Clinical Biochemistry PP Flashcards

1
Q

Increased level of unconjugated bilirubin in
newborns can be seen in:
a. Physiological jaundice in newborns.
b. Crigler-Najjar’s syndrome.
c. Inborn atresia of biliary ducts.
d. Hemolytical disease of newborns
e. Degradation of postpartum hematomas

A

ABDE

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2
Q

Reaven’s syndrome is:
a. A synonym for metabolic syndrome.
b. Impairment of liver function due to salycylate intake.
c. Impaired glycosis, hyperuricemia, dyslipidemias.
d. In obese patients.

A

ACD

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3
Q

Following hereditary diseases are commonly associated with liver damage:
a. Gilbert’s disease
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Deficiency of alpha-1 antitrypsin
d. Hemochromatosis

A

BCD

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4
Q

Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be usually observed in:
a. Cardiac/heart insufficiency
b. Chronic liver disease
c. Dehydration
d. Nephrotic syndrome
e. Renal artery stenosis

A

ABCDE

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5
Q

Increased level of cardiac troponin can be connected with:
a. Severe anemia
b. Contusion of myocardium in patients with polytrauma
c. Severe sepsis
d. Tachyarrhythmisas in thyreotoxicosis

A

ABCD

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6
Q

Which of the following are increased in children?
Children in comparison with adults have higher serum values of:
a. Iron
b. Cholesterol
c. ACP
d. ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
e. Inorganic phosphate

A

CDE

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7
Q

Impairment of renal tubules leads to:
a. Microalbumin
b. β2- microglobulins
c. Albumin in urine
d. Macroproteins in urine

A

A(?)B

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8
Q

Alcohol intoxication leads to:
a. Increase of serum osmolality
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Hyperuricemia
d. Hypoglycemia

A

ABCD

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9
Q

Excretion of 3000 mmol of waste metabolites, 5500ml/day of urine production, urine osmolality of 350 mmol/kg:
a. Oliguria
b. Polyuria
c. We should know GFR to evaluate this case.
d. All metabolites are excreted.

Same questions different options:
a-­‐ Value of glomerular filtration is necessary for evaluation
b-­‐ Not all catabolites are excreted.
The state can be osseced as oliguria
c-­‐ All catabolites are excreted
d-­‐ The patient has polidypsia

A

First Question: B
Second Question: B

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10
Q

Highest amount of myoglobin in AMI occurs at:
a. 12h
b. 36h
c. 72h
d. 3-6h

A

A

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11
Q

Laboratory finding of hyperkalemia and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis can be seen in:
a. Renal failure
b. Hyperaldosteronism
c. Hypoaldosternism or pseudohypoaldosteronism.
d. Treatment with ACE inhibitors.

A

ACD

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12
Q

Main intracellular antioxidants:
a. Glutathione
b. Uric acid
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Homocystein

A

A

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13
Q

Markers of osteoclastic activity:
a. Serum level of osteoclasts
b. Bone isoenzyme of ACP
c. Bone isoenzyme of ALP
d. Deoxypiridoline in urine
e. Hydroxyproline

A

BDE

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14
Q

Evaluation of risk for atherosclerosis:
a. 1-2 weeks after AMI.
b. 6 weeks after AMI.
c. At any time.
d. After correction of troponin levels.

A

?

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15
Q

Which meaning is true in iron deficiency?
a. Serum transferin is increased.
b. Serum transferin is decreased.
c. Serum ferritin is increased.
d. Serum ferritin is decreased.

A

AD

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16
Q

Following tests continuously rise during pregnancy:
a. Plasma estriol.
b. Estriol elimination in urine.
c. Chorionic gonadotropin in serum.
d. Creatine kinase activity in serum.

A

AB

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17
Q
  1. Electrophoretic pattern of chronic liver disease is:
    a. Decreased albumin, increased alpha 1 and beta 2 globulins.
    b. Beta-gamma bridging.
    c. Decreased albumin, alpha 1, alpha 2 and beta 1 globulins, increased gamma-globulins.
    d. Increased alpha 1 and alpha 2 globulins.
A

BC

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18
Q

Aldosterone production is enhanced:
a. Isotonic dehydration
b. Hypertonic dehydration
c. Hypotension
d. ACTH

A

ACD

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19
Q

Glomerular hematuria is confirmed by:
a. Urobilinogen in urine
b. Proteinuria
c. Finding of erythrocyte casts in urine
d. Leukocyturia

A

C

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20
Q

The following enzymes are absent in humans:
a. Uricase
b. Xanthine oxidase
c. Urease
d. Glucose oxidase

A

ACD

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21
Q

Treatment with ethanol is applied in the following intoxications:
a. Methanol
b. Ethylene glycol
c. Antituberculotic drugs
d. Paracetamol

A

AB

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22
Q

In acute renal failure:
a. Serum urea increase is more pronounced than that of creatinine.
b. Serum creatinine rises more rapidly than urea.
c. GFR falls due to hypoperfusion of renal cortex.
d. Intense tubular resorption of water with urea is present.

A

A(?) BC

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23
Q

Absorption of Vitamin B12 depends on:
a. Absorption of lipids.
b. Pancreatic functions.
c. Presence of intrinsic factor in stomach.
d. Presence of homocystein.

A

C

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24
Q

Jaundice in viral hepatitis B is:
a. Observed before increase of ALT activity.
b. Present in 10% of population.
c. Observed before finding of urobilinogen in urine.
d. Caused by mixed hyperbilirubinemia.

A

BD

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25
Q

Bacterial inflammation is characterized by:
a. Increased procalcitonine concentration.
b. Plasma CRP > 100 mg/l.
c. Leukocytosis
d. Increased neopterine concentration.

A

BC

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26
Q

Increased gamma-glutamyltransferase is observed in:
a. Alcoholism
b. Liver steatosis
c. Biliary tract obstruction
d. Secondary liver cancer

A

ABCD

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27
Q

Pregnant women in the 3rd trimester we can
physiologically observe in blood:
a. Increased total cholesterol
b. Decreased albumin
c. Increased creatinine
d. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
e. Decreased total leucocytes count
f. Increased ALP
g. Increased a1-antitrypsin
h. Increased uric acid

A

ABDFGH

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28
Q

The cause of hypokalemia can be administration of:
a. Aldosterone antagonists
b. ACE-inhibitors
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Furosemide

A

CD

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29
Q
  1. Marker of increased bone resorption is:
    a. Increased bone isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase.
    b. Increased loss of hydroxyproline in urine.
    c. All above mentioned tests.
    d. Increased level of osteocalcin in serum.
A

BD

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30
Q
  1. Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by:
    a. Increased losses of inorganic phosphate into urine.
    b. Hypokalemia
    c. Increased level of parathyroid hormone.
    d. Hypocalcemia
A

CD

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31
Q
  1. During treatment of acid-base balance disorders the following parameter should be normalized:
    a. Both pH and BE
    b. pH
    c. BE
    d. BE in the case of metabolic disorder and pCO2 in respiratory disorders.
A

B

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32
Q
  1. Lactic acidosis / metabolic acidosis:
    a. Is accompanied with insufficient oxygenation of blood and tissue hypoxia.
    b. Is corrected always by hydrogenocarbonate administration.
    c. Can accompany diseases of liver, kidney, inborn errors of metabolism, leukemia, etc.
    d. Can be caused by impaired lactate degradation.
A

ACD

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33
Q
  1. Acute pancreatitis is accompanied with:
    a. Hypocalcemia
    b. Hypercalcemia
    c. Normal activity of amylase
    d. Hyperamylasemia
A

AD

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34
Q
  1. Increased blood HCO3
    - concentration:
    a. Long lasting vomitus.
    b. Chronic metabolic acidosis.
    c. Chronic respiratory acidosis.
    d. Acute metabolic alkalosis.
A

ACD

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35
Q
  1. Following change(s) in serum can stimulate parathyroid hormone secretion:
    a. Decrease of inorganic phosphate concentration.
    b. Increase of ionized calcium concentration.
    c. Decrease of ionized calcium concentration.
    d. Increase of inorganic phosphate concentration.
A

CD

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36
Q
  1. Treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (by insulin) is usually accompanied by:
    a. Decrease of ionized fractions of Ca and Mg.
    b. Increase of ionized fractions of Ca and Mg.
    c. Increase of serum concentration of K, P and Mg.
    d. Decrease of serum concentration of K, P and Mg.
A

AD

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37
Q
  1. Increased excretional fraction of water can be found:
    a. In chronic renal failure.
    b. In kidney tubular damage.
    c. In acute renal failure.
    d. In shock kidney.
A

AB

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38
Q
  1. The following tests decrease in pregnancy:
    a. Serum albumin
    b. Serum urea
    c. Glomerular filtration rate
    d. Uricemia
A

AB

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39
Q
  1. When we compare 2 (and more) results of one method (ex: CRP - other in the same patient, to
    decide whether the result significantly … doesn’t change we should take into account:
    a. Method precision and interindividual variability.
    b. Method precision and intraindividual variability.
    c. Method trueness and interindividual variability.
    d. Method trueness and intraindividual variability.
A

B

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40
Q
  1. Anemia of chronic diseases (ACD) is characterized by (measured in plasma):
    a. Increased hepcidin.
    b. Increased soluble transferrin receptors.
    c. Decreased iron.
    d. Decreased transferrin.
    e. Decreased ferritin
A

ACD

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41
Q
  1. Chronic alcohol abuse is accompanied with:
    a. Increased activity of glutamil transferase.
    b. Increased concentration of carbohydrate deficient transferring.
    c. Increased volume of erythrocytes. (only if it’s referring to size- macrocytic anemia)
A

ABC

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42
Q
  1. Protein S-100B:
    a. Its increased concentration in serum has (negative) prognostic value in brain trauma.
    b. Its decreased concentration in serum has (negative)
    prognostic value in brain trauma.
    c. Is increasingly produced when astrocytes are damaged.
    d. Is increasingly produced when cortex neurons are damaged.
A

AC

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43
Q
  1. Plasma urea concentration = 35 mmol/l:
    a. Slightly elevated.
    b. Highly Elevated.
    c. Cannot be survided.
    d. Indication for hemodialysis.
A

BD

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44
Q
  1. Name the typical disturbance of acid-base balance in
    terminal stadium of acute respiratory distress syndrome:
    a. Respiratory acidosis
    b. Metabolic Acidosis
    c. Metabolic alkalosis
    d. Hypo with not respond to oxygen treatment.
A

AB

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45
Q
  1. Albumin does not transfer:
    a. Free fatty acids
    b. Calcium
    c. Thyroxin
    d. Iron
A

D

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46
Q
  1. Paradoxical aciduria means:
A

a. Acid urine in metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia.

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47
Q
  1. Buffer base value in serum (Na + K – Cl) is increase in:
A

a. Metabolic alkalosis

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48
Q
  1. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by:
    a. Hypophosphatemia
    b. Hypercalcemia
    c. Hypercalciuria
    d. Hyperphosphaturia
A

ABCD

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49
Q
  1. Methemoglobin:
    a. Is produced by hemoglobin oxidation (ex: Fe (II) is converted to Fe (III)).
    b. Originates during intoxication by nitrites, aniline dyes or sulfonamides.
    c. May be increased in newborns due to immature reducing system
A

ABC

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50
Q
  1. During diarrhea:
A

a. Hypertonic dehydration can occur

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51
Q
  1. Depression of respiratory centre can occur in pCO2
    values :
    a. > 8 kPa
    b. > 6 kPa
    c. < 6 kPa
    d. < 8 kPa
A

D

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52
Q
  1. Global respiratory insufficiency is defined as:
    a. Hypoxemia and hypercapnea.
    b. Hypoxemia and hypocapnea.
    c. Hypoxemia only.
    d. Hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis.?
A

A D(?)

