Clinical Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

Match each of the following profiles to the correct induction agent:

  1. Cardio-respiratory depressant, useful in status epilepticus, gives a ‘hangover’ effect, dangerous if given into artery or extravascularly
  2. Does not depress cardiovascular function and so is preferred in TBI and surgeries where hypotension must be avoided
  3. Anti-emetic, cardiovascular depressant, risk of bacterial growth in opened ampoules
  4. May increase cardiac output, bronchodilator, useful in status asthmaticus, causes salivation and prolonged recovery time with risk of distressing delirium and hallucination

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopental

A
  1. Cardio-respiratory depressant, useful in status epilepticus, gives a ‘hangover’ effect, dangerous if given into artery or extravascularly - D. Thiopental
  2. Does not depress cardiovascular function and so is preferred in TBI and surgeries where hypotension must be avoided - C. Etomidate
  3. Anti-emetic, cardiovascular depressant, risk of bacterial growth in opened ampoules - A. Propofol
  4. May increase cardiac output, bronchodilator, useful in status asthmaticus, causes salivation and prolonged recovery time with risk of distressing delirium and hallucination - B. Ketamine
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2
Q

Give the appropriate intravenous doses for each induction agent:

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopental

A

A. Propofol - 1.5-2.5 mg/kg
B. Ketamine - 1-4.5 mg/kg
C. Etomidate - 150-300 mcg/kg
D. Thiopental - 100-150mg

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3
Q

How is ideal bodyweight calculated?

A

Male = 50kg + 2.3kg for each inch over 5 feet tall.
Female = 45.5kg+2.3kg for each inch over 5 feet tall.

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4
Q

Describe the classes of Mallampati scoring

A

Class 1: Entire Tonsil clearly visible
Class 2: Upper half of Tonsil fossa visible
Class 3: Soft and Hard Palate clearly visible
Class 4: Only Hard Palate visible

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5
Q

How should you determine what size ET tube to use?

A

Adult ID: male = 8.5mm, female = 7.5mm
Children ID = [age in years/4] + 4.0mm
Neonate ID = 3–3.5mm
Length (oral) = [age of child/2] + 12.5cm
Length (nasal) = [age of child/2] + 14.5cm

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6
Q

Define “Minimum Alveolar Concentration” value of an anaesthetic

A

The minimum concentration of an inhalation agent required within the alveoli to stop 50% of patients from moving when exposed to a surgical incision

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Inhalational agents could theoretically be used alone to achieve the triad of anaesthesia
B. Benzodiazepines are used to produce amnesia, but not for analgesia in theatre
C. Most paralysis agents used in surgery are non-depolarising
D. Most intravenous induction agents produce analgesia
E. Opiates potentiate anaesthetic agents, but do not themselves produce adequate unconsciousness in surgery

A

D. Most intravenous induction agents produce analgesia

The exception is Ketamine, but is important to remember that the others (Propofol, Etomidate, and Thiopentol) produce hypnosis and amnesia but not analgesia. They are also poor at inhibiting reflexive movement in surgery. By contrast, inhalational agents can produce all aspects of anaesthesia if used at high enough doses, though this is not ideal and not done in practice.

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8
Q

What is usually the earliest effect of sedative drugs (i.e. occurs first and at the lowest dose)?

A

Anxiolysis

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9
Q

How long must a patient be fasted for before an operation?

A

6 hours for food
2 hours for clear liquid (including black tea and coffee)

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10
Q

Give 5 common complications of an epidural or spinal

A

Common complications include:

Shivering
Hypotension
Post-dural puncture headache
Inadequate effect
Nausea
Urinary retention

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11
Q

Give 5 rare complications of a neuraxial block

A

Rare (1 in >5000) complications include:

Meningitis
Respiratory arrest
Cardiovascular collapse
Systemic local anaesthetic toxicity
Spinal/ epidural haematoma

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12
Q

Give the 3 absolute contraindications to a neuraxial block

A

Patient refusal
Site infection
Significant uncorrected hypovolaemia

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13
Q

Give 5 relative contraindications to a neuraxial block

A

Coagulopathy/anticoagulant therapy
Aortic/mitral stenosis: there is a risk of profound hypotension from sympathetic blockade
Previous back surgery: there may be a technical difficulty
Systemic sepsis: there is a risk of ‘seeding’ an abscess
Pre-existing neurological disease: there may be medicolegal disputes about ‘new’ symptoms

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14
Q

What is the earliest sign of local anaesthetic toxicity?

A

Numbness of the tongue and around the mouth, and tinnitus

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15
Q

What is the Hagen-Poiseulle formula?

A

Q = Pπr^4/ 8nl

Q = flow
P = pressure gradient along tube
r = tube radius
n = fluid viscosity
l = tube length

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16
Q

What are the landmarks for insertion of an internal jugular central line?

A

High approach:
Midpoint between the mastoid process and the suprasternal notch
Lateral to the carotid artery
Medial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Usually at the level of the cricoid cartilage

Low approach (higher incidence of pneumothorax):
Apex of the triangle formed by the two heads of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

NB: the right internal jugular vein is usually chosen because it runs straighter

17
Q

What are the 2 considerations in the decision making flowchart when deciding between an LMA and an ETT?

A

Is there a direct indication for an ETT?
Is there likely to be a need for intermittent positive pressure ventilation?

18
Q

Decide which patient needs which airway

A

x

19
Q

Give 5 indications for ETT over LMA

A

Muscle paralysis required (e.g. laparotomy)
Ventilation (IPPV) required (e.g. thoracotomy, major surgery requiring ventilation to reduce work of breathing, neurosurgery where ventilation is used to control CO2 levels bc of its effect on ICP)
Emergency/ non-fasted surgery
Gross obesity
Gastric issues (autonomic dysfunction - gastroparesis, reflux, oesophagitis, hiatus hernia
Significant lung disease
Surgery type (head and neck procedures, pelvic procedures as position increases abdominal pressure, surgery that reduces anaesthetics access to airway)

20
Q

advantages of IV induction over inhalational

A

x

21
Q

What are the appropriate doses at induction for:

Midazolam
Fentanyl (SpV and IPPV)
Rocuronium

A

Midazolam: 1-3mg
Fentanyl: 0.5-1.0mcg/kg (SpV) or 2-5mcg/kg (IPPV)
Rocuronium: 0.6mg/kg

22
Q

Give 4 scenarios where inhalational induction would be used instead of IV induction

A

In a child who is too young to be cooperative
In an IVDU with no veins
In a patient with stridor
Needle phobic patient