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MRXU > Clin Mic > Flashcards

Clin Mic Flashcards

1
Q

First morning urine specimens are for?

A
  • orthostatic proteinuria
  • PT
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2
Q

Catheterized urine specimens are for?

A
  • cultures
  • routine urinalysis
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3
Q

Urine specimens that can provide quantitative results

A

24-hour

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4
Q

Drug screening should follow what requirements?

A

Chain of custody

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5
Q

PRESERVATION OF URINE SPECIMENS

should be tested within —- and if not, should be?

A

Tested within 2 HRS and if not, REFRIGERATE

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6
Q

basic structural and functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

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7
Q

Urine formation (in order)

A

Glomerulus > PCT > loop of Henle > DCT > CD

Strasinger:
Glomerulus - Bowman’s - PCT - loop of Henle - DCT - CD

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8
Q

Renal blood flow (in order)

A
  1. Renal artery (blood in)
  2. Afferent arteriole
  3. Peritubular capillaries
  4. Vasa recta
  5. Efferent arteriole
  6. Renal artery (blood out)
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9
Q

The gold standard clearance test in glomerular filtration.

A

Inulin clearance

Most common: creatinine clearance

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10
Q

Ideal sample for routine UA

A

First morning

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11
Q

Reagent/chemical used to lyse RBC and enhance the morphology of WBC

A

Acetic acid

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12
Q

Major constituent of cast and mucus threads

A

Uromodulin

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13
Q

Also known as renal failure cast

A

Broad cast

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14
Q

Crystals seen in ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Calcium oxalate

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15
Q

Give the principle and positive color of GLUCOSE in reagent strip

A

REAGENT STRIP
Principle: double sequential enzyme
(+) color: GREEN to BROWN

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16
Q

Change of unpreserved urine (INCREASE)

A
  • pH
  • bacteria
  • odor
  • nitrate
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17
Q

Change of unpreserved urine (INCREASE)

A
  • pH
  • bacteria
  • odor
  • nitrate
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18
Q

Change of unpreserved urine (DECREASE)

A

Glucose
Ketones
C,arity
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen
RBC, WBC cast

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19
Q

Confirmatory test for phenylketonuria

A

Guthrie bacterial inhibition test

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20
Q

Confirmatory test for phenylketonuria

A

Guthrie bacterial inhibition test

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21
Q

MALTESE CROSS formation on polarizing microscope

A

starch granules

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22
Q

MALTESE CROSS formation on polarizing microscope

A

starch granules

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23
Q

Sweaty foot odor in urine refers to what disease?

A

Isovaleric acidemia

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24
Q

Screening test for porphyrias that detects D-ALA and porphobilinogen

A

Ehrlich’s reaction test

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25
Q

Screening test for porphyrias that detects D-ALA and porphobilinogen

A

Ehrlich’s reaction test

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26
Q

Most common parasite due to fecal contaminant in urine

A

E. vermicularis

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27
Q

Chemical compound responsible for the yellow color of urine

A

Urochrome

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28
Q

enumerate the parasites that can be seen in urine

A
  • T. vaginalis
  • S. haematobium
  • E. vermicularis (fecal contamination)
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29
Q

differentiate glitter cells and clue cells

A
  • GLITTER CELLS - swollen neutrophils
  • CLUE CELLS - squamous epithelial cells covered with G. vaginalis
30
Q

largest cells in the urine sediment

A

squamous cells

31
Q

reagent strip

this should be read 2 minutes after urine exposure

A

leukocyte esterase

32
Q

major protein in mucus

A

Tamm-Horsfall (uromodulin) protein

casts are also composed of Tamm-Horsfall protein

33
Q

enumerate the normal crystals seen in acidic urine

A
  • Uric acid crystals
  • Amorphous urates
  • Calcium oxalate (also in alkaline urine)
34
Q

enumerate the normal crystals seen in alkaline urine

A
  • triple phosphate
  • amorphous phosphate
  • calcium carbonate
  • ammonium biurate
35
Q

enumerate the abnormal crystals seen in alkaline urine

A
  • cystine
  • cholesterol
  • tyrosine
  • leucine
  • bilirubin
  • sulfonamide
  • ampicillin
36
Q