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53
Q
  1. When hypokalemia is the most severe:
    a. K+ = 2.5mmol/l, blood pH = 7.4
    b. K+ = 2.5mmol/l, blood pH = 7.6
    c. K+ = 3.5mmol/l, blood pH = 7.6
    d. K+ = 2.5mmol/l, blood pH = 7.2
    e. K+ = 2,5 mmol/l, blood pH = 7.0 → best possibility if available
A

DE

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54
Q
  1. Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by:
    a. Hypertension
    b. Low rennin concentration.
    c. High rennin concentration.
    d. Hypertension, which responds to ACE-inhibitors.
A

AB

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55
Q
  1. Physiological range of pCO2 in arterial blood is:
A

a. 4.7 – 6.0 kPa

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56
Q
  1. Kidney tubular damage can be caused by:
    a. Organic solvents.
    b. Quicksilver and cadmium.
    c. X-ray contrast substances.
    d. Non-opiate analgesics (non-steroids and inflammatory drugs).
A

BCD

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57
Q
  1. For detection of vital fetus danger in last trimester the following determination is indicated:
    a. Fetal fibronectin in cervicovaginal secretion.
    b. Serum estriol or its losses in urine.
    c. hCG in serum or its losses in urine.
    d. Alpha 1-fetoprotein in serum.
A

AB

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58
Q
  1. Gilbert’s syndrome (juvenile intermittent …) is:
    a. Can be diagnosed by long-lasting fasting test.
    b. Characterized by increased concentration of unconjugated bilirubin.
    c. Benign syndrome.
    d. Does not have uroblinogen in urine.?
A

ABCD

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59
Q
  1. Metabolic disturbances of acid-base balance are compensated or corrected by:
    a. Lung function only.
    b. Activity of lung and kidney (in the case of intact renal function, kidney must … primary cause of ABB disturbances.
    c. GIT function only.
    d. Renal function only.
A

B

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60
Q
  1. Decreased activity of cholinesterase can be found in:
    a. Organophosphate poisoning
    b. Chronic hepatopathy
    c. Nephrotic syndrome
    d. Protein malnutrition
A

ABD

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61
Q
  1. Plasma creatinine value 400 μmol/l:
    a. Can be also caused by another disease than renal insufficiency (can have other causes but not diseases, like exercise, diet or drugs).
    b. Is dangerous for the patient.
    c. Is caused exclusively by renal insufficiency only if …
    d. Is always caused by renal insufficiency.
A

AB

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62
Q
  1. Laboratory markers of chronic liver disease are:
    a. Polyclonal hyperimmunoglobulinemia (can be used but are of low specificity).
    b. Increased tranferrin concentration in serum.
    c. Hypoalbuminemia
    d. Decreased tranferrin concentration in serum.
A

ACD

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63
Q
  1. Positive feedback is found between:
    a. Glycemia and glucagon secretion.
    b. Concentration of tyrosine in plasma and TSH secretion.
    c. Glycemia and insulin secretion.
    d. Inorganic phosphate in plasma and parathyroid
    hormone secretion
A

CD

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64
Q
  1. Highest glucose level is in:
    a. Plasma of capillary blood.
    b. Plasma of venous blood.
    c. Full capillary blood.
    d. Full venous blood.
A

A

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65
Q
  1. For determination of creatinine clearance is true:
    a. 24h urine is collected for creatinine determination.
    b. 24h urine volume, patient’s body mass and height must be stated.
    c. 3 days before the test and in the day of the test the patient restricts meat and avoids physical effort.
    d. Blood is collected for creatinine determination.
A

ABCD

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66
Q
  1. Urine pH increases:
    a. In diabetics.
    b. After diet with meat.
    c. After vegetarian diet.
    d. In urinary tract infection.
A

CD

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67
Q
  1. What acid-base balance disorder would you diagnose with the help of the following graph (pH 7.1, pCO2
    2.1 kPa, BE ECT = 23.9 mmol/l)?
    a. Acute RAL
    b. Acute MAC
    c. Fully compensated RAL
    d. Fully compensated MAC
A

D

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68
Q
  1. Tubular proteinuria is typical for:
    a. Intoxication with cadmium.
    b. Diabetic nephropathy.
    c. Intoxication with arsenic.
    d. Intoxication with Amanita phalloides.
A

A

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69
Q
  1. Imagine a method in that increased values are pathological. Diagnostic sensitivity of the method is
    decreased when:
    a. We increase cut-off value.
    b. We decrease cut-off value.
    c. There are more falsely negative results.
    d. There are more falsely positive results.
A

AC

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70
Q
  1. Iron is a component of:
    a. Catalase
    b. Cytochromes
    c. Peroxidase
    d. Alkaline phosphatase
A

ABC

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71
Q
  1. Acidemia is accompanied by:
    a. Release of potassium from cells.
    b. Shift of dissociative curve of Hb to the right and improvement of O2 release in the tissues.
    c. Activation of respiratory center.
    d. Increase of ionized fractions of Ca 2+ and Mg2+.
A

ABCD

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72
Q
  1. Alkalemia leads to:
    a. Decreased stimulation of respiratory center.
    b. Decreased of ionized calcium and magnesium in serum.
    c. Worsening of oxygen release from oxyhemoglobulin.
    d. Decrease of kalemia.
A

ABCD

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73
Q
  1. Patient has high titers of antibodies against surface antigen of hepatitis B and high titers of antibodies against envelope antigen of hepatitis B virus. Which
    statement is true?
    a. It is an indicator of past hepatitis B.
    b. The patient underwent seroconversion (and probably
    is contagious).
    c. The patient underwent seroconversion (and probably is not contagious).
    d. The patient has undergone a successful against hepatitis B.
A

AC

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74
Q
  1. In patients with Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular
    dystrophy) we can find:
    a. Decreased ceruplasmin concentration in blood.
    b. Increased concentration of free copper in serum.
    c. Decreased loss of copper in urine.
    d. Increased concentration of copper in serum.
    e. Increased loss of copper in urine
A

ABE

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75
Q
  1. If blood was not transported to the laboratory changes can occur:
    a. Glycemia decreases.
    b. Serum potassium and phosphate increases.
    c. Serum potassium increases and phosphate decreases.
    d. Serum potassium and phosphate decreases.
A

AB

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76
Q
  1. C-peptide is a marker of:
    a. Long-term diabetes compensation.
    b. Endogenous production of insulin.
    c. Possible onset of late complications of diabetes.
    d. Acute inflammation.
A

B

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77
Q
  1. Cystatin C is:
    a. Low-molecular weight protein.
    b. Increased in serum as a result of a decrease glomerular.
    c. Increased in urine in the case of tubular cells damage.
    d. Produced with a constant rate.
A

ABCD

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78
Q
  1. The following findings in urine sediment are considered pathological:
    a. Hyaline casts
    b. Cystine crystals
    c. Flat polygonal epithelial cells
    d. Round epithelial cells
A

BD

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79
Q
  1. Erythrocyte energy:
    a. Aerobic
    b. Anaerobic glycolysis
    c. ….
    d. Aerobic glycolysis
A

BD

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80
Q
  1. Continuous metabolic alkalosis is caused by:
    a. Depletion of extracellular fluid.
    b. Chronic depletion.
    c. Potassium depletion.
    d. Increased aldosterone production.
A

ABCD

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81
Q
  1. Uremia is a term for:
    a. Increased level of uric acid in serum.
    b. Increased level of urea in serum.
    c. Finding of blood in urine.
    d. Renal failure accompanied by clinical symptoms.
A

BD

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82
Q
  1. Concentration of serum myoglobin is dependent on:
    a. Physical activity before blood sampling.
    b. Sex
    c. Muscle mass.
    d. None of the answers is correct.
A

ABC

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83
Q
  1. To calculate corrected chloride, we have to know serum concentration of:
    a. Albumin
    b. Bicarbonates
    c. Chlorides
    d. Sodium
A

CD

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84
Q
  1. Sodium concentration in strongly chylous serum by
    use of ion selective electrode comparison with flame
    photometry is:
    a. Lower
    b. Higher
    c. Less accurate
    d. More accurate
A

BD

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85
Q
  1. You have just admitted a patient with acute myocardial infarction. In the process of determining the cause of this atherosclerosis complication, you would like to know concentrations of total cholesterol, HDL + LDL cholesterols and triglycerides. When can you take
    the blood for determination of these risk factors?
    a. At any time.
    b. First 2 weeks (best 4 weeks) after myocardium infarction.
    c. After normalization of plasma cardiac troponin level.
    d. During 24 hours or after 3 months after myocardium infarction.
A

D

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86
Q
  1. Gestational diabetes mellitus:
    a. Can be related to deficiency of chromium.
    b. Is related to hormonal changes during gestation.
    c. Develops in the second half of pregnancy.
    d. Develops in the first half of pregnancy.
A

ABC

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87
Q
  1. Methanol intoxication is characterized by:
    a. Brown skin color.
    b. Increased osmolar gap.
    c. Metabolic acidosis from increased anions.
    d. Optic nerve damage.
A

BCD

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88
Q
  1. AST/ALT ratio > 1 can be found in:
    a. Active liver cirrhosis.
    b. After heavy physical work.
    c. Metastatic disease of liver.
    d. Myocardial infarction.
A

ABCD

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89
Q
  1. What acid-base balance disorder would you
    diagnose with the help of the following English graph (pH 7.39, pCO2 4.0 kPa, BE ECT – 4.8
    mmol/l)?
    a. Acute RAL
    b. Fully compensated RAL
    c. Fully compensated MAC
    d. Acute MAC
A

B

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90
Q
  1. Characteristic finding in hyperparathyroidism: a. Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphaturia.
    b. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphaturia.
    c. Hypercalcemia and hyperphosphaturia.
    d. Hypocalcemia and hypophosphaturia.
A

C

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91
Q
  1. … of indications of hemolysis treatment is serum potassium level higher … :
    a. 8.5 mmol/l
    b. 5.5 mmol/l
    c. 6.5 mmol/l
    d. 7.5 mmol/l
A

C

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92
Q
  1. Which of the following possibilities can cause MAC?
    a. Hypoalbuminemia
    b. Intoxication with methanol or ethylene glycol.
    c. Renal failure.
    d. Decompensated liver cirrhosis.
A

BCD

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93
Q
  1. Three days before glucose tolerance test, the patient
    should eat:
    a. Diet has no influence on the result.
    b. Diet enriched with fat.
    c. High-saccharide diet.
    d. Low-saccharide diet.
A

C

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94
Q
  1. In comparison with adults, one-year old infant has higher upper reference limit of:
    a. Urea
    b. Alkaline phosphatase
    c. α2-globulins
    d. Bilirubin
A

