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Clin Path Final > Clin Path > Flashcards

Clin Path Flashcards

1
Q

Anisocytosis definition?

Clinical Significance?

A

Variably sized red blood cells

Cats and ruminants have some, horses should not have any

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2
Q

nRBCs and Howel Jolly Bodies

Clinical significance?

5 Causes?

A

Increased RBC demand or inappropriate release from bone marrow

lead toxicity, neoplasia of bone marrow, chemo, heat stroke, hypoxia

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3
Q

Poikilocytes

Clinical signifiance?

A

can be normal, or can indicate liver dz in cats or drugs like doxorubicin

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4
Q

Acanthocytes

Appearence?

shorter/longer life span? why?

main pathogeneis?

three possible causes?

A

club shaped IRREGULARLY shaped spicules

shorter, more rigid and resist osmotic lysis

alteration in lipid composition

liver failure increasing cholesterol, HSA, SHipping fever

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5
Q

Agglutination

mechanism?

How to test for it? How to interpret?

A

Ag:Ab complexes adhering RBCs

saline agglutination test.

add saline, if they dont come apart its agglutination.

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6
Q

Codocytes

aka

Appearence?

two causes?

A

target cells / leptocytes

Bullseye appearance from increased surface:volume

liver dz (cholesterol loading on membrane), hypothyroidism

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7
Q

Eccentrocytes

aka

Mechanism? Seen accompanied by?

Two causes?

A

Blister cells

oxidative stress. Heinz bodies in hemolytic anemia

PLant oxidants (red maple, onions), fragmentation change.

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8
Q

Echinocytes

aka

Appearance?

two causes?

A

burr cells / crenation

Sharp/blunted projections EVENLY spaced around the edges of cells

artifact (from drying), renal disease

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9
Q

Hypochromasia

two causes?

A

iron deficiency, regeneration

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10
Q

What kind of stain is used to detect reticulocytes?

A

new methylene blue

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11
Q

Rouleaux is normal in what two species?

A

cats and horses

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12
Q

Schistocytes

what are they?

5 causes?

A

fragmented rbcs that reflect mechanical injury

DIC, glomerular disease, vasculitiz, PSS, HSA

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13
Q

Spherocytes

Appearance

Two causes?

A

small and dense with regular border and lack of central palor

IMHA, transfused blood

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14
Q

Keratocytes

aka

Appearance?

Two mechanisms?

three causes

A

helmet cell or strap cell

one or two horn like projections

ruptured/fragmented membrane, decreased iron

DIC, vasculitis, HSA

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15
Q

Stomatocytes

appearance?

Three causes?

A

elongated area of central palor

artifact from thick blood, liver disease, lead poisoning.

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16
Q

Ghost cells

what are they?

two causes

A

membrane remnant of RBCs

in vitro hemolysis, peracute intravascular hemolysis

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17
Q

Increased MCV = ______

what does it indicate:
1
2
3
4

what breed is predisposed?

A

macrocytosis

  1. FeLV (altered cell division/dna synthesis)
  2. Regeneration (retics)
  3. Clumping (artifiact)
  4. Myeloproliferative disorders

poodles

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18
Q

Decreased MCV = ______

What does it indicate:
1
2

normally seen in what breeds?

A

microcytosis

  1. chronic bleeding (usually iron def)
  2. Liver dz (due to lack of iron transferring)

Shiba Inus and Akitas

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19
Q

Decreased MCHC

Indicates?

A

Hypochromsia

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20
Q

Increased MCHC

Indicates?

A

artifactual

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21
Q

RDW

What does it measure?

Increase indicates…

A

variation of red blood cell volume

iron deficiency

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22
Q

Causes of Normocytic, normochromic anemia

1.
2.
3

A
  1. Decreased EPO
  2. Bone Marrow insufficiency
  3. Anemia of chronic disease (iron sequestration because pathogens needing bacteria)
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23
Q

Reticulocytes:

Is it better to use absolute or percent to measure regeneration?

reference ranges for
Absolute: mild regen Dog/Cats, marked regen dog/cat

Percentage: anemia dog/cat

A

Absolute

Dog: >100K, >300K
Cat: >60K, >200K

> 1.5%

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24
Q

Corrected reticulocyte count:

Purpose:

Formula?

A

compensates for degree of anemia based on assumptions of what normal hematocrit should be (45 for dogs, 35 for cats

Reticuolcyte % x (patient’s HCT/Normal HCT)

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25
Q

Describe aggregate vs punctate reticulocytes average age

A

aggregate take 12-24 hours in the cat

punctate mature and remodel as they circulate (10-14 days)

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26
Q

Absolute vs Relative polycythemia?

