clin path 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of controls mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals within a vet hospital?

A

Administrative

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2
Q

Which documents provided by manufacturers of all hazardous materials must be readily available to employees at every vet facility?

A

Material Safety data sheets MSDS

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3
Q

The accidental ingestion of the organism toxoplasmosis is an example of a safety hazard in which bio safety level?

A

Biosafety level II

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4
Q

A veterinary tech is given the responsibility to ship lab samples to an outside lab for analysis. Which specimen would be considered a category B infectious material.

A

Blood specimen for feline heartworm evaluation

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5
Q

The sink in a vet hospital lab is best used for which purpose?

A

To rinse, drain, or stain specimens and discard fluids.

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6
Q

Every vet diagnostic lab should have access to an internet connection either in the lab or somewhere within the facility. what would be the best determinant of a high quality internet site?

A

The site is unbiased and staffed by recognized experts in the field.

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7
Q

A small animal hospital is planning to open soon. the vet must decide what equipment is necessary to operate a minimally equipped lab. Which item should be included in this lab?

A

Refractometer

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8
Q

Excessive heat build-up due to air friction at excessive speeds can damage specimens. this is the disadvantage to what kind of centrifuge?

A

Horizontal centrifuge head

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9
Q

Which style of centrifuge has drilled holes that hold test tubes and runs at high speeds, without causing excess heat buildup that can damage specimens

A

Angled centrifuge head

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10
Q

The vet tech needs to determine the total protein concentration of plasma. What lab instrument must be used?

A

Refractometer

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11
Q

A vet tech has been assigned to perform regular maintenance on the refractometer in the lab. What maintenance task should be performed?

A

Clean after every use and calibrate weekly

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12
Q

A 10 year old SF dog presents with urinary incontinence. The vet would like to get preliminary urine results as quickly as possible. Which reading can be obtained quickly using the refractometer.

A

Specific gravity

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13
Q

What is the best type of pipette to use to move a noncritical amount of liquid from one tube to another?

A

Transfer

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14
Q

Which size pipette would you choose to transfer 1.6ml or fluid?

A

2ml

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15
Q

A lab incubator must be capable of maintaining a constant temperature. what is the optimal temp for growing most pathogens

A

37 degrees C

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16
Q

A hospital would like to purchase a hot water bath for its lab but it wants one that doesn’t require racks and takes little maintenance. Which type would be the best option?

A

Waterless bead

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17
Q

Which type of microscope is an essential piece of lab equipment for a hospital lab

A

Compound microscope

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18
Q

An organism is being viewed with a light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and 40x objective. what is the magnification of the organism?

A

400

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19
Q

Ideally, a practice should maintain two microscopes. What is the reason for having two?

A

One is used to perform routine parasite studies, and the other is used for hematology and cytology evaluations

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20
Q

An object is being viewed with a light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and 100x objective. What is the magnification of the object?

A

1,000

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21
Q

The objective lenses of a microscope are important and are characterized by certain types. which type of objective lens is best for most vet hospitals?

A

Achromatic

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22
Q

A busy vet hospital is planning to purchase a microscope for its lab. The staff should like to be able to take images from the microscope and put them directly into the patient’s chart. What is the best choice of microscope to purchase?

A

Digital microscope with computer software

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23
Q

How is an image viewed through a microscope.

A

upside down and backwards

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24
Q

Modern microscopes contain a light source. which device is used to adjust the intensity of the light for the microscope?

A

Rheostat

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25
Q

A urinary cast is being viewed through a microscope. Its difficult to visualize the object due to the bright light from the scopes light source. What could be adjusted to visualize this object fully?

A

Condenser

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26
Q

An object that is being viewed is slightly fuzzy and surrounded by a halo. what can be adjusted to focus the object and remove the halo?

A

Substage condenser

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27
Q

Which part of a microscope consists of a number of leaves that are opened or closed to control the amount of light illuminating the object

A

aperture diaphragm

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28
Q

Routine maintenance of a microscope is essential to ensure the long use of the instrument. which cleaning solvent can be used to remove excess oil and dissolve the adhesives that secure the objective lenses?

A

xylene

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29
Q

to ensure correct identification of objects, a microscope must be calibrated using a stage micrometer. How often does a microscope need to be calibrated?

A

Once for the service of its life

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30
Q

Which type of micrometer can be added or removed from microscope eyepieces as needed to impose an image of a net, a scale, or crosshairs over the viewing area?