BC

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95
Q
  1. The main treatment goal in a patient with dyslipidemia is:
    a. Increase HDL cholesterol over 1 mmol/l.
    b. Decrease hypersensitive CRP under 1 mg/l.
    c. Decrease LDL cholesterol under 4 mmol/l.
    d. Decrease risk of cardiovascular disease.
A

D

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96
Q
  1. Increased concentration of α1-fetoprotein (AFP) in serum can help us in diagnosis of:
    a. Multiple myeloma
    b. Primary liver cancer
    c. Malignant teratoma
    d. Metastatic liver cancer
A

BC

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97
Q
  1. Ketone bodies in urine can be found as a result of:
    a. Lactic acidosis of type B
    b. Hypoxia
    c. Long-lasting vomitus
    d. Starvation
A

CD

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98
Q
  1. Creatine kinase:
    a. Is increased after epileptic paroxysm.
    b. Is increased in myocardial damage.
    c. Rises after physical activity.
    d. Activity in serum is higher in women than in men.
A

ABC

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99
Q
  1. Parametric way for determination reference ranges of laboratory method:
    a. Use median and standard deviation for the calculation.
    b. Use mean and standard deviation for the
    calculation.
    c. Need normal distribution.
    d. Can be used in all methods.
A

BC

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100
Q
  1. Hyperkalemia can be caused by:
    a. Antagonists of aldosterone.
    b. Furosemide
    c. High doses of glucocorticoids.
    d. ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitors.
    e. Renal failure
A

ADE

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101
Q
  1. During decrease of glomerular filtration rate, increases serum level of:
    a. Cystatin C
    b. Creatinin
    c. Myoblobin
    d. β2 – microglobulin
A

ABCD

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102
Q
  1. Electrophoretic type of acute inflammation can be found in patients with:
    a. Malignant neoplasia
    b. Bronchopneumonia
    c. Sepsis
    d. Acute myocardial infarction
A

ABCD

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103
Q
  1. For glucose to be properly utilized we need:
    a. Insulin
    b. Inulin
    c. Chromium
    d. Glucagon
A

AC

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104
Q
  1. Tubular proteinuria is typical for:
A

a. Intoxication with cadmium.

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105
Q
  1. For adequate absorption and metabolism of Iron is important:
    a. Ceruloplasmin
    b. Prealbumin c. Transferrin
    d. Vitamin C
A

ACD

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106
Q
  1. Men compared to women have typical higher activity of:
    a. Creatine kinase
    b. Gamma glutamyl transferase
A

AB

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107
Q
  1. Erythropoietin:
    a. Is hemopoietic growth factor.
    b. Is produced in kidneys.
    c. Is glycoprotein that stimulates erythrocyte maturation.
A

ABC

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108
Q
  1. Check values of laboratory results that can be considered as the cause of MAL:
    a. Hypoalbuminemia
    b. Normochloridemia during hypernatremia (decreased corrected chlorides).
    c. Hyperchloridemia during significant hypernatremia (decreased corrected chlorides).
    d. Hyperphosphatemia
A

ABC

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109
Q
  1. Reference values of pH in arterial blood in an adult person are:
A

a. 7.36 – 7.44

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110
Q
  1. Neuromuscular irritability is increased by:
    a. None of above mentioned ions.
    b. H+
    c. Mg2+
    d. Ca2+
A

A

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111
Q
  1. In kidney failure usually increases serum concentration of:
    a. Kallium
    b. Magnesium
    c. Anorganic phosphate
A

ABC

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112
Q
  1. Examination of stool for occult bleeding:
    a. Can be performed chemically (pseudoperoxidase reaction of hemoglobin) after 3 days diet.
    b. Can be performed immunochemically (Ab against human globin), diet is not necessary.
    c. Is a screening method for colorectal carcinoma.
A

ABC

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113
Q
  1. All disturbances of ABB:
    a. We try to correct to target pH.
    b. We try to treat according to primary disease.
A

ABC

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114
Q
  1. For determination of urine losses of urea (or for calculation of nitrogen balance) … to deliver:
    a. 24h urine preserved by HCl.
    b. 24h urine preserved by thymol in isopropanol.
    c. 24 urine preserved by cooling.
    d. 24h urine without any preservation.
A

A(?)BC(?)

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115
Q
  1. Increased concentration of myoglobin in serum 4 hours after chest pain onset diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
    a. Does not rule out.
    b. excludes in persons with renal failure
    c. confirms
    d. confirms in persons with normal kidney function
    only
A

A

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116
Q
  1. Determination of microalbuminuria is indicated:
    a. In the case of negative proteinuria by strip test in diabetics and hypertonics.
    b. Independently on the result of protein determination in urine by a strip test.
    c. Only in resting (night) urine.
    d. In the case of positive proteinuria by strip test in diabetics and hypertonics.
A

A (C?)

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117
Q
  1. Which meaning is correct is acute pancreatitis?
    a. Serum trypsin is increased.
    b. Serum calcium is decreased due to its binding to fatty
    c. C-reactive protein is significantly increased.
A

ABC

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118
Q
  1. Check possible causes of MAL:
    a. Citrate dialysis
    b. Secondary hyperaldosteronism
    c. Hypoalbuminemia
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism
A

ABCD

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119
Q
  1. Physiological saline solution (0,9% NaCl) has:
    a. pH 7.0.
    b. Na+ = 155 mmol/l.
    c. Cl- = 155 mmol/L
A

ABC

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120
Q
  1. Renal tubular cells damage is caused by:
    a. Mercury
    b. Cadmium
    c. Thalium
    d. Lead
A

AB

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121
Q
  1. Urine stone formation from ammonia-magnesium
    phosphate is supported by:
    a. Alkaline urine
    b. Urinary tract infection
A

AB

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122
Q
  1. Marker of long-­‐term compensation of diabetes is:
    a. Glycated hemoglobin
    b. Insulin concentration after a load with 75g of glucose
    c. C-peptide
    d. Fasting concentration of insulin.
A

A

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123
Q
  1. Pernicious anemia:
    a. Is caused by deficiency of vit. B12.
    b. Is macrocytic.
    c. Is often found in patients after gastrectomy.
A

ABC

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124
Q
  1. Plasmatic glucose concentration in a fasting random sample of a patient without any complains was 8 mmol/l. Which statement is true?
    a. Patient has diabetes mellitus.
    b. We invite patient to control blood collection in another day.
    c. We will perform o GTT.
    d. We collect blood to determine glycemia in the same day.
A

B

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125
Q
  1. When blood for acid-base balance and blood gases determination was preserved in laboratory on
    thawing ice, the following changes can occur:
    a. pH decreases
    b. pO2 decreases
A

AB

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126
Q
  1. Liver damage (liver necrosis) is characterized by:
    a. Lower activity of cholinesterase.
    b. Extreme increase of aminotransferases (10-100
    times).
    c. Higher activity of AST in comparison with ALT.
    d. increased activity of cholinesterase
A

ABC

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127
Q
  1. Calculate urinary protein loss per 24 hours when you have following results:
    Total protein in serum 66 g/l
    Total urinary protein 7.4 g/l
    Urinary volume per 24h 1427 ml
    Patient weight 83 Kg
    Urinary protein loss write in grams per day with precision to 1 decimal point. Don’t write the unit itself (g/day) to the result.
A

a. 10.5 // 10.56

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128
Q
  1. Hyperglycemia is caused by:
    a. Adrenalin
    b. Glucagon
    c. Cortisol
A

ABC

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129
Q
  1. The percentage of results from healthy population within reference ranges is:
    a. 95%
    b. 99%
    c. The number is not defined, but it is usually more than a half.
    d. 90%
A

A

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130
Q
  1. Peripheral and central type of hypothyreosis can be distinguished by:
A

a. TSH level

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131
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma can be accompanied by:
    a. Renal amyloidosis
    b. High erythrocyte sedimentation rate
    c. Osteolytic centers
A

ABC

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132
Q
  1. Risk of atherosclerosis increases in:
    a. Patients with chronic renal failure
    b. Diabetics
    c. Hyperinsulinism
A

ABC

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133
Q
  1. Oxygen release from blood to tissues is facilitated by:
    a. Increase concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate in
    erythrocytes
    b. Acidemia
    c. Alkalemia d. Hyperkapnia
A

ABD

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134
Q
  1. Parathormone action is to:
    a. Decrease resorption of phosphates I renal tubules.
    b. Release calcium from bones.
A

AB

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135
Q
  1. Hemolysis increases serum activity of:
    a. AST
    b. Lactate dehydrogenase
    c. Amylase
    d. Creatine kinase
A

AB

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136
Q
  1. In renal failure:
    a. Is usually hyperkalemia.
    b. Can be found hyperkalemia in some cases.
    c. Is always anuria
    d. Is usually hypercalcemia
A

AB

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137
Q
  1. Falsely positive results cause:
    a. Higher clinical specificity.
    b. Lower clinical sensitivity.
    c. Lower clinical specificity.
    d. Higher clinical sensitivity.
A

C

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138
Q
  1. Negative feedback exists between:
    a. Glycemia and glucagon secretion.
    b. Cortisol concentration in plasma and ACTH secretion.
    c. Ionized calcium in plasma and parathormone secretion.
A

ABC

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139
Q
  1. Determination of serum hCG (chorionic gonadotropin) concentration is used for:
    a. Diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.
    b. Diagnosis of early spontaneous miscarriage.
    c. Early diagnosis of pregnancy.
A

ABC

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140
Q
  1. Hyperaldosteronism is typically accompanied with:
A

a. Hypokalemia

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141
Q
  1. In case of suspicion on macroamylasemia we should send to laboratory:
    a. Coagulable blood and first morning urine for determination of amylase.
    b. Coagulable blood for serum amylase determination
    only
    c. Coagulable blood for pancreatic isoenzyme of amylase determination only
    d. 24 hour urine for determination of urine amylase only
A

A

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142
Q
  1. In patients with renal tubular acidosis type I (distal) is the following finding:
    a. Alkaline urine
    b. Hypokalemia
    c. Tendency to formation of urine stones from calcium phosphate.
A

ABC

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143
Q
  1. Bacterial meningitis can be distinguished by:
    a. Low glucose, increase protein, CRP and lactate, pleocytosis with prevailing polynuclear cells.
    b. Protein-cytological association.
A

AB

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144
Q
  1. What statement is true?
    a. Secretion of aldosterone is regulated by kidney through rennin and angiotensin.
    b. Aldosterone is created by suprarenal cortex.
    c. Aldosterone increases losses of potassium in urine.
A

ABC

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145
Q
  1. In extrarenal cause of renal failure:
    a. Urine osmolality greater than serum osmolality.
    b. Sodium concentration in urine is less than 20
    mmol/l.
A

AB

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146
Q
  1. Which finding is suspect of metabolic alkalosis?
A

a. Na+ = 140 mmol/l, K+ = 3.0 mmol/l, Cl- ? 82

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147
Q
  1. Which laboratory findings can be considered as a cause of MAC?
    a. Hyperlactatemia
    b. Mitochondria during signficant hyponatremia.?
    c. Presence of ketonbodies. (ketoacidosis- ex: starving)
A

AC

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148
Q
  1. Patients with decompansated liver cirrhosis usually
    have:
    a. Secondary hyperaldosteronism
    b. Metabolic alkalosis
    c. Metabolic acidosis
    d. Respiratory alkalosis
A

