromatic spectrophotometer
C. Mass spectrometer
D. Fluorescence detector

A

C. The column and carrier gas flow rate used in gas-liquid chromatography are important aspects of the separation and resolving power of the system. When the column eluent is introduced into a mass spectrometer, additional information per taining to elemental composition, position of
functional groups, and molecular weight may be determined for the purpose of identifying compounds (e.g., drugs in biological samples). Mass spectrometers consist of a vacuum system, ion source, mass filter, and detector

50
Q

Which of the following instruments has a sample-introduction system, solvent delivery system, column, and detector as components?

A. Atomic absorption spectrometer
B. Mass spectrometer
C. High-performance liquid chromatograph
D. Nephelometer

A

C. High-performance liquid chromatography
(HPLC) systems are composed of four basic
units: sample-introduction system, solvent delivery system, column, and detector. The sample-introduction system is generally fixed loop injection valve, which allows the sample to be injected into a stainless steel external loop for flushing onto the column by the solvent. The solvent-delivery system may be composed of one or two pumps for the purpose of forcing the mobile phase and sample through the column. Photometric, fluorometric, and electrochemical detectors are available for monitoring the eluate as it emerges from the column.

51
Q

Which type of elution technique may be used in high-performance liquid chromatography?

A. Amphoteric
B. Isoelectric
C. Gradient
D. Ion exchange

A

C. In HPLC, the technique used for the mobile
phase may be isocratic or gradient elution. With isocratic elution the strength of the solvent remains constant during the separation. With gradient elution the strength of the solvent is continually increased (percent per minute) during the separation process. The gradient elution technique is sometimes employed to improve HPLC resolution and sensitivity.

52
Q

Which of the following statements best describes discrete analysis?

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled separately in its own reaction vessel.
B. Samples are analyzed in a flowing stream of reagent.
C. Analyzer must be dedicated to measurement of only one analyte.
D. It does not have random access capability

A

A. Discrete analyzers are designed so that each specimen-reagent mixture is analyzed separately in its own vessel. Although a discrete analyzer may be designed to measure only one analyte, most discrete analyzers are very versatile and are able to run multiple tests on each sample. Some discrete analyzers also have random access
capability that allows STAT samples to be accessed easily.

53
Q

Which of the following chromatography systems may be described as having a stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on particles packed in a column and a liquid moving phase that is pumped through a column?

A. Thin-layer
B. High-performance liquid
C. Ion-exchange
D. Gas-liquid

A

B. High-performance liquid chromatography is also called high-pressure liquid chromatography. It is a form of column chromatography in which a liquid moving phase is actively pumped through the column, thus speeding the separation process considerably. HPLC is used in therapeutic drug monitoring and in assaying vitamin and hormone concentrations

54
Q

Which of the following chromatography systems is characterized by a stationary phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and a moving phase of liquid?

A. Thin-layer
B. Ion-exchange
C. Gas-liquid
D. Partition

A

A. Chromatography provides a variety of
means of separating mixtures of substances on the basis of their physicochemical properties, primarily their solubility in a variety of solvents. Chromatographic methods always involve a stationary phase and a mobile phase. The sample containing the substances to be separated is carried in the mobile phase; the mobile phase passes over the stationary phase at different rates depending on their relative solubilities in the two phases. The amount of separation depends on (1) the rate of diffusion, (2) the solubility of the substances being separated, and (3) the nature of the solvent. In TLC, the stationary phase is a thin layer of some sorbent such as silica gel uniformly spread on a piece of glass or plastic.

55
Q

Which of the following does not apply to gas-liquid chromatography?

A. Separation depends on volatility of the sample.
B. Separation depends on the sample’s solubility in the liquid layer of the stationary phase.
C. Stationary phase is a liquid layer adsorbed on the column packing.
D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped through the column

A

D. In gas-liquid chromatography (GLC), the stationary phase is a liquid adsorbed on particles packed in a column. The mobile phase is a gas that passes through the column. Because the sample is carried in the mobile phase, it must be volatile at the temperature of the column so that it can be
carried by the gas. In addition, separation is
dependent on the solubility of the solute in the liquid layer of the stationary phase.