A

Ocular

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31
Q

A digital microscope can help capture images for viewing on a larger screen, which of the following capabilities refers to the degree of detail in the images and the clarity of the images?

A

Resolution

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32
Q

Which of the following is measured in pixels

A

resolution

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33
Q

Which type of light source for microscopes tends to produce the highest quality images due to the enhanced color balance and greater stability of the light output?

A

LED

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34
Q

When using the metric system, the prefix milli- refers to which power of 10

A

10^-3

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35
Q

A tech is asked to record the amount of a substance used in a dilution. The amount of substance added was 0.001ml. What would be the best way to record this amount?

A

1 microliter

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36
Q

A tech needs to make a 1:10 dilution of a patient sample. What would be the correct dilution.

A

10ul of sample to 90ul of distilled water

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37
Q

A tech needs to take a 60mg/dl solution and dilute it 1:5. What would be the concentration of the dilution

A

60/5= 12mg/dl

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38
Q

A tech needs to take a 40mg/dl sample and dilute it 1:10. what would be the concentration of the dilution?

A

40/10= 4mg/dl

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39
Q

A test result comes back with a value of 3.456x10^4. this value needs to be converted to a number. What is the correct value?

A

34,560

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40
Q

A test result comes back with the value of 45.6X 10^-2 whats the correct value?

A

0.456

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41
Q

A urine specimen comes back with a pH of 6. Which H+ concentration would this sample have?

A

10^-6

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42
Q

A sample has been diluted using a 1:10 dilution. What must be done to the result to give the correct value for an undiluted sample?

A

Multiple the result by 10

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43
Q

A commonly obtained result in vet labs is the pH of a sample. What is the best definition of pH?

A

A negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion

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44
Q

Lab results show that a sample has a basic pH. Which pH value represents a basic pH

A

7.2

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45
Q

A lab test requires a sample to be at room temp or 73 degrees F. What is the equivalent temp in degrees C

A

C=((73F-32)x5)/9
41X5/9
205/9
22.77777 or 23 degrees C

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46
Q

A specimen needs to be incubated at 37 degrees C but the only thermometer available reads in degrees Fahrenheit. What would the temp need to be in degrees F.

A

98.6 F

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47
Q

quality control programs ensure the accuracy of lab results. Which term is defined by how closely results agree with the true quantitative value of the constituent.

A

Accuracy

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48
Q

Which scale is the most commonly used temp measurement in vet clinical labs?

A

Celsius

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49
Q

Quality control programs ensure the accuracy of lab results. which term is defined by the magnitude of random errors and the reproducibility of measurements

A

Precision

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50
Q

Quality control programs ensure the accuracy of lab results. What term is defined by the ability of a method to be accurate and precise?

A

Reliability

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51
Q

An error occurred in lab results and was traced back to the sample to be hemolyzed. Which type of variable error is this?

A

Preanalytic

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52
Q

An error occurred in lab results and was traced back to the lack of maintenance on a lab instrument. Which type of error is this

A

analytic

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53
Q

A sample is lipemic. which type of variable is this?

A

Biologic

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54
Q

A sample was sent to a reference lab; however, vital information was missing from the requisition form, causing delays in processing the sample. Which type of variable is this?

A

nonbiologic

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55
Q

It was discovered that the standard serum control used was the incorrect serum for the species being tested. which type of variable is this?

A

analytic

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56
Q

Which body system collects and eliminates waste from the body?

A

urinary

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57
Q

The urinary system consists of which of the following

A

two kidneys, two ureters, one urethra, and one urinary bladder

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58
Q

Which animal has a heart shaped right kidney

A

horse

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59
Q

Where in the body are the kidneys located in most animals

A

Dorsal aspect of the abdomen, cranial to the lumbar vertebra

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60
Q

which animals kidneys have a lobulated appearance

A

Cows

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61
Q

Which term refers to the indented portion of the kidney

A

hilus

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62
Q

What’s the term for the location of the kidney where the blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves, and ureters enter and exit?

