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Clin path 1 part 2 > clin path 1 part 2 > Flashcards

clin path 1 part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what agent is used to determine if a gram-positive coccus or rod is catalase positive

A

hydrogen peroxide

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2
Q

a positive coagulase test will have what indication

A

clotting

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3
Q

A coagulase test should be done on a sample with ________to determine the presence of coagulase

A

gram positive, catalase positive

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4
Q

the coagulase test is used to differentiate between species of

A

staphylococcus

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5
Q

what bacterial species are used as a positive control for the oxidase activity test

A

pseudomonas

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6
Q

If the milk reagent mixture in the California mastitis test creates a distinct precipitate but no gel formation how would the result be recorded

A

weak positive

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7
Q

The medium of choice in dermatophyte tubes is

A

sabouraud dextrose agar

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8
Q

what of the following isn’t a reliable method to diagnose a dermatophyte infectoin

A

Wood’s lamp

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9
Q

What’s an example of dimorphic fungus that can grow as yeast or a fungus depending on temp.

A

histoplasma

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10
Q

what percent of dermatophyte infections in cats are caused by Microsporum canis

A

95%

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11
Q

what stain is useful in the evaluation of fungal organisms

A

lactophenol cotton blue

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12
Q

what color change in DTM indicates the presence of dermatophytes

A

Red

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13
Q

Describe how to calibrate a refractometer

A

use a couple drops of room temp distilled H2O on the lens and close the cover then turn the knob on the side until it reads 1.000

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14
Q

List at least 3 components of a comprehensive quality control program

A

a. use of control assays
b. SOP for care of equipment and supplies
c. qualifications of lab personnel

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15
Q

_________ refers to how close a test is to the true value

A

accuracy

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16
Q

what term refers to nonbiologic materials used to calibrate equipment

A

standards

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17
Q

which type of controls mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals within a vet hospital

A

Personal protective equipment

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18
Q

what term refers to biologic materials used in quality control assurance programs

A

controls

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19
Q

which documents provided by manufactures of all hazardous materials must be readily available to employees at every vet facility

A

Material safety data sheet

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20
Q

A vet tech is given the responsibility to ship lab samples to an outside lab for analysis which specimen would be considered a category B infectious material

A

Blood specimen for feline heartworm evaluation

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21
Q

The resolving power of the microscope is

A

numerical aperture

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22
Q

What number would indicate a pH that is alkaline

A

7.2-10

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23
Q

what type of error involves lack of maintenance on a lab instrument

A

analytic variable

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24
Q

vet tech A uses “gm” to abbreviate gram. Vet tech B uses “g” to abbreviate gram. which tech is correct

A

only tech B

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25
Q

how many microscopes should the ideal vet practice maintain

A

2

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26
Q

where can OSHA standards that are related to vet practices be found

A

Code of federal regulations

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27
Q

the most important component of the microscope are the

A

objective lenses

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28
Q

what solution is used to recalibrate the refractometer

A

Distilled water

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29
Q

what is the base metric unit for volume

A

liter

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30
Q

which of the following shows equal ratios

A

1/2, 1:2, 0.5

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31
Q

agents that pose a high risk of causing life threatening diseases are

A

biosafety level IV

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32
Q

nonbiological substances used to calibrate equipment are

A

standards

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33
Q

the system of units that was derived from the French Le system is called

A

international

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34
Q

Agents that have the potential to cause human disease if handled incorrectly are

A

Biosafety level II

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35
Q

According t the C scale water freezes at

A

0

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36
Q

what instrument uses moist heat at greater than atmospheric pressure to sterilize an item

A

autoclave

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37
Q

what is the total magnification of an object viewed through a microscope having a 10x ocular lens and a 40x objective lense

A

400x

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38
Q

Blood chemistry analyzers are used to measure what

A

concentrations of specific blood components

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39
Q

Voiding frequently

A

pollakiuria

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40
Q

voiding without adequate out put

A

oliguria

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41
Q

excessive drinking

A

polydipsia

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42
Q

too much urine output

A

polyuria

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43
Q

No urine output

A

anuria

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44
Q

painful urination

A

dysuria

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45
Q

slow urination

A

stranguria

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46
Q

What do pu and pd represent in the medical record

A

polyuria/polydipsia

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47
Q

if the specific gravity value on the urine sample you’ve diluted with an equal volume of distilled water reads 1.030 on the refractometer what is the corrected SG value of the urine before dilution

A

1.060

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48
Q

state the range of urine that represents isothenuria

A

1.008-1.012

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49
Q

What substance in urine does each of the following tests detect ictotest, sulfasalicyclic acid test, clinitest

A

Ictotest= bilirubin
sulfasalicyclic acid test= proteins
Clinitest= sugar

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50
Q

The protein value for a canine urine specimen on a dipstic is 100mg/dl and the creatine value on the same dipstic is 200mg/dl what is the p/c ratio?