ABCD

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149
Q
  1. A tentative calculation of serum osmolality is:
    a. Na + 2x urea + glucose
    b. 2x Na + urea + glucose
    c. Na + urea + glucose
    d. Na + urea + 2x glucose
A

B

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150
Q
  1. When hypernatremia occurs, sodium stores in organism can be:
    a. decreased
    b. increased
    c. normal
    d. evaluated according to natremia and hydratation.
A

ABCD

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151
Q
  1. When intravascular hemolysis occurs:
    a. Serum activity of lactate dehydrogenase is increased.
    b. Serum concentration of haptoglobin decreases.
    c. Haptoglobin creates complexes with hemoglobin.
A

ABC

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152
Q
  1. Maximal clinical sensitivity is achieved when method has:
    a. Also maximal analytical specificty.
    b. Also maximal analytical sensitivity.
    c. No false negative results.
    d. No false positive results.
A

C

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153
Q
  1. Fractional excretion of water increases in:
    a. Interstitial nephritis
    b. High water intake
    c. Chronic glomerulopathies
A

ABC

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154
Q
  1. Exudate in comparison with transudate has higher:
    a. Protein
    b. Cholesterol
    c. Lactate
    d. Glucose
A

ABC

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155
Q
  1. Adenohypophysis does not produce:
    a. Thyreotropin (TSH)
    b. Thyreoliberin (TRH)
    c. Melanotropin (MSH)
    d. Melatonin
A

BCD

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156
Q
  1. Increased unmeasured anions can be caused by:
    a. Hyperlactatemia
    b. Increased organic acids during some intoxications.
    c. Increased ketone bodies in the blood.
A

ABC

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157
Q
  1. At the end of pregnancy we observe the increase of:
    a. Triglycerides
    b. Uric acid
    c. Cholesterol
    d. Urea
A

ABC

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158
Q
  1. Finding of metabolic acidosis with increased unmeasured anions is suspicious of:
    a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    b. Ethylenglycole or methanol intoxication
    c. Paracetamole or salicylate intoxication
    d. Uremia
A

ABCD

159
Q
  1. Oliguria is supported by the following results:
    a. Urine Na+ = 15 mmol/l
    b. Serum urea = 40 mmol/l, Serum creatinine = 180
A

AB

160
Q
  1. Risk of atherogenesis is proportional to:
    a. Decreased apo A-I/apo B ratio.
    b. Degree of insulinoresistance.
A

AB

161
Q
  1. For preschool children is typical increased activity
    of:
A

a. Alkaline phosphatase

162
Q
  1. For screening purposes we prefer method with:
A

a. The highest clinical sensitivity.

163
Q
  1. Liver produces:
    a. Uric acid
    b. Urea
    c. Albumin
    d. Transferrin
A

ABCD

164
Q
  1. When liver failure occurs:
    a. Serum activity of cholinesterase decreases.
    b. Serum urea concentration decreases.
    c. Plasma ammonia concentration increases.
    d. Mixed hyperbilirubinemia is present.
A

ABCD

165
Q
  1. Cholinesterase is produced in:
    a. Liver
    b. Muscle cells
    c. Kidneys
    d. Pancreas
A

AB

166
Q
  1. Blood for lactate determination has tube collected
    into:
    a. heparine
    b. NaF + Na2EDTA
    c. A teste tube without any addition
    d. Citrate ?
A

BC(?)

167
Q
  1. Albumin in cerebrospinal fluid:
    a. Determination of its concentration in CSF and in serum is important for examination of hematoencephalic barrier.
    b. Penetrates through hematoencephalic barrier.
    c. Albumin ratio of CSF/serum concentrations is used
    for determination of CSF immunoglobulin origin.
A

ABC

168
Q
  1. Newborns of diabetic mothers have higher
    occurrence of:
    a. Hypertrophic newborns with tendency to
    hypoglycemia after delivery
    b. Intracranial hemorrhage
    c. Respiratory distress syndrome
    d. Inborn developmental errors
A

ABCD

169
Q
  1. Examination of BNP (brain natriuretic peptide) is indicated:
    a. When hypernatremia occurs.
    b. For screening of patients with latent heart failure.
    c. When hyponatremia occurs.
    d. After hypofysectomia.
A

B

170
Q
  1. For acute pancreatitis diagnosis we determine the following enzymes:
    a. Lipase in serum
    b. Elastase -1 (pancreatic) in stool – for chronic pancreatitis
    c. Amylase in serum
    d. Amylase in urine
A

ACD

171
Q
  1. Calcemia is evaluated together with:
    a. Albumin
    b. Magnesium
    c. Inorganic phosphate
    d. Blood pH
A

ABCD

172
Q
  1. Following change(s) in serum can stimulate parathormone secretion:
    a. Decrease of inorganic phosphate concentration
    b. Increased of ionized calcium concentration
    c. Decrease of ionized calcium concentration
    d. Increase of inorganic phosphate concentration
A

CD

173
Q
  1. Calculate urinary protein loss per 24 hours when you have following results:
    Total protein in serum 71.9 g/l
    Total urinary protein 2.4 g/l
    Urinary volume per 24 hours 1461 ml
    Patient weight 81 kg
    Urinary protein loss write in grams per day with precision to 1 decimal point.
A

a. 3.5

174
Q
  1. Hypoalbuminemia accompanies:
    a. Protein malnutrition
    b. Dehydration
    c. Chronic liver diseases
    d. Nephrotic syndrome
A

ACD

175
Q
  1. Urine sample from 24h collection was sent to the laboratory for proteinuria determination. The concentration of protein in the urine was 2g/l and diuresis was 2000 ml. what are losses of protein into urine?
    a. Protein loss cannot be calculated from these peaces of information.
    b. 2 g/24h
    c. 8 g/24h
    d. 4 g/24h
A

D

176
Q
  1. Which conclusions are possible?
    a. Hypoalbuminemic MAL
    b. MAC caused by increased phosphates
    c. Dilutional MAL
A

AB

177
Q
  1. After long-lasting physical load in serum increases: Physical exercise leads to increase of:
    a. Lactate
    b. ALT
    c. AST
    d. CK
A

ACD

178
Q
  1. Na+ = 135 mmol/L, K+ = 5 mmol/L, Cl- = 85 mmol/L
    the patient has:
    a. No disease, healthy
    b. Metabolic acidosis
    c. Metabolic alkalosis
A

C

179
Q
  1. For differentiation between CSF and other possible secretions (nasal, from ears) we indicate optimally:
    a. Determination of beta2-microglobulin (BMG), in CSF its concentration is high.
    b. Determination of beta2-microglobulin (BMG), in CSF its concentration is low.
    c. Determination of beta trace protein (BTP), in CSF its concentration is high.
    d. Determination of beta trace protein (BTP), in CSF its concentration is low.
A

C

180
Q
  1. Antioxidative effect is observed in:
    a. Provitamin A
    b. Lipoic acid
    c. Vitamin C
    d. Vitamin E
A

ABCD

181
Q
  1. Relate content of total body fluid depends on:
    a. Sex
    b. Antioxidant capacity of blood
    c. Body constitution
    d. Age
A

ACD

182
Q
  1. The form and severity of poison effect is dependent on:
    a. On the form of poison.
    b. Poison dose.
    c. On the way of administration.
    d. Optic properties of poison.
A

ABC

183
Q
  1. Achlorhydria of gastric juice causes impaired:
    a. Lipolysis
    b. Absorption of calcium
    c. Proteolysis
    d. Absorption of iron
A

BCD

184
Q
  1. Men have physiologically higher concentration of:
    a. Creatinine kinase
    b. ALT
    c. Creatinine
    d. HDL-cholesterol
A

AC

185
Q
  1. Essential trace elements are:
    a. Cadmium
    b. Chromium
    c. Zinc
    d. Selenium
A

BCD

186
Q
  1. High income of vitamin C can cause falsely negative result of urine strip test for:
    a. Glucose
    b. Nitrites
    c. Blood
    d. Bilirubin
A

AC

187
Q
  1. Metabolic syndrome is:
    a. Impairment of renal function caused by paracetamol.
    b. Impairment of liver function due to administration of salicylates.
    c. Parallel finding of impaired glucose tolerance and dyslipidemia in obese patient.
    d. Increased risk of atherosclerosis.
A

CD

188
Q
  1. Calculate urinary protein loss per 24h when you
    have following results:
    Total protein in serum 83.6 g/l
    Total urinary protein 6.3 g/l
    Urinary volume per 24 hours 1359 ml
    Patient weight 52 kg
    Urinary protein loss write in grams per day with precision to 1 decimal point itself (g/day) to the result.
    a. 8.6
A

A

189
Q
  1. Renal type of glycosuria can be found in:
    a. Type II diabetes mellitus
    b. Fanconi’s syndrome
    c. Decreased renal threshold for glucose.
    d. Decreased glomerular filtration rate.
A

BC

190
Q
  1. Prerenal proteinuria can be caused by:
    a. Fever
    b. Cadmium poisoning
    c. Intravascular hemolysis
    d. Extensive crush of skeletal muscles.
    e. Multiple myeloma with production of free light chains of immunoglobulins
A

CDE

191
Q
  1. C-reactive protein (CRP):
    a. Is used for assessment of bacterial inflammation examination.
    b. Is synthetized in liver after stimulation of interleukin 6.
    c. Reacts more rapidly to presence of inflammation than erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
    d. Is used for rheumatoid arthritis activity assessment.
A

ABCD

192
Q
  1. Acute intoxication with ethanol demonstrates by: a. Serum osmolality increase by 23 mmol/l with each 1g/l ethanol.
    b. Significant serum osmolality increase.
    c. Metabolic acidosis
    d. The difference between measured and calculated
    osmolality is not marked.
A

ABC

193
Q
  1. Check true statements:
    a. Trueness + analytical specifity = precission
    b. Trueness + accuracy = precission
    c. Accuracy + precission = trueness
    d. Trueness + precission = accuracy
A

D

194
Q
  1. “Negative acute phase reactants” are:
    a. Albumin
    b. Prealbumin
    c. C-reactive protein
    d. Orosomucoid
    e. Transferrin
A

ABE

195
Q
  1. Increased serum concentration of myoglobin can be caused by:
    a. Renal failure
    b. Damage to skeletal muscles
    c. Unstable angina pectoris
    d. Acute myocardial infarction
A

ABD

196
Q
  1. Diference (Na+ - Cl-) in serum in healthy persons is approximately:
    a. 40 mmol/l
    b. 25 mmol/
    c. 30 mmol/l
    d. 50 mmol/l
A

A

197
Q
  1. Hemolysis interfers with determination of:
    a. LD
    b. Na+
    c. K+
    d. ALT
A

AC

198
Q
  1. Mixed (combined) disturbances of ABB are:
    a. More common than simple disturbances of ABB.
    b. Combination of 2 or more disturbances of ABB originated independently of each other.
    c. Revealed by calculation of anion and cation columns.
    d. Combination of original ABB disturbance and compensatory actions.
A

ABC

199
Q
  1. 10% glucose solution.
    a. Is hyperosmolar in comparison with plasma.
    b. Is isoosmolar with plasma.
    c. Contains 10g glucose in 1 liter.
    d. Must not be applied into a peripheral vein.
A