A

Hilus

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63
Q

which part of the kidney is the most functional portion

A

nephron

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64
Q

Which part of the kidney has various components, including the renal corpuscle, proximal and distal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, and a collecting tubule

A

nephron

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65
Q

Which structure composes the renal corpuscle and is surrounded by a Bowman capsule

A

glomerulus

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66
Q

Which structure in the kidney filters a portion of the plasma and eliminates its wastes

A

glomerulus

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67
Q

As fluid passes through the kidney, substances are resorbed. What’s the condition called when the nephrons have reached the maximum limit for resorption

A

renal threshold

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68
Q

By the time the fluid in the nephron reaches the collecting tubules, it becomes which of the following

A

urine

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69
Q

which of the following is the structure through which urine passes from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder

A

ureters

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70
Q

which structure enters the urinary bladder at oblique angles, forming valve like openings that prevent back flow of the urine as the bladder fills

A

ureters

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71
Q

Which urinary system structure is a muscular sac that stores urine and releases it periodically by the process of urination

A

urinary bladder

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72
Q

when the urinary bladder enlarges and reaches a certain point, which structure in the bladder wall is/are activated to trigger the contraction of the smooth muscles?

A

Stretch receptors

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73
Q

Which structures lead from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body

A

urethra

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74
Q

Which structure releases the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

posterior pituitary gland

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75
Q

which structure releases the hormone aldosterone

A

adrenal cortex

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76
Q

antidiuretic hormone acts on which structure to promote reabsorption of water

A

collecting tubules

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77
Q

a man notices that his dog hasn’t been urinating as often as it had previously. What’s another term for this condition

A

oliguria

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78
Q

A woman notices her dog needs to go out to urinate more frequently than it had in the past. Whats another term for this condition

A

polyuria

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79
Q

A dog is hospitalized, and the nursing staff realizes that the animal isn’t urinating. whats the term for this condition

A

anuria

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80
Q

Which hormones are involved in the regulation of urine volume

A

aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone

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81
Q

which of the following lines the urinary bladder

A

transitional epithelial cells

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82
Q

An insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone by the posterior pituitary gland can result in which of the following?

A

Polyuria

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83
Q

Which type of urine sample is not satisfactory for bacterial examination

A

free catch

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84
Q

In a free catch sample what type of cells most likely will contaminate the sample

A

WBCs

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85
Q

Which method can be used to stimulate urination in sheep

A

occluding the nostrils

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86
Q

which method is used to stimulate urination in cows

A

gently rubbing dry hay ventral to the vulva in a circular manner

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87
Q

Which method is used to stimulate urination in horses

A

rubbing warm, wet cloth on the ventral abdomen

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88
Q

Bacteria in the urine may cause an infection in the kidneys as a complication of which type of urine collection method

A

bladder expression

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89
Q

A urine sample has an increased number of RBCs. This could be due to which type of urine collection method

A

bladder expression

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90
Q

if an animal is suspected of having an obstructed urethra which type of urine collection method should not be attempted

A

bladder expression

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91
Q

An animal is presented for possible bladder stones. the animal has had two cystotomies for bladder stones in the past. What type of urine collection should be avoided?

A

bladder expression

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92
Q

Which urine collection method is recommended for a sterile collection when a cystocentesis can’t be performed

A

catheterization

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93
Q

whats the necessary first step in performing a catheterization urine collection in a female dog

A

wash the external genitalia

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94
Q

why should the first portion of the sample collected by catheterization be discarded?

A

to prevent possible bacterial contamination from the catheterization process

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95
Q

which of the following must be true in order to perform a cystocentesis

A

A distended bladder that can be easily palpated

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96
Q

whats the best choice for needle size and syringe size for a cystocentesis urine collection

A

20 or 22 gauge needle and 10ml syringe

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97
Q

in which direction should the needle be inserted in the caudal abdomen for cystocentesis

A

dorsocaudally

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98
Q

what is the urine collection method of choice if culture and sensitivity testing are desired

A

cystocentesis

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99
Q

A male dog is presented for a possible urinary infection, and the vet would like the tech to collect a urine sample by cystocentesis. Where should the tech insert the needle for the collection

A

caudal to the umbilicus and to the side of the sheath

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100
Q

The vet wants a quantitative urine sample on a dog. How is this sample to be collected

A

catheterization for 24 hrs

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101
Q

whats the best time frame to analyze the urine sample to ensure accurate results?

A

within 30 min to 1 hr

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102
Q

A urine sample is collected just before an emergency coming into the clinic. What can be done to the sample to ensure accurate results

A

Refrigerate the sample and analyze within 6-12hrs

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103
Q

Whats one artifact that may occur in a refrigerated urine sample

A

crystal formations

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104
Q

A male dog presented for a possible UTI and the vet would like the tech to collect a urine sample bey cystocentesis. Where should the tech insert the needle for the collection

A

Caudle to the umbilicus and to the side of the sheath

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105
Q

The vet wants a quantitative urine sample on a dog. How is this sample to be collected?