56
Q

Ion-exchange chromatography separates solutes in a sample based on the

A. Solubility of the solutes
B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge
C. Adsorption ability of the solutes
D. Molecular size

A

B. Ion-exchange chromatography uses synthetic ion-exchange resins. They may be cation or anion-exchange resins. They can be used in either a column or a thin layer. Separation of mixtures of substances by ion-exchange chromatography depends primarily on the sign and the ionic charge density of the substances being separated

57
Q

Which parameter is used in mass spectrometry to identify a compound?

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio
B. Molecular size
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Retention time

A

A. Mass spectrometry identifies a compound
based on the principle of charged particles moving through a magnetic or electric field, with ions being separated from other charged
particles according to their mass-to-charge
ratios. The mass spectrum produced is unique
for a particular compound. It also identifies the positioning of functional groups of the compound. Mass spectrometry is useful in the clinical laboratory for drug identification.

58
Q

Which chromatography system is commonly used in conjunction with mass spectrometry?

A. High-performance liquid
B. Ion-exchange
C. Partition
D. Gas-liquid

A

D. Mass spectrometry is used in the clinical
laboratory in conjunction with gas or liquid
chromatography (GC-MS). In gas chromatography a compound is identified by its retention time. If two compounds have very similar retention times, the compound may be misidentified. Gas chromatography complements mass spectrometry in that the eluted peak is subjected to mass spectrometric analysis for molecular weight determination. Use of the two systems in
tandem allows for more accurate identification of compounds.

59
Q

Which of the following may be a sampling source of error for an automated instrument?

A. Short sample
B. Air bubble in bottom of sample cup
C. Fibrin clot in sample probe
D. All the above

A

D. With automated instruments, the quality of
the specimen and its handling are critical to producing accurate test results. Sampling errors can occur that cause falsely low results to be generated. These errors include short sampling, air pocket in the bottom of the sample cup, and fibrin clots in the sample probe

60
Q

Checking instrument calibration, temperature accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of

A. Preventive maintenance
B. Quality control
C. Function verification
D. Precision verification

A

C. As part of a good quality assurance program, a laboratory should perform function verification, performance verification, and preventive maintenance for all instrument systems. Function verification is the monitoring of specific instrument functions and the correcting of these functions when necessary to assure reliable
operation. Function verification includes monitoring temperature, setting electronic parameters, calibrating instruments, and analyzing quality control data. It is important that performance of these activities be properly documented

61
Q

For which of the following laboratory instruments should preventive maintenance procedures be performed and recorded?

A. Analytical balance
B. Centrifuge
C. Chemistry analyzer
D. All the above

A

D. It is imperative that preventive maintenance procedures be performed and the results recorded for all laboratory instrumentation. This includes maintenance of analytical balances, refrigerators, freezers, centrifuges, ovens, water baths, heating blocks, thermometers, pipetters, dilutors, automated analyzers, and all other laboratory equipment used for analyzing specimens. Preventive maintenance is performed at scheduled times such as per shift, daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly

62
Q

Which of the following is not the reason that preventive maintenance schedules are required?

A. Keep instrument components clean
B. Replace worn parts
C. Extend the life of the equipment
D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

A

D. In order to prevent excessive downtime and costly repairs, a preventive maintenance schedule should be devised, implemented, and recorded for all laboratory equipment. Preventive maintenance procedures include the cleaning of instrument components, the replacing of worn parts, and the adjusting of certain parts or parameters. Following a preventive maintenance schedule will help to extend the life of the equipment. It is important that all laboratory personnel recognize the need for routine maintenance
and follow prescribed maintenance schedules.

63
Q

Which globin chains compose hemoglobin A1?