Which is more common?

A

Relative is secondary to dehydration/hemoconcentration, will see accompanied by increased total protein

Absolute is blood sludging and causing hypoxia and lactate production (acidosis)

Relative is most common

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27
Q

Absolute erythrocytosis:

Primary cause?

Secondary causes?

A

Primary - Erythroid leukemia

Secondary: Appropriate (hypoxemia) or inappropriate (renal cyst, paraneoplasitic neoplasia, Increased t4)

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28
Q

Difference between HCT and PCV?

A

PCV is measured, HCT is calculated (Hb x 3)

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29
Q

CBC is collected in what color? What does it measure?

A

purple top

Plasma:fibrinogen + clotting factors + other proteins

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30
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

What are they?
Two reasons they are seen.

A

Nuclear fragments

due to preamture release from BM or failure of removal from spleen

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31
Q

Basophillic stippling

Seen when?

A

intense erythrogenic response to severe regen anemia or lead/zinc toxicity

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32
Q

Heinz Bodies

Mechanism?
Dogs/cats more susceptible? Why?

A

Oxidative damage to Hg.

Cats d/t less glutathione, more sulfhydral groups, and less efficacy of splenic removal

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33
Q

Heinz bodies: Causes

1
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
A
  1. red maple in horses
  2. onions/garlic
  3. DKA
  4. Acetaminophen
  5. Hyperthyroidism
  6. Lymphoma
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34
Q

Anaplasma

Vector?

Cell type infected?

Seen with what clinical presenation?

A

ticks

neutrophils or platelets

thrombocytopenia

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35
Q

Babesia

type of organism?

Infect what cells?

cause what?

transmitted via

A

protozoa

rbc

extravascular hemolytic anemia +/- DIC

Brown Dog tick

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36
Q

Ehrlichia

Organism type?

Can cause:
1
2
3
4
A

Intracellular bact

  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Polyarthritis
  3. Inflammation
  4. Non-regen anemia
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37
Q

Hepatozoon Americanum is what kind of organism?

A

Protozoa

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38
Q

Mycoplasma haemofelis

Appearance?

Can cause?

A
  1. small blue cocci/rings/rods on outsides of rbcs.

2. FIA - feline infectious anemia - regenerative

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39
Q

Corticosteroid response

What values changes?

Why?

A

leukocytosis with mature neutrophilia and lymphopenia

Steroids cause movement of cells from marginating pool to circulating pool

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40
Q

Epinephrine/Catecholamine response

What values change?

Why?

A

Leukocytosis with mature neutrophilia and lymphocytosis

Increased blood flow from marginating pool to circulating pool, and lymphocytosis via ymph release from spleen.

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41
Q

Leukemoid response

What is it?

How long does it take? What value?

Four possible causes?

A

Leukemia like response of increased WBC numbers but the cause is severe inflam

7-10 days. WBC > 75k

Pyometra, prostatitis, neoplasia/paraneoplastic process, hepatozoon

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42
Q

Left shift: Degen vs Regen

Which is more guarded prognosis?

A

Degen - normal neutrophil count/neutropenia with increased bands

Regen - mature neutrophilia with increase in band cells.

Degen is guarded because demand&raquo_space; production

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43
Q

Malignancy of:
Acute leukemia -

Chronic Leukemia -

A

malignancy of undifferentiated lymphocytes

Malignancy of mature, well-differentiated lymphocytes

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44
Q

6 types of inflammation:

A

Eosinophilic

Granulomatous

Lymphoplasmocytic

Macrophagic

Pyogranulomatous

Suppurative/Neutrophilic

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45
Q

Eosinophilic inflammation:

Definition?

Causes?

A

> 10% eosinophils +/- Mast cells +/- other inflam cell types

hypersensitivity/allergies, parasitic migrations, fungal infections, mast cell tumor, lymphoma

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46
Q

Granulomatous inflam

Describe it?

Most common cause?

A

histologic description where there is a fibrous capsule

FIP

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47
Q

Lymphoplasmocytic inflammation

4 common causes

A

IBD
Rhinitis
Vax
pododermatitis

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48
Q

Epitheliod macrophages

What are they?

function?

What causes them?