A

Catheterization for 24 hours

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106
Q

Whats the best time frame to analyze the urine sample to ensure accurate results

A

within 30 min to 1 hr

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107
Q

a urine sample is collected just before an emergency coming into the clinic what can be done to the sample to ensure accurate results

A

refrigerate the sample and analyze within 6-12hrs

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108
Q

Whats one artifact that may occur in a refrigerated urine sample

A

crystal formation

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109
Q

which of the following may occur if a urine sample is kept at room temp for an extended length of time

A

a decrease in glucose concentration and increased turbidity

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110
Q

what must be done to a refrigerated urine sample before analyzing the sample

A

warm gently before analysis

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111
Q

if a sample is to be transported to an outside lab for analysis whats the recommended preservative to add to the sample to preserve the formed elements

A

40% formalin

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112
Q

Which of the following gives the best sample for urinalysis

A

morning sample or after several hours without water

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113
Q

When an o reports that an animal has had increased urination, its important to differentiate between frequency and amount of urine produced. what’s the term for increased frequency of urination?

A

pollakiuria

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114
Q

When an owner reports that an animal has had increased urination, its important to differentiate between frequency and amount of urine. What’s the term for increased production of urination?

A

Polyuria

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115
Q

A 12 yr old DSH weighing 12.5 lbs presents for urinary problems. the urine output for the animal is 80ml of urine in 24hr period. which term properly identifies this situation?

A

Oliguria

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116
Q

An increase in daily urine output is usually accompanied by an increase in water consumption. Whats the term for increased water consumption

A

polydipsia

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117
Q

a dog has been placed on furosemide. What would be the expected outcome from this drug?

A

polyuria

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118
Q

A 9 year old dog presents for polyuria and polydipsia. which disease could be associated with this symptom

A

diabetes mellitus

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119
Q

What color background should a urine sample be help up against to determine the true color of the sample

A

white

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120
Q

Equine urine usually has which transparency due to high concentrations of calcium carbonate crystals and mucous

A

cloudy

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121
Q

Rabbit urine usually has which degree of transparency

A

milky

122
Q

when observing urine for the degree of transparency, it should be help up against which color background

A

white with letter print

123
Q

which term refers to turbid urine

A

flocculent

124
Q

a urine sample has a fruity or sweet smell what could be the cause

A

keytones

125
Q

what can cause urine to have an ammonia like smell

A

urease

126
Q

A sample thats left at room temp for an extended period of time may develop which of the following

A

an ammonia like smell

127
Q

A urine sample has a strong, fruity smell what could be the reason

A

diabetes mellitus

128
Q

Which of the following is defined as the weight of a quantity of liquid compared with that of an equal amount of distilled water

A

specific gravity

129
Q

Which part of urinalysis gives info on an animals hydration status

A

specific gravity

130
Q

which part of urinalysis helps to detect the kidneys ability to concentrate or dilute urine

A

specific gravity

131
Q

which method of determining specific gravity is the most reliable and reproducible

A

refractometer

132
Q

If a urine sample has a specific gravity that’s above the range of the refractometer, what can be done to obtain an accurate reading

A

dilute the sample with equal parts distilled water and multiply the number after the decimal by 2

133
Q

an animal has a specific gravity of 1.095 what might be happening to the animal

A

acute renal failure

134
Q

An animal that has a specific gravity of 1.010 has what condition

A

isosthenuria

135
Q

Specific gravity is a measure of what in urine

A

dissolved solutes

136
Q

when distilled water is used to calibrate a refractometer, the specific gravity of the water should be what

A

1.000

137
Q

Whats the correct amount of time that a urine sample should be centrifuged

A

5-6 min

138
Q

whats the correct setting for the centrifuge rpms for a urine sample

A

1000 to 2000 rpms

139
Q

Whats the term for the substance that should be poured off after a urine sample is centrifuged

A

supernatant

140
Q

How much supernatant should be left in the tube to resuspend the sediment prior to microscopic evaluation

A

0.5 to 1ml

141
Q

A urine sample has a greenish hue. what could this mean

A

bile pigment

142
Q

A urine sample has been sitting at room temp for 3 hours. what effect would this have on the pH?

