Clinical Assessment Final Practice Questions Flashcards
“Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function” is one of the definitions of the term:
A) Diagnosis
B) Assessment
C) Impairment
D) Posture
C) Impairment
Which part of SOAP is an interpretation of the subjective and objective information and creates your clinical impression? A) Objective B) Plan C) Assessment D) Subjective
C) Assessment
Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 reasons why RMT’s assess?
A) To create goals of treatment
B) To maintain a professional image
C) RHPA requires it
D) To listen to the patient’s objective findings
D) To listen to the patient’s objective findings
Based on the assessment protocol, which tests are done right before neurological tests? A) Special tests B) Muscle tests C) Joint play examination D) Rule outs
B) Muscle tests
T/F - When performing functional testing, we as clinicians should always support the limb in a secure and comfortable position.
False
Which of the following descriptions explains the high seated position?
A) Patient’s hips at 45 degrees of flexion and knees at 90 degrees of flexion
B) Patient’s hips and knees at 90 degrees of flexion
C) Patient’s hips at 90 degrees of flexion and knees extended
D) Patient’s hips at 90 degrees of flexion and knees at 45 degrees of flexion
B) Patient’s hips and knees at 90 degrees of flexion
T/F - There is little relevance to performing assessment if your patient already has a diagnosis.
False
Which type of pain results from the release of chemical irritants? A) Mechanical B) Referred C) Inflammatory D) Neurological
C) Inflammatory
T/F - When testing a deep tendon reflex, a positive would be pain and weakness.
False - When testing a deep tendon reflex, a positive would be INCONSISTENCY.
During your initial intake with your patient, they describe a pain that is diffuse and broad. You assess them and determine a more localized impairment. When you reassess after about 4 treatments, you have seen an improvement in their pain and the areas are more specific. What is the term to describe this concept? A) Centralization B) Trigger points C) Pain D) Peripheralization
A) Centralization
What is a possible mechanism of injury for a muscle strain? A) Nerve root compression B) Overstretch C) Forceful contraction D) Both B and C
D) Both B and C
If you suspect an injury to your patient’s medial meniscus, what would be the correct order of functional testing?
A) Active free > passive relaxed > active relaxed
B) Passive relaxed > active resisted > active free
C) Active resisted > active free > passive relaxed
D) Active free > active resisted > passive relaxed
D) Active free > active resisted > passive relaxed
What information does a therapist ask upon a positive assessment regarding pain? A) Quality B) Location C) Severity D) Both A and B E) Both B and C
D) Both A and B
Which of the following regarding rule outs is FALSE?
A) They are done unilaterally
B) They are done to the joints above and below the affected/target joint
C) They are done passively followed by overpressure
D) If any positives are found you would have to assess that joint
E) All of the above are TRUE
E) All of the above are TRUE
Mix and match (answers can only be used once):
1) Tingling
2) Sharp
3) Dull ache
4) Noises
A) Meniscal tear
B) Joints
C) Acute inflammation
D) Nerve injury
1) Tingling - D) Nerve injury
2) Sharp - C) Acute inflammation
3) Dull ache - B) Joints
4) Noises - A) Meniscal tear
Crepitus is: A) Audible B) Palpable C) Vibration D) All of the above
D) All of the above
T/F - Hypermobility and hypomobility would be observable and documented when doing active free testing.
True
Which of the following end feels is always considered abnormal? A) Bone to bone B) Capsular C) Tissue stretch D) Tissue approximation
B) Capsular
How would a 2nd degree muscle strain score based on the Cyriax resisted testing scale? A) Strong and painless B) Strong and painful C) Weak and painless D) Weak and painful
B) Strong and painful
If your patient was able to produce movement with gravity eliminated during a muscle test, which grade would they score on the Oxford Muscle testing scale? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2
T/F - Ask as many leading and open ended questions as possible to help you gather information during your intake.
False
"Final resistance to normal range that would result in injury to tissue" describes which barrier of resistance? A) Physiological B) Elastic C) Anatomical D) End feel
C) Anatomical
Palpation can: A) Assess turgor B) Vary in rate C) Vary in direction D) All of the above
D) All of the above
With a complete Achilles tendon rupture, you would expect to find:
A) Active resisted resting to be weak and painless on the Cyriax muscle testing scale
B) Active resisted testing to be a grade 2 on the Oxford muscle testing scale
C) Active free plantar flexion is present but diminished, and the foot also goes into inversion
D) All of the above
A) Active resisted resting to be weak and painless on the Cyriax muscle testing scale
T/F - Passive relaxed testing could also show a positive that may indicate a contractile tissue injury
True
Which of the following would you NOT be able to determine while watching your patient perform active free shoulder abduction? A) Apprehension B) End feel C) Quality of movement D) Both A and B
B) End feel
T/F - After your intake, you should have a strong indication of the order of range of motion testing to be performed with your patient.
True
What is the term denoting "any position that increases stress to the joints?" A) Postural malalignment B) Standard posture C) Faulty posture D) None of the above
C) Faulty Posture
Which of the following is NOT a reason why we assess posture?