A

activated macrophages that resemble epithelial cells

send out mediators to attack other cells (not phagocytic)

foreign body rxn, mycobacterial infection, protozoa, fungi, neoplasia

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49
Q

Causes of pyogranulomatous inflam:

1
2
3
4
5
A

fungal infections (blasto)

mycobacterial infections

panniculitis

lick granulomas

chronic chylous effusions

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50
Q

Properties of degen neutrophils:

1.
2.

End stage?

A
  1. Karyolysis

2. Pyknosis

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51
Q

Define Karyolysis

mechanism?

A

nuclear swelling and decreased stain intensity

rapid cell death in toxic environment

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52
Q

Define Pyknosis

Mechanism?

A

Increased nuclear staining with coalescing of the nucleas into a single-round mass and intact membrane

degeneration or apoptotic change

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53
Q

Causes of degen neutrophils

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A

infectious agents causing sepsis or endotoxemia,

higher bacteria (nocardia, actinomyces),

abscesses secondary to FB,

tissue necrosis,

Bile

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54
Q

Name some types of round/discrete tumors

A

TVT, Lymphoma, MST, Plasmacytic, histocytoma/sarcoma.

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55
Q

Describe TVT appearance

A

round cell tumor with peripheral cytoplasmic vacuoles

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56
Q

Epithelial tumors

orignate from:

unique feature?

examples?

A

glandular or parenchymal tissue and lining surfaces

desmosomes

lung adenocarcinoma, perianal adenoma, sebaceous adenoma, TCC, mesothelioma

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57
Q

Mesenchymal tumors

appearance?

examples?
1
2
3
4
5
A

resemble embryonic connective tissue

1 HAS
2 OSA
3 Fibrosarcoma
4 Hemangiopericytoma
5 lipsarcoma
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58
Q

Naked nuclei neoplasms

usually associated with _____ tumors

examples:
1
2
3

A

endocrine/neuroendocrine tumors

1 thyroid tumor
2 islet cell tumor
3. paragangliomas

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59
Q

Don’t sample which lymph node?

A

mandibular

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60
Q

Normal lymph node:

Majority cell? what percent?

A

small lymphs > 90%

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61
Q

Hyperplastic/Reactive LN

Describe cell composition

A

small lymphs predominate, but increased medium/large cell type make up to 30% of population.

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62
Q

What is a mott cell?

A

activated plasma cell with abundant cytoplasm filled with multiple large spherical pale vacuoles representing Ig secretions

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63
Q

Hyperplastic/reactive LN:

Occurs when?

A

Ag in high conc reach draining LN and stimulate a response (local or generalized)

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64
Q

Causes of

localized hyperplastic LN?

Generalized hyperplastic LN

A

neoplasia, infection, IM

infectious, IM, Idiopathic

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65
Q

Criteria of malignancy:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
  1. Pleomorphism
  2. Anisokaryosis
  3. High or variable N:C ratio
  4. Coarse, clumped chromatin
  5. Large or variable nucleoli
  6. Abnormal mitotic activity
  7. Multinucleation
  8. Nuclear molding
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66
Q

Blastomyces:

Can be found in what three places?

A

Lungs, skin, eyes

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67
Q

Coccidioides immitis

likes to grow where

A

bone and lungs

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68
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

likes to grow where?

A

skin

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69
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

found where?

A

lungs, nasal passage, brain

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70
Q

Put there organisms in order of size from least to greatest:

Coccidiodes immitis
Sporothrix schenckii
blastomyces
crytococcus neoformans 
histoplasma capsulatum
A 
1. sporothrix = 2-3 microns 
2 histoplasma 2-4
3. blastomyces 10-40 
4. cryptococcus 10-40, but 200 with capsule 
5. Coccidioides 40-200
71
Q

Histoplasma capslatum

location?

A

intracellular WBC of lungs and GIT

72
Q

Predominant cells in:

  1. transudate?
  2. modified transudate?
  3. exudate?
A
  1. mesothelial
  2. mixed
  3. neuts
73
Q

7 types of effusions

A

blood

urine

pus

chyle

bile

cancer

water

74
Q

Hemorrhagic Effusion:

Predominant cells:
1.
2.

A
  1. rbcs

2. macrophages

75
Q

Chylous effusion:

Predominant blood cells when:
Acute?

Chronic?

A

acute = small lymphocytes

chronic = mixed

76
Q

What causes a transudate?

1.
2.

A
  1. low oncotic pressure from severe hypoalbuminemia

2. portal hypertension

77
Q

what causes modified transudate

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure (intestinal obstruction or R-HF)

78
Q

4 causes of hemorrhagic effusion

A

Neoplasia

trauma

inflam

coagulopathy

79
Q

How to treat chylothorax?