A

the pH would become alkaline

143
Q

which of the following cause of an alkaline urine pH in an animal

A

high plant based diet

144
Q

what could cause an acidic urine pH in an animal

A

high protein meat based diet

145
Q

what can cause an acidic urine pH to decrease

A

fever

146
Q

what can cause urine pH to increase

A

UTI with urease bacteria

147
Q

which structure resorbs the plasma proteins in healthy animals

A

renal tubules

148
Q

What would be absent or present in only trace amounts in healthy urine and is measured by a sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test

A

protein

149
Q

A reagent strip test can detect urine protein levels that are greater than which value

A

30mg/dl

150
Q

Which test measures the Bence Jones proteins in urine samples

A

sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test

151
Q

A tech has been asked to confirm the reagent test strip results for urine protein which test should be done

A

urine protein/creatinine ratio

152
Q

Which test is used to help confirm significant amounts of protein in the urine and uses the supernatant to evaluate the concentration

A

urine protein/creatine ratio

153
Q

What disorder can lead to proteinuria

A

chronic or acute renal disease

154
Q

A patient has only a trace amount of protein in a urine sample. when is this rare amount clinically significant

A

if the urine sample is very dilute .-

155
Q

A feral and fractious cat needs to have a urine sample collected. Once collected, which finding could be epected

A

proteinuria

156
Q

which test may be necessary to detect the presence of proteins in a patient with myeloma

A

sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test

157
Q

A patient is admitted to the hospital with mild congestive heart failure (CHF). what should be an expected finding in a urinalysis

A

Proteinuria

158
Q

what results when
the glomerular filtration and tubular resorption reach the threshold for resorption and excess passes into the urine

A

glucosuria

159
Q

What may cause false positive results for glucose

A

aspirin

160
Q

what test is used to detect sugars other than glucose in urine

A

Clinitest reagent tabs

161
Q

What is formed by the incomplete catabolism of fatty acids and results in excess amounts of urine

A

ketones

162
Q

What can occur in lactating cows when the energy for milk production exceeds the animals’ ability to ingest sufficient feed to meet these requirements

A

ketonuria

163
Q

What disease is seen in ewes carrying twins or triplets and is the result of ketosis

A

pregnancy toxemia

164
Q

A dog is hypoglycemic and has been eating only a small amount of chicken breast for the past 3 wks. what would you expect to find in the urinalysis evaluation?

A

ketones

165
Q

A cat has been trapped in a drain for 5 days what would you expect to find in the urine

A

ketones

166
Q

A dog presents with signs of liver failure what would you expect to find in the urine

A

ketones

167
Q

what could happen in a dog with impaired liver function

A

ketosis

168
Q

what condition may occur when the liver is no longer able to metabolize carbohydrates, leading to fats being used as the main energy souce

A

ketosis

169
Q

what is the first ketone produced by the body in any condition that causes ketosis

A

B-hydroxybutyric acid

170
Q

What test is used most often to detect ketones in urine

A

reagent test strip

171
Q

what ketones is the reagent test strip test most sensitive in reading

A

acetoacetic acid

172
Q

What ketone is not detected by the reagent test strip

A

B hydroxybutyric acid

173
Q

What is the limitation of using reagent test strips when testing for ketosis

A

inability to detect ketones in the early stage of ketosis

174
Q

what species is even a trace amount of bilirubin in the urine considered abnormal and a sign of disease

A

felines

175
Q

what animal would be considered normal to have bilirubin present in the urine

A

canines

176
Q

a cat is admitted to the hospital with a possible bile duct obstruction what could be present in the urine to confirm the diagnosis

A

bilirubin

177
Q

What test is best to detect bilirubin

A

ictotest

178
Q

What is the best way to differentiate between hematuria and hemoglobinuria

A

Centrifuge the urine and examine the sediment microscopically for RBCs

179
Q

A herd of cattle has been on a pasture with only a pond for water. What condition can occur if the cows drink a large amount of water after the pond thaws

A

hemoglobinuria

180
Q

What if present in high concentrations can cause a urine sample to be very dark brown

A

myoglobin

181
Q

what is frequently seen in horses with exertional rhabdomyolysis

A

myoglobinuria

182
Q

What species is the leukocyte reagent test not valid due to false positive results