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
B. Two alpha chains and two delta chains
C. Two alpha chains and two gamma chains
D. Two beta chains and two delta chains

A

A. Hemoglobin is a tetramer composed of four globin chains, four heme groups, and four iron atoms. In adult hemoglobin, or hemoglobin AI, there are two alpha chains and two beta chains. Hemoglobin A2, which comprises less than 4% of the normal adult hemoglobin, is composed of two alpha chains and two delta chains. Hemoglobin F, or fetal hemoglobin, is composed of two alpha chains and two gamma chains

64
Q

Which hemoglobin may be differentiated from other hemoglobins on the basis of its resistance to denature in alkaline solution?

A. A1
B. A2
C. C
D. F

A

D. Although hemoglobin differentiation is best
achieved by use of electrophoresis, hemoglobin F may be differentiated from the majority of human hemoglobins because of its alkali resistance. Hemoglobin F is able to resist denaturation and remain soluble when added to an alkaline solution. In contrast to hemoglobin F, most hemoglobin will denature in alkaline solution and precipitate on the addition of ammonium sulfate. After 1 year of age, the normal concentration of hemoglobin F is less than 1% of the total hemoglobin. However, hemoglobin F may be present in elevated concentrations in disorders that include thalassemia, sickle cell disease, and aplastic anemia.

64
Q

Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin that is characterized by a substitution of which amino acid?

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain
B. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the alpha chain
C. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain
D. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the alpha chain

A

A. A number of hemoglobinopathies exist
where a substitution of one amino acid on either the alpha chain or the beta chain causes the formation of an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin that is characterized by the substitution of valine for glutamic acid in position 6 of the beta chain. Hemoglobin C is an abnormal hemoglobin in which lysine replaces glutamic acid in position 6 of the beta chain. The structural changes that are
seen in hemoglobins S and C disorders are
inherited as autosomal recessive traits

65
Q

When performing electrophoresis at pH 8.6, which hemoglobin molecule migrates the fastest on cellulose acetate toward the anode?

A. A1
B. A2
C. F
D. S

A

A. At pH 8.6, hemoglobins have a net negative
charge and migrate from the point of application toward the anode. When hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6, hemoglobin A migrates the fastest toward the anode, followed respectively by hemoglobins F and S. Hemoglobins A2 and C have the same electrophoretic mobility and migrate slightly slower than hemoglobin S. Because hemoglobins A2 and C exhibit nearly the same mobility, they cannot be differentiated on cellulose acetate

66
Q

Because of similar electrophoretic mobilities, several hemoglobins cannot be differentiated on cellulose acetate medium. Electrophoresis of hemoglobins at pH 6.2 on agar gel may be useful in differentiating which hemoglobin?

A. A1 from A2
B. A1 from D
C. A1 from E
D. C from A2

A

D. At pH 6.2 on agar gel, hemoglobins exhibit
different electrophoretic mobilities in
comparison with hemoglobin electrophoresed at pH 8.6 on cellulose acetate. The order of migration of hemoglobins on cellulose acetate, proceeding from the most anodal hemoglobin to the most cathodal hemoglobin, is respectively A1 and F, followed by G, D, and S, which migrate with the
same mobility, followed by the group A2, C, O,
and E, which migrate the most slowly with the
same mobility. This migration pattern is in contrast to agar gel electrophoresis at pH 6.2 in which the order of migration, from the most anodal hemoglobin to the most cathodal hemoglobin, is, respectively, C and S, followed by hemoglobins A1, A2, D, E, and G, which migrate as a group with the same mobility, followed by F. The different migration patterns seen with these two media systems are useful in differentiating hemoglobins that migrate with the same electrophoretic mobility. In the case of hemoglobins A2 and C, which migrate with the same mobility on cellulose acetate, it is not possible to discern which hemoglobin is present in a particular blood specimen. By electrophoresing this specimen on agar gel at pH 6.2, hemoglobin A2 may be differentiated from hemoglobin C
because hemoglobin A2 exhibits mobility similar to that of hemoglobin A|, whereas hemoglobin C migrates alone closest to the anode.