A

100/200= 0.5

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51
Q

Briefly describe how the info in the physical properties section can be seful

A

Volume can help determine several issues like polyuria, pollakiuria, Auria, oliguria
Appearance/turbidity shows if there are solutes in the urine
odor can indicate the presence of a UTI/bacteria

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52
Q

Briefly describe how the info in the chemical section can be useful

A

pH can help determine a UTI
Protein can indicate several diseases
glucose in urine can indicate diabetes mellitus
chemicals can indicate disease when in urine

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53
Q

Briefly describe how the info in the sediment section can be helpful

A

Finding sediment is diagnostically important because most animals don’t have a significant amount in their urine

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54
Q

Why do you think its important that all parts of the report be filled out even if the lab knows the vet is looking for something specific important

A

Another issue besides what is being looked for might be found. Different findings combined can help make a more thorough diagnosis.

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55
Q

The easiest urine sample to collect is one via the

A

voided sample

56
Q

which of the following parasite ova will not be found in urine sediment

A

toxocara canis

57
Q

Which of the following represents the correct order of size (small to largest) for epithelial cells

A

renal, transitional, squamous

58
Q

Squamous epithelial cells are not normally found in samples obtained by

A

cystocentesis or catheterization

59
Q

as the urinary bladder fills which way does the apex of the bladder move

A

cranially

60
Q

Which urinary crystals appear flat, colorless, and hexagonal

A

cystine

61
Q

What is the instrument most commonly used to measure specific gravity

A

refractometer

62
Q

in which species is a fatty cast most likely to be found

A

Cats

63
Q

When bacteria are detected on the microscope exam, the tech should search the slide for which of the following

A

WBCs

64
Q

To be considered significant the number of bacteria per ml of urine must be at

A

100,000

65
Q

Which of the following is a common crystal in both alkaline and slightly acidic urine and has a shape resembling a coffin lid.

A

Struvite

66
Q

which crystal is responsible for the cloudy appearance of normal horse and rabbit urine.

A

calcium carbonate

67
Q

what would you expect the urine pH to be in an animal fed a vegetarian diet

A

Greater than 7

68
Q

Pale urine with a high SG indicates which of the following

A

diabetes mellitus

69
Q

Vets use which of the following values to evaluate the concentration ability of the kidney

A

specific gravity

70
Q

When using a dipstick on urine high levels of which vitamin can produce false negative results for RBCs

A

Vitamin D

71
Q

Which of the following term is used to describe an increase in the production of urine

A

polyuria

72
Q

Which epithelial cell is flat and thin and can resemble a cornflake

A

squamous epithelial cells

73
Q

in which species would you expect to find mucous threads in the urine

A

horse

74
Q

Synthetic media

A

made from pure chemical substances

75
Q

enriched media

A

Encourages fastidious pathogens to grow

76
Q

selective

A

contains antibacterial substances that make it possible for only certain types of bacteria to grow

77
Q

enrichment

A

favors the growth of a particular microorganism over others by providing nutrients to help it grow

78
Q

differential

A

enables the tech to distinguish bacteria growing on the same plate by their chemical reaction to the test media

79
Q

What is the microbiological name for rod and round bacteria

A

bacillus and cocci

80
Q

Gram negative bacteria

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica
citrobacter spp
escherichia coli
mannheimia haemolytica
moraxella spp
paterurellamultiocida
proteus spp
pseudomonas spp
salmonella spp
serratia spp

81
Q

Gram positive bacteria

A

arcanobacteriaum pyogenes
bacillus spp
listeria moncytogenes
corynebacterium spp
staphlococcus spp
streptococcus spp
streptococcus dysagactaie
streptococcus uberis

82
Q

Describe each type of hemolysis

A

Alpha-incomplete zone
Beta-complete zone
Delta- double zone
Gamma- no hemolysis

83
Q

What do these abbreviations stand for: MIC, DTM, and ELISA

A

MIC- minimal inhibitory concentration
DTM- spermatophyte test medium
ELISA- enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

84
Q

How are different species of staphylococcus distinguished

A

in coagulase of rabbit plasma, the microorganism is incubated in a tube; if coagulation occurs, a more pathogenic species (coagulase positive) of staphylococcus (staphylococcus aureus) is present

85
Q

Methods used to detect ring worm

A

woods lamp- look for fluorescence
KOH preparation- look for ectothrix spores or hyphae in skin scales
culture- look for color change in the medium and growth. color change can happen before growth.

86
Q

Most gram positive and gram negative organisms will grow on

A

Blood agar

87
Q

With the KOH test what does the presence of a sticky strand indicate?

A

gram negative organism

88
Q

What color are gram positive organisms after a gram stain

A

purple

89
Q

Bill uses a wood lamp to screen for dermatophyte infection. Don uses the woods lamp to screen for ring worm. Who is correctly using the lamp?