A

feline

183
Q

what animal species could be expected to have large amounts of sediment in the urine

A

equine

184
Q

what animal would it be normal to have a large amount of calcium carbonate crystals in the urine

A

Rabbits or horses

185
Q

what is not a reason to read a fresh urine sample

A

casts may form

186
Q

what test system allows for standardization of initial sample volume and distribution of elements on the slide

A

kova

187
Q

what would be abnormal to find in urine sediment

A

yeast

188
Q

what type of RBC may be seen in a urine sample that’s concentrated

A

creanated

189
Q

A tech is reading a urine sediment slide and sees RBCs what is an acceptable number of RBCs in normal urine sediment

A

2-3 RBCs per high per hpf

190
Q

How many WBCs can be present in a normal urine sample

A

0-1 per hpf

191
Q

whats the term for excessive WBCs in urine

A

pyuria

192
Q

what type of cell is usually round, granular with a small nucleus, larger than WBCs and if found in large numbers indicative of cystitis or pyelonephritis

A

Transitional epithelial cells

193
Q

what is the most common type of cast found in animal urine

A

Granular

194
Q

which type of cast might be seen in the urine of a dog with diabetes mellitus

A

fatty

195
Q

A dog that has ingested antifreeze is presented to the hospital what type of crystal would you expect to see in the animals urine

A

calcium oxalate

196
Q

what type of crystal is common in an animal with severe liver disease

A

ammonium biurate

197
Q

What component of urine may rise to a plane just below the coverslip and is in a different plane of focus than the other elements

A

fat droplets

198
Q

Whats the only way to correctly identify the composition of a urolith

A

Send it to a reference lab

199
Q

how are organisms that require oxygen to survive classified as

A

obligate anerobes

200
Q

growth of organisms of facultative anaerobes is described by what

A

can have limited growth in he absence of oxygen

201
Q

organisms that require a high level of CO2 are classified as

A

capnophillic

202
Q

The majority of pathogenetic bacteria that affect animals are classified as

A

mesophiles

203
Q

Leptospira pomona is classified as

A

spirochete

204
Q

what best describes streptococcus pneumoniae

A

single coccus

205
Q

Corynebacterium groupings are described as

A

palisades

206
Q

organism inclusions that are resistant to heat, desiccation, chemicals, and radiation are considered

A

spores

207
Q

What organism has spores located in the center of the cell

A

bacillus anthracis

208
Q

what phase of bacterial growth is a state of homeostasis

A

stationary

209
Q

what bacterial growth phase does spore formation usually occur

A

logarithmic

210
Q

what organism digests its food externally by releasing digestive enzymes and then bringing food molecules into the mycelium

A

fungi

211
Q

what organism reproduce through budding

A

yeast

212
Q

Binary fission is the primary method of reproduction for

A

bacteria

213
Q

what organisms are prokaryotes

A

bacteria

214
Q

what stage is virus isolation most successful

A

early in the active infectious phase

215
Q

What type of sample besides a gram stain preparation should be gently treated with heat prior to staining

A

ear

216
Q

which sample technique has the advantage of collecting many cells from the tissue, especially in lesions that are firm and yeild few cells

A

scraping

217
Q

why should a swabbed sample never be rubbed across the slide during preparation

A

cell damage can happen

218
Q

A dog is presented with a lesion on the front, right shoulder, and the vet wants to check for bacterial infection. What would be the best type of sample to collect

A

swabbing

219
Q

A vet asks a tech to collect and prepare a Tzanck preparation from a lesion on the chin of a ct. what type of preparation is this

A

imprint

220
Q

large soft mass is removed from the liver of a dog, and the tech has been asked to prepare slides for evaluation what sampling technique would be approprate

A

imprint

221
Q

A vet would like to obtain a sample from lymph nodes what would be the best sampling technique

A

fine needle aspirate (FNA)

222
Q

A tech has been asked to prepare an FNA of a lymph node on a cat which size needle and syringe should be used

A

22 gauge needle with 20ml syringe

223
Q

what type of sample collection relies on shearing and capillary action to obtain the sample

A

nonaspriate

224
Q

Which biopsy technique takes little time and require local anesthetic and one to two sutures after collection

A

punch biopsy

225
Q

what would be the correct to ensure proper fixing of a biopsy specimen

A

sliced to 1cm or less and placed in formalin

226
Q

a fluid sample collected directly from the abdomen would be considered what

A

paracentesis

227
Q

When collecting a sample via abdominocentesis it is noted that the sample has a yellowish tinge to the supernatant and very few RBCs upon sedimentation. What could be concluded from the sample