crystals

yellow-brown, flat-sided rhombic plates wedges, and rosettes

CS: chemotherapy patients, Lesch-Nyhan disease

A

URIC ACID

normal crystals in acidic urine

37
Q

crystals

oval or dumbbell shaped calcium oxalate

calcium oxalate crystals may be seen in — urine

A

monohydrate form

seen in ALKALINE urine

38
Q

crystals

envelope shaped calcium oxalate that indicates renal calculi

A

dihydrate form

39
Q

crystals

coffin-lid shaped

associated with vv high pH and bacteria

A

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE

normal crystals in alkaline urine

40
Q

crystals

produce a white precipitate after refrigeration

A

amorphous phosphate

41
Q

crystals

dumbbell and spherical shapes

A

CALCIUM CARBONATE

normal crystals in alkaline urine

42
Q

crystals

yellow-brown thorny apple-shaped

seen in old specimens with bacteria

A

AMMONIUM BIURATE

normal crystals in alkaline urine

43
Q

crystals

hexagonal flat plates

A

cystine

44
Q

crystals

rectangular plates with notched corners

CS: nephrotic syndome

A

cholesterol

45
Q

crystals

yellow needle-shaped forms in clusters or rosettes

CS: severe liver disease

A

tyrosine

46
Q

crystals

yellow-brown spheres with concentric circles

CS: severe liver disease

A

leucine

47
Q

crystals

bright yellow clumped needles and granules

CS: liver damage often from viral infections

A

bilirubin

48
Q

crystals

needle, rosette, and rhombic shapes

A

sulfonamide

CS: patients taking sulfonamide medications

49
Q

crystals

colorless needles that form clumps

A

ampicillin

CS: patients taking ampicillin medications

50
Q

enumerate the artifacts in urine

what is the source of error?

A
  • starch granules
  • oil droplets
  • air bubbles
  • pollen grains
  • fibers

RED BLOOD CELLS

51
Q

nephrons that remove waste products and reabsorb nutrients

location: cortex of the kidney

A

cortical nephrons

52
Q

nephrons that concentrate the urine

location: extend into the medulla of the kidney

A

juxtaglomerular nephrons

53
Q

enumerate the process of renal blood flow

A
  1. renal artery
  2. afferent arteriole
  3. efferent arteriole
  4. PCT
  5. vasa recta/loop of henle
  6. DCT
  7. renal vein
54
Q

normal ranges

normal renal blood flow
normal plasma flow

A

renal - 1200 mL/min
plasma - 700 mL/min

55
Q

normal ranges

pH

pH that indicates old specimen

A

4.5 - 8.0

9.0 - old specimen

56
Q

GFR

type of specimen for creatinine clearance

A

24-hour (timed)

calculated GFR do not require timed urine specimen

57
Q

primary tests for renal tubular reabsorption

A

serum and urine osmolarity

58
Q

CSF

enumerate the three tube distribution

A

T1 = chemistry/immunology
T2 = microbiology
T3 = hematology

59
Q

CSF - three tube distribution

tube that is least affected by blood or bacteria contamination

A

tube 1 for immunology/chemistry

60
Q

CSF - three tube distribution

tube less contamination of cell count from the puncture

A

tube 3 for hematology

61
Q

CSF - four tube distribution

tube that provides a comparison between the cells from the puncture with the cells in the fourth tube collected

A

tube 1 for hema

62
Q

CSF - four tube distribution

tube has less chance of outside contamination

A

tube 3 for microbio

63
Q

CSF - four tube distribution

the tube that the results compared with those of tube 1 for possible outside interference from the tap

A

tube 4 for hema

64
Q

CSF

enumerate the 4 tube distribution

A

1 for hema
2 for chem
3 for microbio
4 for hema

65
Q

semen

how many days of abstinence needed for the collection?

A

2-3 days but not more than 5 days

66
Q

semen NORMAL

  • appearance
  • liquefaction
  • volume
  • viscosity
  • pH
  • concentration
A
  • appearance = gray-white, translucent
  • liquefaction = 30-60 mins
  • volume = 2-5 mL
  • viscosity = pours in droplets
  • pH = 7.2 - 8.0
  • concentration = >20 million/mL
67
Q

semen components

provides substances for coagulation and liquifaction

A

prostate fluid

68
Q

enumerate the composition of semen (w/ percentage)

A
  • spermatozoa = 5%
  • seminal fluid = 60-70%
  • prostate fluid = 20-30%
  • bulbourethral glands = 5%
69
Q

semen components

provides alkaline mucus to neutralize the acidity of prostate fluid and the vagina

provides nutrients and fructose for sperm energy?

A

bulbourethral gland fluid

seminal fluid

70
Q

specimen used for screening for colorectal cancer

A

occult blood

71
Q

enumerate the causes of nonpathologic turbidity

A
  • squamous epithelial cells
  • mucus
  • amorphous phosphates, carbonates, and urates
  • semen
  • feces
  • radiographic contrast media
  • powder and creams
72
Q

enumerate the causes of pathologic turbidity

A
  • RBCs
  • WBCs
  • yeast
  • urothelial and renal tubular epithelial cells
  • abnormal crystals
  • lipids (milky)

MRXU (2 decks)

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