A

Both Bill and Don

90
Q

One of the worlds most pressing public and animal health problems is

A

antibiotic resistance

91
Q

Which of the following terms refers to complete hemolysis that creates a clear zone around the bacterial colony on blood agar

A

Beta

92
Q

For maximum life agar plates should be refrigerated at

A

5-10 C

93
Q

which of the following media allow bacteria to be separated into groups based on biochemical reactions

A

differential

94
Q

A zone of inhibition measuring 10mm for cefazolin would be considered

A

resistant (look at chart on pg 246)

95
Q

Culture specimens from microsporum or trichophyton should be collected from

A

periphery of the lesion

96
Q

which of the following bacilli is gram negative aerobic bacilli

A

pseudomonas

97
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of colonies observed during the gross exam

A

coagulation

98
Q

which of the following tests require the use of a microscope slide that contains a concave area

A

hanging drop motility test

99
Q

which of the following is used to classify bacteria according to their ability to ferment glucose, lactose, or sucrose?

A

triple sugar iron agar

100
Q

what color is urea media

A

Peach

101
Q

Name a gram negative cocci

A

lactobacillus

102
Q

which bacteria require high levels of CO2 to survive

A

capnophilic bacteria

103
Q

when staining microbiology samples the two most common stains are

A

gram stain and ziehl neelsen stain

104
Q

which of the following is not considered a microbe

A

blood

105
Q

the dermatophyte test medium is a modified version of what medium

A

sabouraud dextrose agar

106
Q

list 4 basic techniques for collecting cytological samples

A

swabs
tissue scrapings
touch impressions
fine needle aspirates

107
Q

which cytology technique is most suitable for samples with low cellularity

A

line smear

108
Q

collecting fluid from the abdomen is called ________ or_______

A

abdominocentesis or paracentesis

109
Q

collecting fluid from the chest is called ______ or_________

A

thoracocentesis or thoracentesis

110
Q

collecting fluid from a joint is called _____

A

arthrocentesis

111
Q

List the nuclear criteria of malignancy

A

macrokaryosis- increased nuclear size more than 10u in diameter
increased nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
anisokaryosis-variation in nuclear size, especially important if the nuclei of multinucleated cells vary
multinucleation
increased mitotic figures
abnormal mitosis
course chromatin pattern
nuclear molding
macronuclei
angular nucleoli
anisonucleoliosis

112
Q

Fluids collected from body cavities are classified as either

A

transudates
exudates
modified transudates

113
Q

List 3 types of vaginal epithelial cells that can be seen on a vaginal swab

A

parabasal
superficial
intermediate

114
Q

which of the vaginal cell types predominates in estrus

A

superficial type

115
Q

Describe the appearance of a cornified vaginal epithelial cell

A

Has an angular appearance and is lacking a nucleus

116
Q

What biopsy is obtained with a scalpel

A

wedge biopsy

117
Q

What does a normal ear swab contain

A

cornified epithelial cells

118
Q

what plasma cell contains secretory vesicles of immunoglobulin?

A

Mott cells

119
Q

what type of fluid has low cellularity, low total protein, and a mixture of mesothelial cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes

A

transudate

120
Q

what size needle is used to perform percutaneous transtracheal wash

A

18 gauge

121
Q

In a male dog what % of abnormal spermatozoa is normal

A

less than 20%

122
Q

What can be recognized by the presence of large numbers of cells with an eccentrically located nucleus and a prominent perinuclear clear zone

A

plasma cell tumor

123
Q

What is an abnormal characteristic of synovial fluid

A

high nucleated cell numbers

124
Q

other then a gram stain preparation which sample should be gently treated with heat prior to staining

A

Ear

125
Q

Abnormal tracheal washes are generally ___________

A

exudates

126
Q

What is inflammation of the uterus called

A

Metritis

127
Q

what is a sign of malignancy in the cytology of a tumor

A

angular nucleoli

128
Q

what is another name for compression preparations

A

squash preparation

129
Q

what stain is inexpensive, readily available and easy to prepare

A

Romanowski stains

130
Q

Imprints are also known as

A

impression smears

131
Q

what is characterized by relatively low to moderate TNCC’s predominantly as a result of the leakage of lymphatics

A

modified transudate

132
Q

Cells that display at least ______ abnormal nuclear configurations are identified a malignant

A

3

133
Q

The study of cells that have been shed from the body surfaces is

A

exfoliative cytology

134
Q

What is a type of tumor characterized by spindle shaped cells, low cellularity, and cells that exfoliate singly

A

mesenchymal

135
Q

what is a type of tumor that is usually highly cellular that normally exfoliates in clusters

A

lymphoma

136
Q
A

Clin path 1 part 2 (1 decks)

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