A

Hemorrhaging at least two days prior

228
Q

A fractious cat is presented with a severe cough, and the vet would like to obtain a sample for evaluation, what would be the best method of collection

A

orotracheal transtracheal wash

229
Q

The cell count is low on a central nervous system fluid sample and needs to be concentrated for proper analysis what method is best for concentrating it

A

gravitational sedimentation

230
Q

A viscous sample has been collected via FNA what would be the best method to make a slide

A

starfish smear

231
Q

what type of smear allows for three different areas of cell distribution for analysis

A

combination technique

232
Q

A fluid specimen sample has been collected and has a low cellular concentration. What would be the best slide preparation technique for this sample

A

line smear

233
Q

a tech has been asked to stain a cytology slide for microscopic examination what step will ensure the highest quality slide preparation

A

fixing in 95% methanol

234
Q

what stain works well for staining the cytoplasm of the cells

A

Romanowsky stain

235
Q

A vet is interested in determining if cells are neoplastic or inflammatory what type of stain would be best to use for this cytology slide

A

new methylene blue

236
Q

When submitting a cytology sample to a reference lab for analysis how should the samples be submitted

A

stained slides, air dried slides, serum tube, and EDTA tube

237
Q

A cytology slide has more than 85% neutrophils present how would it be categorized

A

suppurative

238
Q

The cells on a cytology slide show signs of swollen ragged nuclei that don’t have intact nuclear membranes and haven’t stained well. what type of change is evidenced on this slide

A

karyolysis

239
Q

A cytology slide shows cells in various stages of mitotic activity how would this sample be categorized

A

malignant

240
Q

A cytology slide shows cells with a high nucleus to cytoplasm ratio how would this sample be categorized

A

epithelial cell tumor

241
Q

A dog presents with a large blackened mass in the oral cavity, and the vet suspects melanoma what type of tumor is a melanoma

A

round cell tumor

242
Q

peritoneal and pleural fluids should be evaluated for the total nucleated cell count. What’s considered to be normal value of this evaluation

A

fewer than 10,000 nucleated cells/ul

243
Q

what type of cell lines the body cavities and may become reactive if there’s excess fluid in the body cavities

A

mesothelial

244
Q

What type of fluid has increased cellularity and increased protein concentration due to inflammation

A

exudate

245
Q

What type of fluid has increased cellularity and increased protein concentration due to inflammation

A

exudate

246
Q

fluid from___________ may include lymphocytes, plasma cells, WBCs, neoplastic cells, and bacteria

A

lymph node

247
Q

A cytology sample contains evidence of yeast cells, squamous epithelial cells, and malessezia what is the most likely source of this sample

A

Ears

248
Q

What state of estrus has a high number of erythrocytes and basal and parabasal epithelial cells

A

proestrus

249
Q

Which organisms require living cells in which to grow and replicate

A

viruses

250
Q

The best way to ensure safety in a practice microbiology lab is to treat each sample as if it has which potential

A

zoonotic

251
Q

which type of culture medium contains antibacterial substances that inhibit or kill all but the few types of bacteria desired

A

selective

252
Q

which type of culture medium allows bacteria to group themselves by biochemical reactions

A

differential

253
Q

If a tech were interested in replicating a known fastidious pathogen what type of culture medium would be used

A

enriched

254
Q

Blood agar would be considered which type of medium

A

enriched

255
Q

what type of hemolysis creates a narrow bank of geenish discoloration around the colony when grown on a blood agar plate

A

alpha

256
Q

how would no change in the appearance of the medium around a bacterial colony be recorded on a blood agar plate

A

gamma hemolysis

257
Q

what medium would you choose to grow gram negative bacteria like Enterobacteriaceae

A

MacConkey agar

258
Q

If a patient is suspected of having Salmonella infection which agar is recommended to differentiate and initially identify this bacterium

A

Triple sugar iron agar

259
Q

A patient is suspected of having Staphyloccus aureus infection what agar would be used to isolate the organism

A

mannitol salt agar

260
Q

What’s the agar of choice when performing culture and sensitivity tests

A

mueller hinton agar

261
Q

What agar is most commonly used to do dermatophyte tests in vet clinics

A

sabouraud dextrose agar

262
Q

To maximize the results microbiology samples must be collected in what manner

A

aseptically

263
Q

What’s the most common reason for the inability to diagnose a disease involving mircroorganisms