A) Increases effectiveness of treatments
B) Gives important information about soft tissues
C) Poor posture can give rise to pain
D) All of the above are reasons why we assess posture
D) All of the above are reasons why we assess posture
T/F - Hemipelvis, pregnancy, and neurological pathologies are all factors affecting posture.
True
Which postural assessment tool can be used to measure joint angles? A) Algometer B) Goniometer C) Tape measure D) Plumb line
B) Goniometer
What position should you assess your patient's posture in? A) Standing B) Lying C) Seated D) Whatever their natural position is
D) Whatever their natural position is
How far away should you stand from your patient when doing your postural assessment? A) 3-6 feet B) 4-7 feet C) 5-8 feet D) 6-9 feet
C) 5-8 feet
T/F - When assessing posture from a lateral view, you should be in line with the client’s acromion process.
False - When assessing posture from a lateral view, you should be in line with the client’s EXTERNAL AUDITORY MEATUS.
T/F - You should always ask your client to remove their shoes when performing a postural assessment.
False - You should ask your client to remove their shoes when performing a postural assessment, EXCEPT if they wear orthotics.
After assessing your patient’s posture from an anterior view, which view would you assess next?
A) Lateral
B) Posterior
C) It doesn’t matter, as long as you reposition yourself
D) It depends on their postural presentation
C) It doesn’t matter, as long as you reposition yourself
What should the normal carrying angle for the elbows be? A) 0-10 degrees B) 5-15 degrees C) 10-20 degrees D) 15-25 degrees
B) 5-15 degrees
What is the normal foot angle when someone is standing? A) 10 degrees of external rotation B) 5 degrees of external rotation C) 0 degrees of rotation D) 5 degrees of internal rotation
A) 10 degrees of external rotation
When observing your client from a lateral view, which of the following structures would NOT be in line with the others if they had ideal posture? A) Acromion process B) Lumbar vertebrae C) Head of the fibula D) All of the above would be in line
C) Head of the fibula
T/F - The normal tilt of the pelvis is 30 degrees
True
The scapula should rest on the thorax between which 2 vertebrae? A) T2 & T7 B) T3 & T8 C) T2 & T8 D) T3 & T9
C) T2 & T8
T/F - You would you expect to see swelling for an ankle injury over 12-48 hours.
False - You would you expect to see swelling for an ankle injury over 12-24 HOURS.
What is the term for bruising that will track distally if the limb is not elevated? A) Hematoma B) Ecchymosis C) Contusion D) Hemorrhage
B) Ecchymosis
T/F - If you had an ankle injury, you would only perform rule outs for the knee joint and the toes/metatarsophalangeal joints.
False - If you had an ankle injury, you would have to perform rule outs for the knee joint, the SUPERIOR TIBIOFIBULAR JOINT, and the toes/metatarsophalangeal joints.
Your patient has injured their ankle and is reporting numbness and tingling in the area. What other joints might you want to rule out? A) Lumbar spine B) Thoracic spine C) Cervical spine D) None of the above
A) Lumbar spine
You suspect that your patient has injured their calcaneofibular ligament, what would your order of testing be?
A) Active free > passive relaxed > active relaxed
B) Passive relaxed > active resisted > active free
C) Active resisted > active free > passive relaxed
D) Active free > active resisted > passive relaxed
D) Active free > active resisted > passive relaxed
Which testing position has your patient's knees extended, but their hips flexed to 90 degrees? A) High seated B) Supine C) Long seated D) Hook lying
C) Long seated
T/F - A normal degree of range of motion for dorsiflexion is 20 degrees.
True
T/F - A normal degree of range of motion for plantar flexion is 60 degrees.
False - A normal degree of range of motion for plantar flexion is 50 DEGREES.
A normal degree of range of motion for inversion and eversion is approximately? A) Less than 5 degrees B) 5 degrees C) 10 degrees D) More than 10 degrees
B) 5 degrees
T/F - It is expected that someone will have slightly more range of motion with eversion compared to inversion.
False - It is expected that someone will have slightly more range of motion with INVERSION compared to EVERSION.
Which of the following structures would NOT be tested with passive inversion? A) CFL B) ATFL C) Tibialis anterior D) Peroneals E) All of the above would be tested
C) Tibialis Anterior
Which of the following would NOT restrict your patient’s passive dorsiflexion?
A) Injury to the prime movers of dorsiflexion
B) Injury to the posterior structures being stretched
C) Swelling
D) Tight soleus, gastrocnemius & Achilles tendon
A) Injury to the prime movers of dorsiflexion
Which of the following is the typical end feel for plantar flexion? A) Tissue compression B) Tissue stretch C) Bone to bone D) Both B & C
D) Both B & C
T/F - The primary nerve root for dorsiflexion is L5.
False - The primary nerve root for dorsiflexion is L4.