A

occlude thoracic duct

80
Q

Three causes of chylous effusion:
1
2
3

A

ruptured lymphatics

increased venous pressure

lymphangiectasia

81
Q

What is the cytologic presentation of

acute hemorrhage?

Chronic hemorrhage?

A

acute = erythrophagocytosis within neutrophils/macrophages = occurs within hours

chronic = hemosiderin/hemotoidin within macrophages = occurs within days

82
Q

In a peripheral node, what percentage of cells should be small lymphs?

A

85-90%

83
Q

What percent of a lymph node population is lymphoblasts in lymphoma?

A

50%

84
Q

White color urine?

A

may be normal, but is often related to numerous crystals such as Ca carbonate

85
Q

Red color urine

A

Hematuria, will clear with centrifugation

86
Q

Dark red to brown urine

A

Hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria, will not clear with centrfugation

87
Q

Clear urine is normal for what species?

A

dogs, cats, cattle

88
Q

Cloudy/milky urine is normal for what species?

A

horses, rabbits, birds. Crystals

89
Q

Three causes ammonium biruate crystals

A

severe liver disease, PSS, dalmations

90
Q

Signifiance of calcium carbonate crystals in urine?

A

normal in horses and rabbits

91
Q

Clinical significance of these in urine:

calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals?

calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals

A

Healthy, or AKI from ethylene glycol poisoning

Same, but more significant for ethylene glycol

92
Q

Finding granular casts in urine indicates

A

significant renal tubular damage

93
Q

Clinical significance of hyaline casts in urine?

A

normal, increase with exercise or mild renal disease

94
Q 
Pros of cytology 
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. ease of sample collection
  2. speed of results
  3. economical
  4. great/only real option for effusions
95
Q 
Histopath Pros
1
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. ID archietecture
  2. Use of special stains
  3. better for non-exfoliating tissues
  4. gold standard for morphology
  5. higher sample volume yield
96
Q

What is more sensitive as an indicator for GFR: Bun or creatinine?

A

Creatinine, it is less influenced by non-renal factors

97
Q

BROAD causes of azotemia:

pRe-renal?
renal?
post-renal

A

reduced renal perfusion

primary kidney disease

lower urinary tract obstruction/rupture

98
Q

Clinical signififance of

increased BUN and adequate SG?

A

renal tubules are concentrating = pre-renal azotemia. Decreased GFR`

99
Q

Clinical signifiicance of increased BUN and inadequate SG?

A

primary renal disease suspected = renal azotemia

100
Q

BUN:

Primary source?
Converted by ___ into ____
Path after conversion?

A

dietary protein

bacteria in gut into ammonia

enter circulation and go to liver, where it becomes urea

101
Q

minor increase in BUN could indicate:

1.
2.

A
  1. high protein diet

2. GI hemorrhage

102
Q

Minor decreases in BUN could indicates

1.
2.
3.

A

Liver dz (decreaes hepatic conversion of ammonia to urea)

PSS - ammonia not carried to liver

Diuresis - increased GFR

103
Q

Creatinine production:

Takes how long to diffuse out of muscle cells and equilibrate throughout body?

How long for BUN?

A

4 hours

1.5 hours

104
Q

SG is used as an indicator of ____

A

tubular function

105
Q

Enzymes for hepatic injury in:

small animal?

large animal/

A

ALT, AST

ADH, AST, GGT

106
Q

ALT half-life in dogs?
cats?

Magnitude of increase parallels…

A
  1. 5 d,
  2. 5 hr

number of cells affected, NOT SEVERITY OR REVERSIBILITy

107
Q

SDH

Increase indicates ____

half life is short or long?

A

hepatocellular injury

very short

108
Q

Enzymes of cholestasis in order from most to least sensitive

1
2
3
4

A
  1. ALP,
    GGT,
    Urine bilirubin
    Serum bilirubin
109
Q

ALP isoenzymes:

A

Liver, bone, placenta, intestine, kidney, leukocytes, corticosteroids, anticonvulsants

110
Q

> 4 increase in ALP in a dog indicates

A

cholestasis and/or isoenzyme induction

111
Q

increase in ALP in cat indicates

A

cholestasis

112
Q

Bilirubin is a less/more sensitive indicator of cholestasis than ALP and GGT?

A

less

113
Q

Which form of bilirubin is bound to albumin?

A

unconjugated

114
Q

Pre-hepatic bilirubinemia can be caused by:

1.
2

majority in what form?
.