A

200
Q
  1. Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA).
    a. Its a greater part is bound to protease inhibitors. b. Total to free PSA ratio is used to distinguish benign hyperplasia of prostate and prostatic carcinoma.
    c. Benign hyperplasia is characterized by lower free to total PSA ration.
    d. Is a serine protease that is produced by prostatic cells.
A

ABD

201
Q
  1. High activities of aminotrasnferases (AST,ALT) can be connected with:
    a. Right-sided heart failure.
    b. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) intoxication.
    c. Amanita phaloides poisoning.
    d. Acute viral Hepatitis.
A

ABCD

202
Q
  1. Before blood sampling for aminotransferases determination it is recommended:
    a. To eliminate great physical activity.
    b. Abstinence from alcohol
    c. As possible shortest arm concentration.
    d. Fasting for at least 14h.i
A

ABC

203
Q
  1. Increased alfa-fetoprotein in serum of women in
    17th week of pregnancy is suspicious from:
    a. Neural tube defects
A

A

204
Q
  1. Physiological icterus of neonates is characterized by:
    a. Unconjugated bilirubin is increased with maximum value of 170 umol/l.
    b. Conjugated nilirubin is increased with maximum value of 35 umol/l.
    c. Emerges in 24-36h after delivery and lasts maximum of 1 week.
    d. Urobilinogen is not present in urine.
A

ACD

205
Q
  1. The following organs are involved in sodium metabolism:
    a. Neurohypophysis
    b. Kidneys c. Lungs
    d. Liver
A

ABCD

206
Q
  1. Buffer base value in serum (Na + K-Cl) is increase in:
    a. Chronic respiratory acidosis
    b. Metabolic alkalosis
    c. Chronic metabolic alkalosis
A

A(?)BC

207
Q
  1. Lactic acidosis can be caused by:
    a. Sprinter like muscle exercise in healthy person.
    b. Heart failure
    c. Carbone monoxide intoxication.
    d. Liver disease
A

ABCD

208
Q
  1. Serum glucose during 0-GTT 5.0 mmol/l (time=0)
    6,1 mmol/ (time=1h) and 8.1 mmol/l (time=2h).
    a. Do not exclude diabetes.
    b. Deflect an impairment of glucose absorption.
A

AB

209
Q
  1. Lactatemia > 13mmol/l:
    a. is caused by impairment of lactate metabolism.
    b. is usually by impaired liver function.
A

AB

210
Q
  1. Decrease of tranferrin level is observed in:
    a. Protein malnutrition
    b. Acute inflammation
    c. Liver cirrhosis
A

ABC

211
Q
  1. Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is caused by:
    a. Overhydration
    b. Thirsting
    c. Hypertonic dehydration
    d. Heart failure
A

BC

212
Q
  1. Among markers of nutritional status belong:
    a. Prealbumin
    b. Cholinesterase
    c. Transferrin
    d. Alpha, antitrypsin
A

ABC

213
Q
  1. For evidence of a hereditary disease by polymerase chain reaction we need:
    a. DNA-polymerase
    b. Reverse transcriptase
    c. Part of gen (DNA) with known mutation
    d. Nucleoside triphosphates
A

ACD

214
Q
  1. Decrease tranferrin level is observed in:
    a. Iron deficiency
    b. Acute inflammation
    c. Liver cirrhosis
    d. Protein malnutrition
A

BCD

215
Q
  1. During heart and lung arrest the following ABB disturbances develops:
    a. Metabolic acidosis with lactate increase.
    b. Metabolic acidosis with HCO3
    - losses.
    c. Metabolic alkalosis with potassium losses.
    d. Respiratory acidosis with pCO2 increase.
A

AD

216
Q
  1. When hyponatremia occurs storage of sodium in
    organism can be:
    a. Decreased
    b. Normal
    c. Evaluated according to natremia and hydration.
    d. Increased
A

ABCD

217
Q
  1. Catalytic concentration of enzyme is:
    a. Enzyme activity (mol/s/l)
    b. Mass enzyme concentration (g/l)
    c. None of the answers is correct
    d. Molar enzyme concentration (mol/l)
A

A

218
Q
  1. Blood for determination of acid base balance and blood gases was collected with: ?
    a. pH decreases
    b. pCO2 decreases
    c. pO2 increases
    d. pH increases
A

BD

219
Q
  1. Vasopressin is:
    a. Synonym of antidiuretic hormone.
    b. Synonym of angiotensin II.
    c. Secreted by suprarenal cortex.
    d. Natriuretic peptide (it is a peptide but not natriuretic)
A

A

220
Q
  1. After insulin treatment the following substances go intracellulary:
    a. Glucose
    b. Magnesium
    c. Potassium
    d. Inorganic phosphate
A

ABCD

221
Q
  1. Check possible causes of hyperchloremic MAC:
    a. Administration of NaCl 0.9%
    b. Bartter syndrome
    c. Chronic renal failure
    d. RTA (renal tubular acidosis)
A

ACD

222
Q
  1. Natriuretic peptides are:
    a. Acute phase reactants (proteins).
    b. Markers of nutritional status.
    c. Important for sodium and water metabolism.
    d. Important for evaluation of risk of heart failure.
A

CD

223
Q
  1. Discrepancy between chemic detection of blood in the urine (strip test) and urinary sediment … caused by:
    a. Hemoglobin
    b. Desinfectants
    c. Vitamin C
    d. Porphyrins
    e. Late delivery of urine sample
    f. Red beat
    g. Myoglobin
A

ABCG

224
Q
  1. Alkalinising effect has administration of:
    To alkalinize, we can use:
    a. Potassium malate
    b. Sodium lactate
    c. Acetazolamide (carboanhydrase inhibition)
    d. Solution saline (0.9% NaCl)
A

AB

225
Q
  1. Which conclusion(s) are possible?
    a. MAL caused by increased unmeasured anions.
    b. Hypochloremic MAC.
    c. Hyperchloremic MAC.
    d. MAC caused by increased unmeasured anions.
    e. Hypoalbuminemic MAL
A

CDE

226
Q
  1. Main intracellular cation:
    a. Calcium
    b. Albumin
    c. Potassium
    d. Magnesium
A

C

227
Q
  1. Critical concentration for kernicterus (bilirubin encephalopathy) is:
    a. 170 μmol/l of unconjugated bilirubin.
    b. 340 μmol/l of unconjugated bilirubin.
    c. 340 μmol/l of conjugated bilirubin.
    d. 35 μmol/l of conjugated bilirubin.
A

B

228
Q
  1. Precise but inaccurate results are caused by:
    a. Random errors
    b. This combination does not exist
    c. Systematic errors
    d. Both types of errors
A

C

229
Q
  1. Fasting hypoglycemia is present in patients with:
    a. Galactosemia
    b. Liver cirrhosis
    c. Intolerance of fructose
    d. Glycogenosis
A

BD

230
Q
  1. Check correct statement(s):
    a. RAL is compensated by bicarbonates retention and chlorides excretion.
    b. RAC is compensated by retention of chlorides and excretion of bicarbonates.
    c. RAC is compensated by bicarbonates retention and excretion of chlorides.
    d. RAL is compensated by chlorides retention and excretion of bicarbonates.
A

CD

231
Q
  1. Functional renal failure can be caused by:
    a. Hypoperfusion of renal cortex
    b. Severe dehydration
    c. Hypoperfusion of renal marrow
    d. Shock
A

ABD

232
Q
  1. Biological half-lives of protein decrease in the following order (1-Hb, 2 – prealbumin, 3 –
    transferrin, 4 – albumin):
    a. 1-4-3-2
    b. 1-3-4-2
    c. 1-3-4-2
    d. 1-2-3-4
A

A

233
Q
  1. Hyperoxaluria: a. Intoxication with ethylene glycol
    b. Excessive intake of vit. C
    c. Primary (essential) oxaluria
    d. Vit. B6 deficiency
A

ABCD

234
Q
  1. As a result of impairment of renal tubular cells, typical findings in urine is:
    a. Beta 2 microglobulin
    b. Microproteins
A

AB

235
Q
  1. Urine changes its color due to:
    a. Diet
    b. Volume of fluid intake
    c. Some drugs
A

ABC

236
Q
  1. Marker of renal function impairment:
    a. Inability to produce concentrated urine after ADH administration
    b. Stable urine osmolality value during the day
    c. Loss of diurnal rhythm in GFR.
A

AB(?)C

237
Q
  1. Typical serum finding in primary hyperparathyroidism is:
A

a. Calcium 3.4 mmol/l, inorganic phosphate 0.4
mmol/l.

238
Q
  1. Significant increased value of measured osmolality than counted osmolality is seen in:
A

a. Ethanol intake
b. Ethylenglycol intoxication

239
Q
  1. Myoglobin in MI:
A

a. Is sensitive but not specific
b. Appears in blood sooner than troponin

240
Q
  1. Blood transfusion:
A

a. Hypocalcemia

241
Q
  1. Pleocytosis in cytologic examination of CSF:
    a. Always pathological
    b. Means more than 3 cells in 1 umol/l.
A

A

242
Q
  1. Urine pH in patients with urate stones should be maintained at:
A

a. 6-7

243
Q
  1. Inhibition of lithogenesis:
A

a. Mg2+
b. Citrate

244
Q
  1. Urinary stone formation from ammonia –
    magnesium phosphate is supported by:
    a. UTI
    b. Alkaline urine
    c. Hereditary impairment of phosphate secretion
    d. Acidic urine
A

ABC

245
Q
  1. Patients with hepatic jaundice have in urine:
    a. Both urobilinogen and bilirubin
    b. No bile pigment
    c. Only urobilinogen
    d. Only bilirubin
A

A

246
Q
  1. Typical changes of laboratory examinations in smokers are: a. Microalbuminemia
    b. Increased fibrinogen
    c. Decreased vitamin C level
    d. Increased carboxyhemoglobin concentration
A

BCD

247
Q
  1. What can cause MAC in a chronic kidney disease?
    a. Hyperlactemia
    b. Retention of sulphates
    c. Hyperchloremia
    d. Retention of phosphate
A

ABCD

248
Q
  1. Higher amylase in plasma than in urine is caused by:
    a. Amylase binding to Ig-(Macroamylasemia)
    b. Renal insufficiency
    c. Obstruction of common biliary duct
    d. Changes in enzyme production in chronic pancreatitis
A

AB

249
Q
  1. For chronic renal failure is typical:
A

a. Increased FE of sodium and potassium

250
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome in electrophoresis:
    a. Increased B globulins
    b. Decreased albumin
    c. Increased alpha 2 globulin
A

ABC

251
Q
  1. Hypocalcemia and hypochloremia:
    a. Overdose with furosemide or thiazides.
    b. Barter syndrome
    c. Pseudo barter syndrome
    d. HyperaldosteronismBC
A

BC

252
Q
  1. Extrarenal cause of oliguria:
    a. Urine sodium 15 mmol/l
    b. Serum urea 40 mmol/l
    c. Serum creatinine 180 umol/l
A

ABC

253
Q
  1. Physiological range of fractional excretion of potassium is:
    a. 0.04-0.12%
    b. 0.4-1.2%
    c. 4-19%
    d. > 20%
A

C

254
Q
  1. Difference between measured and calculated osmolality:
A

a. is increased in intoxication with alcohol or ethylene glycol.
b. Is caused by accumulation of substances that are not included in…

255
Q
  1. Secretion of gastric juice is stimulated by:
    a. Gastrin
    b. Alcohol
    c. Nicotine
A

ABC

256
Q
  1. Potassium concentration in RBCs is:
A

a. 20x higher than in plasma.
b. Approximately 95 mmol/l.