67
Q

In addition to performing hemoglobin electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed to detect the presence of what hemoglobin?

A. A1
B. C
C. F
D. S

A

D. Although hemoglobin electrophoresis is the
recommended method for hemoglobin identification, solubility testing may be warranted for large-scale screening for hemoglobin S. Solubility testing is possible because the solubility properties of most hemoglobins differ enough from those of hemoglobin S. In this method, sodium hydrosulfite acts as a reducing agent to
deoxygenate hemoglobin. In the presence of
hemoglobin S, the concentrated phosphate
buffer test solution will become turbid because deoxygenated hemoglobin S is insoluble in the buffer solution. Hemoglobins Aj, C, D, and F, when present, will remain soluble in the phosphate buffer solution and show no visible signs of turbidity. Therefore, the detection of turbidity is associated with the presence of hemoglobin S.

68
Q

Which of the following is not quantified using an immunoassay method?

A. Vitamins
B. Hormones
C. Electrolytes
D. Drugs

A

C. Since the conception of radioimmunoassay
(RIA), in the early 1960s, a variety of
immunoassay techniques have been developed and applied to measuring a wide variety of substances that are present in the blood in very small concentrations. Categories of ligands for which immunoassay methods have been developed include drugs, hormones, vitamins, tumor markers, and enzymes. Electrolytes are commonly quantified using ion-selective electrodes. Some drugs that are assayed by immunoassay include digoxin, gentamicin, phenobarbital, phenytoin, and theophylline. Immunoassay methods are available for the vitamins B12 and folic acid. Creatine kinase- MB isoenzyme mass analysis uses an immunoassay technique. The list of hormones that are assayed by immunoassay is extensive. Some of these hormones are thyroxine, triiodothyronine, thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, estradiol, estriol, beta-chorionic gonadotropin, cortisol, prolactin, aldosterone, insulin, gastrin, testosterone, and prostaglandins. The immunoassay methods are generally automated, and enzyme labels and fluorogenic labels are commonly used.

69
Q

Which of the following is a homogeneous immunoassay where separation of the bound from the free-labeled species is not required?

A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Immunoradiometric assay
D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique

A

D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
(EMIT) is an example of a homogeneous
immunoassay technique. A homogeneous assay is one in which separation of the bound and free fraction is unnecessary. The antigen is labeled with an enzyme and competes with the unknown antigen for binding sites on the antibody. The enzyme-labeled antigen that remains in the free fraction is enzymatically active. Therefore, the free labeled antigen can be determined by its action on a substrate in the presence of bound labeled fraction. This type of assay is used commonly on automated instruments. The other techniques mentioned in the question, RIA, ELISA, and IRMA, are termed heterogeneous immunoassays because they require the physical separation of the bound from the free fraction before actual measurement.

70
Q

The substance to be measured reacts with a specific macromolecule of limited binding capacity. Which of the following assays does not employ this principle?

A. Chemiluminescence immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
D. High-performance liquid chromatography

A

D. A number of immunoassay methods have
been developed for the quantification of hormones, drugs, tumor markers, and other analytes that are present in small concentrations in the blood. The overall principle involved is the same. That is, the substance to be measured reacts with a specific macromolecule of limited binding
capacity; frequently, this binder is an antibody. All these assays are similarly dependent on the closeness with which the unknown species and the standard react with the binder. These assays differ only in the specific reagents used. The ELISA system depends on enzyme-labeled antigen. Competitive protein binding (CPB) is a general term for any system that uses serum protein or tissue receptors for binding agents. Other methods based on antigen-antibody reactions, include such assays as fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPI), enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique, and chemiluminescence assays. Although hormones may be quantified using high-performance liquid chromatography, its principle is based on differential partitioning of compounds and not on antigen-antibody reactions as for the immunoassays

71
Q

Which of the following is not associated with the enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)?