A

contamination of the sample

264
Q

A vet would like to have a culture and sensitivity test completed on a cat with a suspected urinary tract infection what collection method is the best to obtain samples for this test

A

aspiration

265
Q

What would be an example of a source that isn’t likely to have multiple organisms in a sample

A

Urine collected by cystocentesis

266
Q

A kitten is seen for possible ringworm infection what is the best method to obtain a sample to confirm this diagnosis

A

pluck hair and skin scales from the lesion

267
Q

What’s the best method to obtain samples for evaluation for viral infection in the acute stage of respiratory diseases

A

blood samples

268
Q

A patient is suspected of having parainfluenza and it isn’t possible to get the sample to the lab for testing for 48 hours what is the best option to preserve the sample

A

freeze to -20 C in airtight containers and ship on dry ice

269
Q

In gram stain procedure which phase of the stain is considered the mordant

A

grams iodine

270
Q

bacteria colonies that are more than 24 hrs old may not yield proper staining results due to

A

bacteria becoming excessively decolorized

271
Q

In the gram stain procedure what stain is the primary stain

A

crystal violet

272
Q

What’s the 1st step that must be done when performing a gram stain procedure

A

place a drop of sterile saline on the slide

273
Q

Which stage of the gram stain procedure prevents the sample from washing off, helps to preserve the cell morphology, and kills the bacteria so they’re permeable to the staining

A

heat fixing

274
Q

A tech finds round purple cells arranged in clusters on a gram stained slide how would these cells be catogorized

A

gram positive cocci

275
Q

Gram positive bacteria

A

are purple when stained

276
Q

Gram negative bacteria

A

are red when stained

277
Q

A tech finds rod shaped red cells arranged in long strands on a gram stained slide how would they be characterized

A

gram negative rods

278
Q

A gram stain shows both gram negative and gram positive cells what would not be a cause of this result

A

very young cultures would not affect this

279
Q

A gram stain reveals Gram stain variable results which test would be performed to confirm the types of cells present

A

Potassium hydroxide test

280
Q

What test would be performed to detect mycobacterium species in a sample

A

ziehl neelsen stain

281
Q

what’s the primary stain used in the ziehl neelsen staining technique

A

dimethyl sulfoxide

282
Q

a microorganism on a slide appears red after staining with the ziehl neelsen stain what would be the result for his organism

A

acid fast

283
Q

which staining procedure is the slide held over a flame until the dimethyl sulfoxide stain steams

A

ziehl neelsen stain

284
Q

what test is used to show the capsule of bacillus anthracis

A

Giemsa staining

285
Q

Which staining procedure requires the sample to be in the diluted stain for 20-30 min

A

Giemsa stain

286
Q

When isolating a bacterial colony the best streaking technique would be

A

quadrant

287
Q

If a slant agar is to be inoculated with bacteria what’s the best technique to inoculate only the surface of the slant

A

Slant S

288
Q

a pathogenic bacteria sample has been streaked onto an agar plate what is the optimal temp for incubation

A

37C

289
Q

A pathogenic bacteria sample has been streaked onto an agar plate and placed in 37C incubator. when should the sample be examined for evidence of bacterial growth

A

18-24 hours

290
Q

A candle jar creates what type of environment

A

Rich in CO2

291
Q

An experienced tech can recognize some bacteria by sight what characteristic can be used to describe texture of a colony

A

Mucoid

292
Q

how often should the inoculating loop be flamed during the quadrant streaking method

A

at the beginning, between each quadrant, and at the end

293
Q

what is the most commonly performed type of sensitivity test in vet med

A

agar diffusion method

294
Q

which sensitivity test should be performed to determine the appropriate concentration of medication for a patient

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

295
Q

What is measured to determine the efficacy of an antimicrobial

A

Zone of inhibition

296
Q

what culture medium is used for most sensitivity testing

A

mueller hinton

297
Q

what type of sample can a colony count help with the diagnosis of infection

A

urine

298
Q

What motility test requires a concave portion on the slide and is resistant to the sample’s drying

A

Hanging drop

299
Q

If the organisms are non motile on microscopic examination what test should be performed

A

motility media

300
Q

A positive or motile result in motility media would appear as what

A

diffuse growth throughout the media