257
Q
  1. In acute prerenal failure is typical:
A

a. Decreased EF of water.
b. Decreased EF of sodium.

258
Q
  1. Increased urea concentration with normal concentration of creatinine in serum can be caused by:
    a. Dehydration
    b. Catabolism
A

B

259
Q
  1. Laboratory findings in CSF – proteinuria 2.1 g/l, glucose 0.3 mmol/l, lactate 4.1 mmol/l with total prevalence of neutrophils means:
A

a. Purulent bacterial meningitis

260
Q
  1. Concentration of ionized calcium decreases:
A

a. With increased pH.
b. Hyperphosphatemia

261
Q
  1. Gonosomal recessive type of heredity is characteristic for:
    a. Duschene’s muscular dystrophy
    b. Haemophilia A
    c. Others: colour blindness, fibrin/storage diseases
A

ABC

262
Q
  1. Best marker of iodine depletion in the organism is:
A

a. Iodine losses in urine

263
Q
  1. Which statement(s) about hypoxia is /are correct?
    a. Lactate MAC during hypoxia will be accompanied by increased UA.
    b. When we find RAL, we have to think of hypoxia.
    c. Hypoxia leads to MAC.
A

AB(?)C

264
Q
  1. Hypercalciuria can be caused by:
    a. Malignancy
    b. Primary (essential) hyperparathyroidism
    c. Immobilization of the patient
A

ABC

265
Q
  1. Immunoglobulins in CSF: a. originate always from serum
    b. can have origin in local synthesis in diseases of CNS accompanied with immune reaction
    c. its origin is either serum or intrathecal synthesis
    d. to determine its origin we use albumin quotient and
    Reiber’s relation
A

BCD

266
Q
  1. NaHCO3
    -:
    a. Chronic renal failure with MAC.
    b. MAC with hyperkalemia.
A

AB

267
Q
  1. Hematuria phase contraste:
    a. Urine examination should be as soon as possible.
    b. Distinguish glomerular from non-glomerular RBCs.
    c. Distinguish eumorphic from dysmorphic cells.
A

ABC

268
Q
  1. Increased amylase in serum:
    a. Exarcebation of chronic pancreatitis
    b. Decreased GFR
    c. Abdominal surgery
    d. Complex amylase and Ig
A

ABCD

269
Q
  1. During dialysis, Ca2+:
    a. Increases
    b. Decreases
    c. Remains the same
A

B

270
Q
  1. Fibrinogen: a. Its concentration positively correlates with ESR.
    b. Decreases in chronic liver disease
    c. Its reactant of acute inflammatory phase
    d. It’s a coagulation factor
A

A(?)BCD

271
Q
  1. Which of the following treatments can lead to MAL?
    a. Corticosteroids
    b. Repeated blood transfusions
    c. Furosemide
    d. Antacids
A

ABCD

272
Q
  1. The following proteins belong among protease inhibitors: a. A1-antitrypsin
    b. A2-macroglobulin
    c. PSA
    d. CRP
A

AB

273
Q
  1. Most dangerous for the patient with renal failure is:
    a. Kalemia 8 mmol/l
    b. Urea 40 mmol/l
    c. BE 15 mmol/l by pCO2 4 kPa
    d. Creatininemia 1000 umol/l
A

A

274
Q
  1. During examination of occult blood in stool by a common chemical method:
    a. We search for colorectal cancer
    b. Patient must not use non-steroid antilogistic drugs.
    c. Patient must adhere diet without meat, blood and
    iron for 3 … (heme)
    d. Diet is not necessary. (globin)
A

ABC

275
Q
  1. Predominantly intracellular location has:
    a. Magnesium
    b. Phosphate
    c. Potassium
    d. Calcium
A

AB(?)C

276
Q
  1. When we have suspicion of microcytic hypochromic anemia we examine:
    a. Concentration of vitamin B12 and folate.
    b. Transferring and ferritin in serum.
    c. Soluble transferring receptors.
    d. Iron level in serum.
A

BCD

277
Q
  1. Clearenace of endogenous creatinine is:
    a. More sensitive marker of renal disease than serum concentration.
    b. Functional test of renal tubular cells
    c. Abundant in serum creatinine exceeding 180 umol/l.
    d. Measure of glomerular filtration rate.
A

ACD

278
Q
  1. The cause of hyperuricemia can be treated with:
    a. Anticancer drugs
    b. Thiazide diuretics
A

A

279
Q
  1. Erythrocytes contain high activity of:
A

a. AST
b. Lactate dehydrogenase

280
Q
  1. Following changes of laboratory results are linked with the physiological pregnancy:
    a. Decrease of urea and creatinine in serum.
    b. Increase of endogenous creatinine clearance.
    c. Intermittent glycosuria and increased proteinuria.
    d. Symptoms of hemodilution.
A

ABCD

281
Q
  1. Albumin is a transport protein for:
    a. Zinc
    b. Thyroxine
    c. Calci
A

ABC

282
Q
  1. Serum glucose levels during o-GTT 5.0 mmol/l (time = 0) and 8.1 mmol/l (time = 2h).
A

a. Impaired glucose tolerance

283
Q
  1. Determination of oligoclonal IgG synthesis in CSF is indicated:
A

a. Diagnostics of sclerosis multiplex.

284
Q
  1. HLA antigens:
    a. is a system of tissue compatibility.
    b. of class I are on all cells except of erythrocytes.
    c. of class II are related to some diseases.
    d. of class II are only on some cells of immune system.
A

ABCD

285
Q
  1. Nitrites in urine are positive in:
A

a. Bacterial infection of urinary tract.

286
Q
  1. To calculate actual bicarbonate, you need values of:
A

a. pCO2
b. pH

287
Q
  1. Slightly decreased albumin and increased α1, α2
    and β2 globulins are typical for:
A

a. Acute inflammationy

288
Q
  1. Hypothyroidism can be related to deficiency of the following trace elements:
    a. Selenium
    b. Iodine
A

AB

289
Q
  1. Ionized calcium increases in:
    a. Nephritic syndrome
    b. Hypoventilation
    c. Acidosis
A

A(?)BC

290
Q
  1. Hemolytic jaundice is accompanied with the following finding:
A

a. Urobilinogen

291
Q
  1. Typical changes of laboratory results in neonates 2 days after birth when compared with adults are:
    a. Fasting hypoglycemia.
    b. Increased leucocytes, hemoglobin, hematocrit.
    c. Hypogammaglobulinemia
    d. Increased myoglobin and creatinine kinase.
A

ABCD

292
Q
  1. Hypothyreosis of central type is characterized by:
    a. Low TSH
    b. Increased loss of iodine in urine
    c. Positive antibodies against thyreoglobulin
    d. High TSH
A

A

293
Q
  1. Which statement(s) are correct?
    a. Acute treatment of RAL can be breathing to and from a plastic bag.
    b. Quick removal of hypercapnea in a patient with chronic bronchitis can lead to alkalemia.
    c. Oxygenotherapy in a patient with hypercapnea with chronic bronchitis leads to deepening of hypercapnea.
    d. The first sign of hypoxia can be RAL.
A

ABCD

294
Q
  1. In context with acute myocardial infarction:
    a. Increased CRP.
    b. Leucocytosis
    c. (Falsely) positive reaction for blood urine … erythrocytes in urinary sediment.
    d. Fasting hyperglycemia.
A

ABCD(?)

295
Q
  1. Decreased glomerular filtration rate leads to increased:
    a. Myoglobin
    b. Beta2-microglobulin
    c. Alpha-amylase
    d. Cystatin C
    e. Free light chains of immunoglobulins
A

ABCDE

296
Q
  1. In pregnancy special care is needed for women with:
    a. Diabetes mellitus
    b. Blood group Rh- or O
    c. Thyroid gland diseases
    d. Anemia
A

ABCD

297
Q
  1. Among lithogenic substances belong:
    a. Phosphate
    b. Uric acid
    c. Oxalates
    d. Calcium
A

ABCD

298
Q
  1. Jaffé positive chromogens:
A

a. Are e.g: uric acid, glucose or ketone bodies.
b. Falsely increases measured value of serum
creatinine.

299
Q
  1. Which statements are correct?
    a. LDL transports cholesterol to tissues.
    b. HDL transports cholesterol to tissues.
    c. HDL exchange with VLDL, IDL and LDL triglycerides and cholesterol esters.
    d. In VLDL, IDL and LDL the main apoprotein is ApoB100.
A

ACD

300
Q
  1. Which doesn’t go through BBB?
    a. CO2
    b. Proteins
    c. Lactate
    d. Water
A

B

Lactate can cross bbb!

301
Q
  1. CSF appearance during bleeding:
    a. Sanguinolent
    b. Yellow
    c. Blue
    d. Xanthochrome
A

ABD

302
Q
  1. By duodenal juice, we can loose:
    a. Hydrogenocarbonates
    b. Weight
    c. Fat
    d. Chlorides
A

ABD

303
Q
  1. In diagnosis of AMI, which lab parameters do we use?
    a. Cardiac troponins
    b. AST
    c. CK and CK-MB
    d. LD activity
    e. Myoglobin
A

AE

304
Q
  1. Cardiac troponins increase beyond AMI cut-off in:
    a. Car accident
    b. AMI
    c. Kidney insufficiency
    d. Myocarditis
    e. Large injury to skeletal muscle
    f. Antracyclines (chemotherapy drug with cardiotoxicity)
A

ABDF

305
Q
  1. About urea:
    a. Has 1 carbon and 2 nitrogens.
    b. In hepatorenal failure its concentration may be within reference limit.
    c. Its serum concentration decreases in catabolism.
A

AB

306
Q
  1. Hypersideremia can be found in:
    a. Aplastic anemia
    b. Haemolytic anemia
    c. Hepatocellular damage
    d. Hemochromatosis
A

ABCD

307
Q
  1. Oligocytosis in cytologic examination of CSF means:
A

a. 30 and less cells in 1ul (newborns)
b. 3 and less cells in 1ul (adults)

308
Q
  1. Indication to administer 8.4% NaHCO3 are:
A

a. Severe MAC with hyperkalemia
b. Chronic renal failure with MAC

309
Q
  1. Treatment with glucocorticoids can induce:
    a. Hyperglycemia
    b. Hypokalemia
    c. Metabolic alkalosis
A

ABC

310
Q
  1. Urine toxicological examination is true:
    a. Can be choiced in unconscious patient without knowledge of the disease
    b. The poison is usually concentrated in urine
    c. Metabolites are also present in urine and thus the evaluation of the findings is contraindicated
A

AB

311
Q
  1. Calculate osmolal gap when we measured following results in the serum: sodium 150 mmol/l; Cl 180 mmol/l; Urea 18 mmol/l; Cr 230 umol/l; Glu 21; osmolality measured 450 mmol/kg.
    Write result as a number without any decimal points, expressing mmol/kg. Don’t write the unit.
A

Osmolality = 2 x Na + Glucose + Urea
Osmolar gap = measured – calculated
a. 111

312
Q
  1. Calculate osmolal gap when we measured following results in the serum: sodium 128 mmol/l; Cl 84 mmol/l; Urea 5 mmol/l; Cr 160 umol/l; Glu 6; osmolality measured 276 mmol/kg.
    Write result as a number without any decimal points, expressing mmol/kg. Don’t write the unit.
A

Osmolality = 2 x Na + Glucose + Urea
Osmolar gap = measured – calculated
b. 9

313
Q
  1. Zinc together with copper are active compounds in one antioxidant enzyme, which one?
    a. Superoxiddismutase
A

A

314
Q
  1. Typical laboratory findings for intravascular hemolysis is: a. Reticulocytes in blood count b. Decreased haptoglobin
A

AB

315
Q
  1. Bilirubinemia 350 umol/l in 5 day old newborn:
A

a. is increased and demands therapeutic action

316
Q
  1. After repeated transfusions we can find
    a. Hypokalemia
    b.Metabolic alkalosis
    c. Hypervolemia
    d. metabolic acidosis
    e. hyperkalemia
    f. hypocalcemia
A

BCEF

317
Q
  1. If we have suspicion of lead poisoning, indication of determination of serum lead is
A

a. bad idea

Plasma is better!