A. Is a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay
B. Determines antigen concentration
C. Employs a labeled reactant
D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum
sample

A

D. EMIT employs a homogeneous enzyme
immunoassay method. This means that physical separation of the free labeled antigen from the antibody-bound-labeled antigen is not necessary for measurement. This is possible because only the free labeled antigen remains active. In the EMIT system the antigen is labeled with an enzyme (e.g., glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase). Determination of the drug concentration in the serum sample is made when the free enzyme labeled drug reacts with substrate and coenzyme, resulting in an absorbance change that is measured spectrophotometrically. The drug in the serum sample is the unlabeled antigen in the assay, and it competes with the labeled drug for the binding sites on the antibody

72
Q

When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled to

A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Substrate
D. Coenzyme

A

B. The components needed in EMIT include
the free unlabeled drug (unlabeled antigen) in
the serum specimen, antibody specific to the
drug being quantified, enzyme-labeled drug
(labeled antigen), and substrate and coenzyme specific for the enzyme. In this method, the enzyme is coupled to the drug, producing an enzyme-labeled drug also referred to as an enzyme-labeled antigen. This enzyme-labeled complex competes with free unlabeled drug in the serum sample for the binding sites on the antibody. EMIT therapeutic drug monitoring assays are available for a variety of drugs that are included in the categories of antimicrobial,
antiepileptic, antiasthmatic, cardioactive, and
antineoplastic drugs. The EMIT system is not
limited only to drug assays but is also available for hormone testing

73
Q

The enzyme activity measured in the EMIT is the result of the reaction between the substrate and coenzyme with

A. Free antibody
B. Free unlabeled antigen
C. Free labeled antigen
D. Labeled antigen-antibody complexes

A

C. In the EMIT assay, antibody specific to the
drug being quantified is added to the serum
sample that contains the drug. Substrate and
coenzyme specific for the enzyme label being
used are added. Finally, the enzyme-labeled drug (free labeled antigen) is added to the mixture. The drug in the serum sample and the enzyme-labeled drug compete for the binding sites on the antibody. The binding of the enzyme-labeled drug to the antibody causes a steric alteration that results in decreased enzyme activity. This steric change
prevents the substrate from reacting at the active site of the enzyme, leaving only the free enzyme labeled drug able to react with the substrate and coenzyme. The resulting enzyme activity, measured at 340 nm, is directly proportional to the concentration of the drug in the serum sample. The greater the amount of enzyme activity measured, the greater is the concentration of free enzyme-labeled drug and, therefore, the greater is
the concentration of drug in the serum sample

74
Q

Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor chemiluminescent compound to form a decay product whose light energizes a fluorophore best describes

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay
D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

A

D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay (LOCI™) is a homogeneous technique that is an adaptation of the chemiluminescent immunoassay. Singlet oxygen reacts with the precursor chemiluminescent compound to form a
chemiluminescent product that decays and emits light. This light energy is accepted by a fluorophore, which results in light emission of a longer wavelength. In this assay, the chemiluminescent signal is enhanced by the resulting fluorescent signal which is proportional to the concentration of analyte in the serum sample.

75
Q

Which of the following stimulates the production of singlet oxygen at the surface of the sensitizer particle in a luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay?

A. Radiant energy
B. Heat energy
C. Enzymatic reaction
D. Fluorescent irradiation

A

A. In a luminescent oxygen channeling
immunoassay the antigen links to two antibody coated particles. The first is an antibody-coated sensitizer particle containing a photosensitive dye (singlet oxygen source), and the second is an antibody-coated particle (singlet oxygen receptor) containing a precursor chemiluminescent compound and a fluorophore. Radiant energy is used to irradiate the immunocomplex, which stimulates the production of singlet oxygen at the surface of the sensitizer particle. The singlet oxygen diffuses to the second particle being held in close proximity