Which special test could you use if you suspected your patient had injured their ATFL? A) Talar tilt test B) Anterior drawer test C) Both A & B D) None of the above
C) Both A & B
Over which region would you most likely expect to see swelling if your patient had sprained their ATFL? A) Sinus tarsi B) Medial malleolus C) Trochlea D) Cuboid
A) Sinus Tarsi
What is the positive for any ligamentous test?
A) Pain along the ligament
B) Excessive range of motion
C) Pain at the attachment points of the ligament
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
If you wanted to test the posterior fibres of the deltoid ligament, which motions would you do? A) Inversion, dorsiflexion B) Eversion, dorsiflexion C) Inversion, plantar flexion D) Eversion, plantar flexion E) Eversion, neutral
B) Eversion, Dorsiflexion
Which special test would you use if you suspect your patient had injured their anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament? A) Anterior drawer test B) Windlass test C) Wedge test D) Talar test
C) Wedge test
The Thompson test is used for which of the following injuries/conditions? A) Plantar fasciitis B) Deep vein thrombosis C) Achilles tendon rupture D) None of the above
C) Achilles tendon rupture
T/F - The correct stages of Homan’s sign would be patient supine, knee bent to 90 degrees, dorsiflex the ankle and slowly extend the knee while increasing the pressure.
False - The correct stages of Homan’s sign would be patient PRONE, knee bent to 90 degrees, dorsiflex the ankle and slowly extend the knee while increasing the pressure.
What are you testing for with the squeeze test? A) Weakness in triceps surae B) Morton's neuroma C) Presence of a DVT D) Both A & B
B) Morton’s neuroma
T/F - A good functional strength test for the plantar flexors would be a heel raise.
True
Which myotome is for knee extension? A) S2 B) S3 C) L2 D) L3
D) L3
How many times should you tap the Achilles tendon for the deep tendon reflex? A) 3-6 times B) 5-8 times C) 7-10 times D) None of the above
C) 7-10 times
Which functional test will test your patient's willingness to move a joint on their own? A) Active Free B) Passive Relaxed C) Active Resisted D) All of the above
A) Active Free
What type of joint is the tibiofemoral articulation? A) Synovial ball and socket joint B) Synovial modified hinge joint C) Synovial condyloid joint D) Synovial plane joint
B) Synovial modified hinge joint
T/F - You would you expect to see swelling for a knee injury 12-48 hours after it has occured.
True
T/F - Menisci possess no blood supply and the inner 2/3rd is aneural.
False - Menisci possess no NERVE supply and the inner 2/3rd is AVASCULAR.
If someone had damage to their meniscus, which presentation would you NOT expect to see? A) Crepitus B) Loss of flexion & extension C) Swelling D) All of the above could be present
D) All of the above could be present
What term refers to an overgrowth of the tibial tuberosity? A) Patellar tendonitis B) Osgood Schlatters' disease C) Chondromalacia D) Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease
B) Osgood Schlatters’ disease
The loose packed position of the knee is around \_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees of flexion? A) 25-30 B) 15-20 C) 0 (neutral) D) 5-10
A) 25-30
T/F - The capsular pattern for the knee is extension limited more than flexion.
False - The capsular pattern for the knee is FLEXION limited more than EXTENSION.
What is the anatomical term for hyperextension of the knee? A) Genu valgum B) Genu varum C) Genu recurvatum D) Tibial torsion
C) Genu recurvatum
Which structures of the knee may be damaged with a valgus presentation? A) LCL B) MCL C) Lateral meniscus D) Both A & C
B) MCL
T/F - The terrible triad consists of the ACL, MCL and medial meniscus.
True
T/F - Joint effusion tests are only performed prior to functional tests to check for swelling.
False - Joint effusion tests are performed prior to AND AFTER functional tests to check for swelling.
Which of the following joint effusion tests will test for maximal swelling of the knee? A) Patellar tap test B) Fluctuation test C) Ballotable patella test D) Both A & B
A) Patellar tap test
What might indicate that there is blood inside the tibiofemoral joint due to the brush, stroke, wipe test? A) Patella is floating B) Swelling moves slowly C) Swelling moves quickly D) Fluid is fluctuating
B) Swelling moves slowly
In what position would you want to do your valgus/varus stress test to best test the deeper fibres of the sprained ligament?
A) Supine with knee extended
B) Supine with knee in loose-packed position
C) Supine with knee in closed-packed position
D) Both A & C
B) Supine with knee in loose-packed position
Which of the following would NOT be tested with a varus stress test? A) Iliotibial band B) Biceps femoris C) Lateral collateral ligament D) Posterolateral joint capsule E) All of the above would be tested
E) All of the above would be tested
Apley's distraction test is used to test what structures? A) MCL B) Medial meniscus C) Lateral meniscus D) Both B & C
A) MCL
T/F - You would want to do a posterior sag sign to rule out injury to the ACL before testing it.
False - You would want to do a posterior sag sign to rule out injury to the PCL before testing the ACL.
Which of the following would be a positive sign for Lachman's test? A) Pain B) Increased movement C) Soft/mushy end feel D) All of the above
D) All of the above