Serum samples may not be appropriate to assess lead (Pb) concentrations because they may contain artificially higher Pb concentrations compared with those measured in plasma samples.

318
Q
  1. To estimate absolute cardiovascular risk we use in Europe
A

a. SCORE tables

319
Q
  1. Patient is considered to be infectious if
A

a. Both HBsAg and HBeAg are positive

320
Q
  1. For determination of losses of calcium, phosphates and magnesium it is appropriate to deliver a. 24h urine acidified by HCl addition
    b. Single urine sample and simultaneously to determine creatinine in urine
    c. 24h urine alkalized by sodium carbonate
    d. 24h urine without conservation by any substance
A

AB

321
Q
  1. Natriuretic peptides in regulation of sodium in kidney have:
A

a. Opposite effect as Aldosterone
b. Opposite effect as Renin

322
Q
  1. Serum concentration of cardiac Troponin can be inscreased (>99th percentile): a. Myocardial Infarction
    b. Polytrauma c. Exacerbation of chronic heart failure
A

ABC

323
Q
  1. The most sensitive and specific marker of iron deficiency is:
A

a. Increased soluble fraction of transferrin receptors

324
Q
  1. Tetany from decreased level of ionized calcium is often found in:
A

a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis

325
Q
  1. Hemolysis does not interfere with determination of:
A

a. Calcium

326
Q
  1. If we want to monitor relaps, we prefer method that has:
A

a. The highest possible clinical specificity

327
Q
  1. Which statement about hepcidin is not correct a. During sideropenia, increase of hepcidin synthesis in the liver occurs b. hepcidin is the main iron metabolism regulator in
    mammals
    c. mechanism of action of hepcidin is inactivation of ferroportin
    d. overproduction of hepcidin ca contribute to anemia of chronic diseases pathogenesis
    e. hepcidin is peptidic hormone produced by liver
A

A

328
Q
  1. Hypoglycemia can accompany
A

a. Chronic renal failure

329
Q
  1. Exocrine function of the pancreas can be assessed by:
A

a. elastase-1 determination in stool b. breath test with 𝐶13 -Triglyceride

330
Q
  1. The term biological exposure test (BET)
A

a. Determination of toxic substances or metabolites in biological materials collected from exposed human

331
Q
  1. 47 year old woman with body weight 97 kg and height 160 cm (BMI = 37,9 kg/m2), waist
    circumference 104 cm, followed in outpatient metabolic department for atherogenic dyslipidemia and impaired fasting glucose. She doesn´t use any
    hypolipidemic drugs nor othre medication yet.
    Lab results (lipids, glucose)
    S_ triaglycerides 3,5mmol/l ↑↑
    S_ total cholesterol 5,9mmol/l ↑
    S_ HDL-cholesterol 0,8mmol/l ↓
    S_ LDL-cholesterol 3,8mmol/l ↑
    P_ glucose (fasting) 6,0mmol/l ↑
    Lab results (liver tests, special examinations)
    S_ ALT 1,2μkat/l ↑
    S_ GGT 4,0μkat/l ↑↑
    S_ total bilirubin 12μmol/l-
    S_ ALP 1,1μkat/l
    B_ eyrthrocyte volume 93fl
    S_ carbohydrate deficient transferrin (CDT) 1,1%
    S_ iron 14,4μmol/l
    S_ ferritin 199μg/l
    S_ TSH 1,32mIU/l
    S_ anti-HBs 640IU/l ↑↑
    S_ anti-HBc, HBsAg, anti-HCV, anti-HAV negative
    Electrophoresis of plasmatic proteins was without any pathological finding.
    Patient had mononucleosis in youth, no other serious diseases. Abdominal ultrasound not conclusive (due to obesity), but gross pathology of liver and biliary tract was excluded.
    What is the most probable cause of liver tests increase?
    a. alcoholic liver steatosis
    b. non-alcoholic liver steatosis
    c. chronic active hepatitis B
    d. hemochromatosis
    e. infectious mononucleosis in youth
A

B

332
Q
  1. Check correct statements a. Compensation of MAL is limited by hypoxia
    b. Compensation of MAC is limited by hypokapnia
    c. Compensation of RAC is limited by urinary pH 4.5
A

ABC

333
Q
  1. Cystic fibrosis is: a. Characterized by repeated pneumonias b. A disease with AR type of heritability
    c. Characterized by low elastase concentration in stool d. Characterized by chloride concentration in sweat > 20 mmol/l.
    e. Characterized by chloride concentration in sweat < 20 mmol/l
A

ABCD

334
Q
  1. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis are:
A

a. Excessive eating and alcohol drinking b. Obstruction of biliary tract

335
Q
  1. The following picture in cerebrospinal fluid accompanies viral meningitis a. Lower CSF protein concentration than in purulent meningitis b. Lactate concentration below 3.5 mmol/l
A

AB

336
Q
  1. Which fatty acids (FA) belong to omega-3 group of FA? a. Docosahexaene
    b. Eicosapentaene c. Alpha-Linolenic
A

ABC

337
Q
  1. 30 year old woman was admitted for epileptic paroxysm. Selected laboratory results: Total bilirubin 28umol/l
    AST 2,16ukat/l
    ALT 1,31 ukat/l
    GGT 22ukat/l
    ALP 2,1 ukat/l
    Urea 2,2mmol/l
    Creatinine 61 umol/l
    Erythrocytes 3,3x1012/l
    Hb 119g/l
    Erythrocyte volume 106 fl
    Which of the following possibilities explain the laboratory results:
    a. alcohol abuse
    b. acute viral hepatitis
    c. biliary obstruction by stone
    d. exacerbation of porphyria??
    e. liver steatosis
A

A

338
Q
  1. Urine Na/K ratio < 1 can be found a. In hyperaldosteronism b. After heavy physical activity
    c. In dehydration
A

ABC

339
Q
  1. Acidificative effect has infusion of a. Isotonic solution of NaCl b.acetazolamide (carbonanhydrase inhibitor)
    c. 0,9% NaCl
A

ABC

340
Q
  1. Urine alkalization increases elimination of
A

a. Acidic compounds
b. Barbiturates

341
Q
  1. Which statement about hemochromatosis is not true
A

a. In hemochromatosis impaired iron absorption in GIT takes place

342
Q
  1. Tendency to hypocalcemia can be observed in
    a. Hypoparathyroidism
    b. Acute pancreatitis
    c. Chronic renal failure
    d. Hypovitaminosis D
A

ABCD

343
Q
  1. Plasma (lithium heparin) instead of serum is indicated in patients
    a. using heparin
    b. using warfarin
    c. that are hemodialysed
    d. with extreme leukocytosis
    e. with extreme thrombocytosis
    f. with coagulation disorder
A

ABCDEF

344
Q
  1. Autoantibodies are often found in hypothyroidism of
A

a. Accompanying Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
b. Peripheral type

345
Q
  1. Patient with multiple transfusions got cramps
A

a. Calcium
b. Magnesium

346
Q
  1. Patients with decompensated liver cirrhosis
    a. MAC
    b. MAL
    c. Secondary hyperaldosteronism
A

ABC

347
Q
  1. Acute phase reactants
    a. Fibrinogen
    b. alpha-1 antitrypsin
    c. CRP
A

ABC

348
Q
  1. Extended prothrombin time can be found in a. Dicumarol derivatives treatment b. Chronic liver disease c. Lipid malabsorption
A

ABC

349
Q
  1. 52 year old man with diabetes type 2, taking metformin, was not feeling well since this morning, he had strong headaches, vomited, around 11 o’clock her wife noticed unusual behaviour, disorientation and confusion. At admission to hospital (13 o’ clock), patient was in come BP 150/90 mmHg, HF 90/min, BF 25/min, SpO2 97%, TT 39ºC. laboratory examination revealed following results: glycemia 8,0 mmol/l, lactate 2,0 mmol/l, minerals, parameters of ABB, liver and
    kidney tests – everything without significant pathology, basic toxicology screening negative; blood counts: 29 thousand leucocytes/μl. Lumbar punction was performed and CSF examination with
    following results: CSF glucose 0,1 mmol/l, CSF lactate 15 mmol/l, CSF protein 5,5 g/l; number of cells 14 000/μl (polynuclear cells are prevalent), spektrophotometry of CSF is negative. What is the right diagnosis?
    b. subarachnoid bleeding
    c. acute leukemia with CNS infiltration
    d purenlent bacterial meningitis
A

D(?)