A

hemolysis, increased rbc breakdown

unconjugated

115
Q

intrahepatic bilirubinemia is in what form?

A

both conjugated and unconjugated

116
Q

posthepatic bilirubinemia is usually in what form?

A

conjugated

117
Q

Increase in urine bilirubin is more signifiant in dogs or cats? why?

A

dogs, their renal threshold is low.

118
Q

at least ____% of functional liver mass must be loss before assays are altered.

A

70-80%

119
Q

Liver function assays include measurment of:

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
A 
Glucose, 
BUN
ALB
Glob
Chol
Unconjugated bili
MCV
RBC morphology
120
Q

Decreased Alb causes:

1
2
3
4
5
A
  1. liver function loss
  2. inflam (negative acute phase protein)
  3. renal loss
  4. intestinal loss
  5. sequestration
121
Q

How does decreased liver function affect globulins? why

A

increase

decreased kupffer cell activity = increased Ig production and decreased Ig clearence by liver

122
Q

how does decreased liver function affect glucose? why?

A

decreases, glycogen depletion and decreased clearence

123
Q

how does decreased liver function affect cholesterol? why?

A

decreases, decreased synthesis in liver.

124
Q

three main causes of decreased cholesterol

A
  1. decreased liver function
  2. PLE/malabsorption
  3. malnutrition
125
Q

How does decreased liver function affect unconjugated bilirubin? why?

A

increases, decreased uptake due to fewer receptors

126
Q

how does decreased liver function affect coag factors?

A

decreased, will prolong PT, PTT

127
Q

How does decreased liver function affect MCV? why?

A

decrease = microcytosis

abnormal iron metabolism in presence of normal iron body stores

128
Q

RBC morphology that would indicate liver dz:

A

increased poiks
target cells/codocytes (altered lipid metabolism)

Acanthocytes

129
Q

crystals you’d see associated with decreased liver function

A 
ammonium biurate (increased circulating ammonia
Tyrosine and leucine
130
Q

How does decreased liver function affect urination?

A

polyruia and hyposthenuria (low urea = medullary washout)

131
Q

Factors to measure for liver function

A

bile acids, resting ammonia, ammonia challenge

132
Q 
Assays affected by muscle injury?
1
2
3
4
5
6
A

CK, AST, LDH, ALT, Myoglobin, Potassiun

133
Q

What affect does muscle injury have on LDH

A

elevated

134
Q

What will occur faster in muscle inury, enzymes or myoglobinuria?

A

enzymes

135
Q

how does muscle injury affect potassium?

A

hypokalemia = weakness = increased CK = necrosis = myoglobinuria

136
Q 
secondary factors that indicate excrine pancreas
1
2
3
4
5
6
A 
1. ALB
2 hepatobiliary profile
3. glucose
4 cholesterol
5. leukon
137
Q

DDX for increased amylase

1
2

A

renal azotemia

pancreastitis

138
Q

DDX for hyperlipasemia

1
2
3

A

pancreatitis
renal azotemia
dexamethasone administration

139
Q

How does exocrine pancreas disorder affect calcium? why?

A

decreases, from precipatation of calcium in fat necrosis + increased glucagon causing increased calcitonin

140
Q

How will liver enzymes change if exocrine pancreas is disrupted?

A

increased

141
Q

How does glucose change during exocrine pancreas dysfunction? why

A

increase from epinephrine, pain, glucagon release

142
Q

How does triglycerides change during exocrine pancreas dysfucntion? why

A

increase, inactivated lipoportein lipase

143
Q

diseases associated with pancreatitis:

1
2
3
4

A
  1. DM
  2. Cushings
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Hyperlipidemia
144
Q 
Assays affect by endocrine pancreas issue:
1
2
3
4
5
A
  1. glucose
  2. urine glucose
  3. urine ketones
  4. acid-base
  5. electrolytes
145
Q

How does endocrine pancreas issue affect glucose? why

A

Both:
Hyper = DM, hyperadrenocorticism, stress, fear

hypo = hyperinsulinism, hepatic insuff, addisons, hypothyroid, toy breed, exertion, sepsis,

146
Q

Two causes of glucosuria with endocrine pancreas dz

A

exceeded renal threshold, decreased renal threshold

147
Q

If you see ketones with hyperglycemia, think ___

A

DM

148
Q

Acid-base state for DM?

A

titrational metabolic acidosis (from ketone bodies)

149
Q

How are electrolytes affected by endocrine pancreas disease? why?