350
Q
  1. 65 year old man, with dyslipidemia (10 y. history of statin treatment), smoker for 40 years, started to
    have symptoms of itredness, general weakness, headache. (…) lab results show increased creatine kinase and Na+ of 104 (very low). What is the most likely diagnosis:
A

a. Lung carcinoma

351
Q
  1. Acidification test with ammonia chloride is a
    functional test of:
    a. Renal tubules
    b. Must not be performed in patient with liver disease
    c. glomeruli
    d. liver
A

AB

352
Q
  1. Patient with nephrotic syndrome a. Thrombophilia
    b. Hypercholesterolemia
    c. Hypoalbuminemia
    d. Increased alpha 2 and Beta fractions of globulins
A

ABCD

353
Q
  1. Most sensitive lab marker of hemochromatosis
A

a. Increased transferrin saturation

354
Q
  1. 65 year old with acute myeloid leukemia is
    undergoing aggressive high dose chemotherapy. On the 5th day … signs: dyspnea with tachycardia, RR 30/min, decreased Hb saturation, newly developed tachycardia…
A

a. Sepsis

355
Q
  1. Hypocalcemia can accompany
A

a. Ethylene glycol poisoning b. Chronic renal failure

356
Q
  1. 65 year old woman is hospitalised on neurology
    ward due to LS syndrome (pain in lumbosacral spine), selected laboratory results are as follows:
    S-total protein 103 g/l
    s-albumin 33g/l
    s-beta2-microglobulin 3,1mg/l slightly increased
    b- erythrocytes 3,48x1012/l
    b-Hb 113 g/l
    b-hematocrit 0,232
    other parameters are in reference ranges. What laboratory should be indicated preferentially to further explain laboratory results presented above?
    a. Electrophoresis of serum proteins b. Cytologic and chemical examination of cerebrospinal fluid + oligoclonal bands
    c. fecal haemoglobin quantitatively
    d. alkaline phosphatase and its isoenzymes
    e. determination of microalbuminuria
A

A

357
Q
  1. Patient admitted to hospital unconscious, BP
    140/90, MAC, increased osmolality of 340 and BE of -22
A

a. Methanol or Ethylene Glycol intoxication

358
Q
  1. High income of vitamin C can cause during urine strip test:
    a. positive blood (urine strip test) in absence pf erythrocytes in microscopic examination of urine
    b. falsely positive result of protein
    c. falsely negative result of glucose
    d. falsely negative result of keton bodies
A

C

359
Q
  1. (…) laboratory results: (…) Patient looked very tired during examination and had slow hown psychological (…). What is the most probable cause for dyslipidemia in this man:
A

a. Secondary due to hypothyreosis

360
Q
  1. 20 years old man went on a trip. Did not eat properly and drunk 3 beers. He was tired, sclera
    was yellow (…). Laboratory results reveal total bilirubin of 54, and conjugated bilirubin 3. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A

a. Gilbert’s syndrome

361
Q
  1. Low values of maternal α1-fetoprotein in the first
    third of pregnancy:
    a. are necessary to be compared with other results of biochemical screening (hCG, estriol, etc) a ultrasonography
    b. are physiological, high α1-fetoprotein is typical for Down’s syndrome
    c. are more frequently found in pregnant women older than 35 years
    d. are suspicious from trisomia of chromose 21
A

ACD

362
Q
  1. Increased activity of aminotransferases (AST, ALT) can be caused by:
    a. right-sided heart failure
    b. acute viral hepatitis
    c. shock
    d. toxic liver damage
A

ABCD

363
Q
  1. Chromium is biogenic element that is necessary mainly for metabolism of:
    a. pyrimidins
    b. fatty acids
    c. one carbon fragments d. glucose
    e. purins
A

D

364
Q
  1. Which of the following marker(s) is (are) NOT considered as a risk factor of atherosclerosis?
    a. LDL-cholesterol b. adiponectin
    c. triglycerides
    d. apolipoprotein B
    e. total cholesterol
A

B

365
Q
  1. Calculate urinary protein loss per 24 hours when you have following results:
    Total protein in serum 82,7g/l
    Total urinary protein 8,9g/l
    Urinary volume per 24 hours 1162ml
    Patient weight 109kg
    Urinary protein loss write in grams per day with precision to 1 decimal point (the result will look like e.g. 1,5). Don’t write the unit itself (g/day) to the
    result.
A

Answer: 10.3 g/day

366
Q
  1. Typical finding in obstructive jaundice is:
    a. increased serum activity of ALT
    b. increased conjugated bilirubin in serum
    c. increased seum activity of LD
    d. increased serum activity of ALP
A

BD

367
Q
  1. 45 year old man with mild overweight (BMI 27,5) was preventively examined, without subjective problems, accidentally detected fasting venous plasma glycemia 8,8 mmol/l. next week he came for control blood draw (fasting again), that was 6,5 mmo/l. afterwards oral glucose tolerance tests (oGTT) with 75g glukozy p. os was realised, glycemia in venous plasma 2 hrs after glucose administration was 9,8 mmol
    a. the patient has diabetes mellitus, diagnosis was done
    only after oGTT results were available
    b. the patent has diabetes mellitus, diagnosis was sure even without oGTT, that just confirmed this diagnosis
    c. the patient has impaired fasting glucose (IFG), oGTT was not indicated
    d. the patient has impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
    e. the patient should undergo oGTT immediately in the
    beginning, the visit after a week was needless
A

D

368
Q
  1. Which anions hinder Ca and Mg absorption in small intestine?
    a. iodides
    b. nitrates
    c. chlorides
    d. phosphates
A

D

369
Q
  1. Calculate osmolal gap when we measured following results in the serum: sodium 123 mmol/l, chlorides 84 mmol/l, urea 16 mmol/l, creatinine 78 μmol/l, glucose 8 mmol/l, osmolality (measured) 402 mmol/kg.
    Write result as number without any decimal points, express in mmol/kg. don’t write the unit itself (mmol/kg) to the result.
A

132 mmol/kg

370
Q
  1. Administration of ACE-inhibitors for hypertension treatment leads to:
    a. increased losses of sodium into urine
    b. increase of natremia
    c. decrease of kalemia
    d. increase of kalemia
A

AD

371
Q
  1. Typical signs of familiar hypercholesterolemia are:
    a. tendon xanthomas
    b. increased ratio of apoB/apo A
    c. hypertriglyceridemia
    d. decreased level of HDL-cholesterol
    e. hypercholesterolemia (caused by increased count of LDL particles)
A

ABE

372
Q
  1. 55 year old obese patient, with treatment for type 2
    DM. hyperventilation, BP 160/90 torr, urinary ketone bodies negative.
    Na 140mmol/l
    K 4,8mmol/l
    Urea 6 mmol/l
    Glucose 5 mmol/l
    Ammonia 15 umol/l
    Osmolality 295 mmol/kg
    pH 7,25
    BE – 13 mmol/l
    pCO2 3,8kPa
    pO2 10,5 kPa
    What other laboratory examination you should
    order?
    a. paracetamol
    b. alcohol
    c. lactate
    d. b-hydroxybutiric acid
    e. etyleneglycol
A

C

373
Q
  1. Which from the following statement(s) are correct?
    a. administration of sodium lactate leads to acidification of organism
    b. plasmalyte is alkalifying solution
    c. administration of sodium lactate does not lead to k alkalinisation when liver failure occurs
    d. plamalyte is acidifying solution
A

B

374
Q
  1. Increased activity of creatine kinase can be caused by:
    a. inflammation and injury of muscles
    b. intensive physical activity
    c. intramuscular injections
    d. myocarditis
A

ABCD

375
Q
  1. As a marker of biliary duct obstruction we consider increased values of (in serum)
    a. unconjugated bilirubin
    b. GMT
    c. ALP
    d. AST
A

BC

376
Q
  1. Gilbert’s syndrome (defect of glucuronyltransferase) is typical with:
    a. urobilinogen in urine
    b. urobilinogen and bilirubin in urine
    c. conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
    d. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
A

D

377
Q
  1. During urinary infection the following results can be modified:
    a. losses of creatinine in urine
    b. pH of urine
    c. losses of glucose in urine
    d. losses of urea in urine
A

CD

378
Q
  1. During intoxication with paracetamol (acetaminophen):
    a. N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote
    b. liver necrosis is the most important complication
    c. serum paracetamol level should be determined not earlier than 4 hours after drug ingestion
    d. plasma concentration of paracetamol is not important
A

ABC

379
Q
  1. Calculate urinary protein loss per 24 hours when you have following results:
    Total protein 81.7g/l
    Total urinary protein 4.9g/l
    Urinary volume per 24 hour 919ml
    Patient weight 108 kg
    Urinary protein loss write in grams per day with precision to 1 decimal point (the result will look like e.g. 1,5). Don’t write the unit it self (g/day) to the
    result.
A

ANswer: 4,5

380
Q
  1. 24 year old woman, without previous medical history, suddenly developed fever with febrilia about 39ºC, intermittently dyspnea. She was examined in emergency department with no further
    clinical pathology. Mild signs of meningeal irritation. Patient was admitted to department of infectious diseases, where she looked very tired,
    sleepy and febrile again. Blood pressure 110/80.
    Laboratory results:
    S-glucose 6,7mmol/l ↑
    S-K 3,5mmol/l ↓
    S-procalcitonin (PCT) 25,3 ug/l ↑↑↑
    Lumbar punction was performed, cerebrospinal fluid was slightly sanguinolent and cloudy;
    laboratory results:
    CSF lactate 8,2mmol/l
    CSF-glucose 0,2mmol/l
    CSF total protein 5,2g/l
    CSF polynuclears (count) 2200/ul
    CSF mononuclears (count) 250/ul
    CSF erythrocytes (count) 65/ul
    The most probable cause is:
    a. developing septic state, the probable cause is bacterial meningitis
    b. contamination of cerebrospinal fluid with peripheral blood elements
    c. severe serous, probably viral, meningoencephalitis
    d. isolated bacterial meningitis without systemic inflammation
A

A

381
Q
  1. Calculate urinary protein loss per 24 hours when you have following results:
    total protein in serum 75.5 g/l
    total urinary protein 8.5 g/l
    urinary volume per 24 hours 1688.7 ml
    patient weight 75.8 kg
    Urinary protein loss write in grams per day with precission to 1 decimal point (the result wil look like e.g.: 1,5). Don´t write the unit itself (g/day) to the result.
A

14,4

382
Q
  1. To calculate unmeasured anions, you have to know concentration of:
    a. bicarbonates
    b. chlorides
    c. sodium and potassium
    d. albumin and phosphates
A

ABCD

383
Q
  1. Diagnostic laboratory signs of metabolic syndrome are:
    a. impaired glucose tolerance
    b. hypertriglyceridemia
    c. type 2 diabetes mellitus
    d. low HDL-cholesterol concentration
    e. impaired fasting glucose
A

ABCDE

384
Q
  1. In purulent (bacterial) meningitis:
    a. cyto-protein dissociation
    b. protein-cytological dissociation
    c. granulocytes pleocytosis
    d. protein-cytological association
A

CD

385
Q
  1. Hypocapnea
    can be found in
    a. Hepatal coma
    b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    c. Salycilate poisoning
    d. Chronic renal failure
A

ABCD

386
Q
  1. M protein has
    a. Always light chains of the same type
    b. Its presence causes changes in the ratio of free light chain in the serum
A

AB

387
Q
  1. Natremia value is always evaluated together with:
    a. Albumin in serum
    b. Chlorides in Serum
    c. Hydration of Patient
A

ABC

388
Q
  1. Which preanalytical measure must be kept during urine collection for chemical evaluation and urine sed evaluation:
    a. To prefer 1st morning urine sample
    b. to deliver to the laboratory within 1
    hour
A

AB

389
Q
  1. Physiological Pregnancy (especially 3rd trimester)
    a. increased ALP activity + uric acid (from placenta)
    b. Hypercoagulation state
A

AB

390
Q

393 Higher concentration of ammonia in plasma can be found
a. decompensated liver cirrhosis
b. newborns with defect of urea cycle enzymes
a. acute liver failure

A

ABC

391
Q
  1. AMong autoimmune diseases belong
    a. Type 1 DM
    b. Hashimoto thyroiditis
    c. celiac disease
A

ABC

392
Q
  1. in vagans (strict vegetarians) we can find following lab results
    a. increased serum lipids
    b. increase of homocysteine becasue of vitamin B12 deficiency
    c. alkaline pH of urine
    d. decreased Ca, Fe, Zn, I
A

ABCD

393
Q

396 Steroids:

a. increase glucose
b decrease kalemia
c. increase neutrophils (immature form)
d. decrease lymphocytes

A

ABCD

394
Q

396 Steroids:

a. increase glucose
b decrease kalemia
c. increase neutrophils (immature form)
d. decrease lymphocytes

A

ABCD