A

Loss due to osmotic diuresis from glucosuria leading to dehydration and electrolye loss

150
Q

Hypoalbuminemia causes:

1
2

A

decreased production (decreased functional mass, negative acute phase protein, severe malabsorption)

Increased loss (GI, kidney, effusion, exudate, hemorrhage

151
Q

Hypergobulinemia causes:

1
2
3
4
5
A
  1. PLN
    vax

chronic antigenic stimulation

multiple myeloma and lymphoma

liver failure

152
Q

Causes of hyperfibrinogenemia?

A

inflam or dehydration

153
Q

Causes of hypofibrinogenemia

A

DIC, severe liver failure, artifact

154
Q

Describe the Total Protein: Fibrinogen ratio formula and interpretation?

A

Make sure theyre in the same units, than divde protein by fibrinogen.

> 15 = dehydration, < 10 is inflam

155
Q

Secretional Metabolic Acidosis is characterized by:

1
2
3
4

A
  1. Bicarb loss (upper gi diarrhea, salivation in ruminants)
  2. Cl increased relative to Na => decreased HCO3
  3. K increased because of transcellular shift with H
  4. Normal AG
156
Q

Titrational Metabolic Acidosis is characterized by :

1
2
3
4
5
A
  1. Increased KLUEs
  2. Decreased bicarb
  3. Cl increased relative to N -> decreased HCO3
  4. Increased K
  5. Increased AG
157
Q

Mixed metabolic alkalosis and titrational metabolic acidosis:

Describe two situations

1
2

A
  1. Gastric vomiting (alkalosis) with dehydration and hypovolemic shock (increased lactic acid=acidosis)

Renal azotemia (titrational acidosis) with secondary vomiting = (alkalosis)

158
Q

What happens to calcium in DKA patient? Why?

A

decreases because acidemic protons displace Ca from protein. But the alkalosis (from vomiting) can decrease the H, allowing increased Calcium protein binding, increasing total Ca . So it doubles the affect of the hypocalcemia, which is real bad.

159
Q

How does the bilirubin dipstick test work?

A

Measures conjugated bilirubin with diazotization = couples bilirubin with diazotized dichloroaniline in acidic environment.

160
Q

Bilirubinuria may indicate:

1
2
3
4
5
A
  1. Liver disease
  2. bile duct obstruction (will be really severe)
  3. Starvation
  4. hemolysis
  5. pyrexia
161
Q

Positive urine blood test can indicate:

1
2
3

A
  1. hematuria

2 hemoglobinuria

  1. myoglobinuria
162
Q

How does the urine occult blood test work?

A

psuedoperoxidase reaction

163
Q

How does the urine glucose test work?

A

Enzymatic reaction: glucose reacts with glcose oxidase to oxidize indicator chemical

164
Q

Causes of persistent glucosuria:

1
2
3

A
  1. DM
  2. Administration of glucose containing fluids
  3. chronic dz not related to kidneys (endocrine)
165
Q

Causes of transient glucosuria

1
2
3
4
5
A
  1. hyperthyroidism,
  2. acute pancreatitis
  3. stress (cats)
  4. postprandial
  5. drugs
166
Q

Three ketones that can be detected in urine?

semiquantitative reagent detects which?

A

acetone, acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid

the first two

167
Q

Causes of ketonuria:

1
2
3
4
5
6
A
  1. starvation
  2. insulinoma
  3. diabetic ketoacidosis
  4. persistent hypoglycemia
  5. high fat low carb diets
  6. glycogen storage disease
168
Q

urine with high glucose will have what affect on pH? Why?

A

lower it, bact metabolize glucose and produce ammonia, lowering the pH

169
Q

Acidic urine crystals:

1
2
3

A
  1. uric acid
  2. cystine
  3. calcium oxalate crystals
170
Q

How are proteins measured in urine?

A

pH dye indicator method using bromphenol blue, negative charge of Alb causes pH increase = positive result

171
Q

Proteinuria can be due to:

1
2
3
4

A
  1. Hemorhhage
  2. infection
  3. intravascular hemolysis
  4. renal disesase
172
Q

Urine protein:Urine Creatinine Ratio

estimates ….

benefit?

A

estimates amount of protein lost in urine

source of protein loss, specifically whether protein is due to glomerular PLN disease

173
Q

Interpreting Up:UC ratio:

healthy =

non azotemic bu reccomend monitoring:

non-azotemic but work up suggested:

Glomerular disease:

A

< 0.5

0.5-1.0

> 1.0

> 2.0

Clin Path Final (1 decks)

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