CLIFF BOOK - TEST 4 Flashcards
Which of the following best describes riparian rights?
(A) the right of an owner to use lake water adjacent to her property; (B) the ownership by a landowner of the land underneath a navigable river adjacent to his land; (C) the ownership by a land owner of the land up to the high-water mark of a navigable river adjacent to his property; (D) the right of a landowner to use the water under his land.
(C) the ownership by a land owner of the land up to the high-water mark of a navigable river adjacent to his property
Riparian rights have to do with flowing water (rivers and streams), and the rights of the adjacent landowner depend on whether or not the river or stream is navigable.
When a person’s land is rezoned to a use that reduces the value of the land by 25%, the owner:
(A) is entitled to proportional compensation; (B) is entitled to no compensation; (C) has a claim under eminent domain law; (D) can claim compensatory damages.
(B) is entitled to no compensation
Normally, a person is entitled to compensation only when all the reasonable use of the property has been denied.
Renewal of a subdivision approval by the Real Estate Commissioner is available if all the lots have not been sold within:
(A) two years; (B) three years; (C) four years; (D) five years.
(D) five years
This is statutory and part of the Subdivided Lands Law.
A tenant in an apartment house attaches some bookcases to the wall. What is the presumption?
(A) that the bookcases are now a fixture and belong to the landlord; (B) that the bookcases are personal property and can be removed by the tenant; (C) that the bookcases are now real estate and can be removed only with the landlord’s permission (D) there is no presumption; their removal will have to be negotiated.
(B) that the bookcases are personal property and can be removed by the tenant
In general, the view is that the bookcases belong to the tenant.
A subdivider plans on turning over the streets in a subdivision to the local town. This is most correctly called a:
(A) grant; (B) conveyance; (C) devise; (D) dedication.
(D) dedication
Although all the terms imply some form of transfer of ownership of proprety, the correct term for this type of conveyance in connection with a subdivision is DEDICATION.
A person who has a time-share:
(A) will always have an estate interest; (B) will always have a use interest; (C) will always have a use interest but never an estate interest; (D) can have an estate interest or a use interest but never both.
(B) will always have a use interest
It is the nature of timeshare ownership to permit use of the property for a period of time. The estate or ownership interest varies.
A broker negotiating a sale on behalf of a buyer when the buyer has not given him permission to do so is:
(A) operating under implied authority; (B) operating under apparent authority; (C) operating under actual authority; (D) simply being overly ambitious.
(B) operating under apparent authority
Apparent authority gives the false impression that an agency relationship exists.
Broker B is appointed by Broker A to help him sell a house. Broker A has permission from the seller to do this. Which of the following is true?
(A) Broker B is a subagent of Broker A; (B) Broker B is a subagent of the seller; (C) Broker B is an agent of Broker A; (D) Broker B is an agent of the seller.
(B) Broker B is a subagent of the seller
The key here is that the seller (the principal) gave permission. If no permission had been given, Broker B would have been an agent of Broker A.
A broker who seeks a profit from a listing he has beyond his normal commission is violating the fiduciary principle of:
(A) loyalty; (B) confidentiality; (C) disclosure; (D) care.
(A) loyalty
The principle of loyalty says that the broker must put his principal’s interest above all others, even his own.
In appraising a three-unit dwelling and wanting to analyze its income in the appraisal, what approach would you use?
(A) income capitalization; (B) gross rent multiplier approach; (C) sales comparison approach; (D) cost approach.
(B) gross rent multiplier approach
The income approach is used for large-scale income producing properties like shopping malls. Choices C and D do not take income into account.
A loan that does not qualify to be purchased by the federal secondary mortgage market is generally referred to as what type of loan?
(A) unconventional; (B) non-conventional; (C) subprime; (D) subsidized.
(C) subprime
Subprime is the term used for these loans.
Which of the following does not belong in the group?
(A) Real Estate Settlement and Procedure Act; (B) Consumer Credit Act; (C) Truth in Lending Law; (D) Regulation Z.
(A) Real Estate Settlement and Procedure Act
Although RESPA deals with consumer protection in the credit process, choices B, C, and D are all names for essentially the same law.
Which of the following is not a requirement to be a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument? The instrument must have been taken:
(A) directly from the maker of the note; (B) for value; (C) in good faith; (D) without notice of it being overdue or any other defence.
(A) directly from the maker of the note
Choices B, C, and D are the statutory requirements to be a holder in due course.
In a case where a borrower pays 2 discount points on a mortgage loan, which of the following is true?
(A) The nominal rate and the APR will be the same; (B) The nominal rate will be lower than the APR; (C) The nominal rate will be higher than the APR; (D) The nominal rate will be higher than the APR but only in an adjustable-rate mortgage.
(B) The nominal rate will be lower than the APR
Discount points are prepaid interest and will result in a lower nominal rate and higher APR.
Borrower A must pay 2.5 points to secure a mortgage at the rate he wants. The value of the property is $390,000 and the LTV is 80%. How much does he owe the bank in points?
(A) 9,750; (B) $7,800; (C) $6,240; (D) $5,600.
(B) $7,800
What the hell is the matter with you?
A testator wants to make a small change in her will. The way to do this is by adding a(n):
(A) codicil; (B) amendment; (C) condition subsequent; (D) revision.
(A) codicil
Choices B and D could be viewed as generic terms for any type of change in a document, but the proper term for a change in a will without writing a new will is a codicil. Choice C refers to deeds.
In an escrow, closing title insurance is ordered by whom?
(A) the escrow agent; (B) the buyer; (C) the seller; (D) the real estate broker.
(A) the escrow agent
Choice A is clearly the correct answer even though a real estate broker may act as an escrow agent.
Real estate taxes of $1,200 are due on a property on January 1 for the previous six months. Sale of the property closes on November 1. What is the proration?
(A) the buyer gets a credit of $800; the seller gets a debit of $400; (B) the buyer gets a debit of $400; the seller gets a credit of $800; (C) the buyer gets a credit of $400; the seller gets a debit of $800; (D) the buyer gets a debit of $800; the seller gets a credit of $800.
(C) the buyer gets a credit of $400; the seller gets a debit of $800
The buyer will be paying the taxes in arrears but not living in the house for the entire six months, so the seller will owe the buyer for the portion of time the seller is in the house. The buyer gets a credit and the seller gets a debit.
$1,200 / 6 months = $200 per month
$200 per month x 4 months (Time period seller was in the house for which the buyer paid the taxes) = $800 credit to the buyer.
Because the buyer paid for the taxes the seller “used,” the seller is charged a debit for the same amount.
The standard title insurance policy assumes that:
(A) the property owner can inspect the property before he buys it; (B) the property has no title defects; (C) the property has a mortgage loan on the property; (D) none of the above.
(A) the property owner can inspect the property before he buys it
The standard policy assumes that the owner by inspection of the property will discover obvious defects or other claims, such as easements against the title.
Which of the following types of property is not exempt from taxation?
(A) a church; (B) household furniture; (C) stocks; (D) a water treatment plant owned by Town A within the jurisdiction of Town B and built on the site of a former factory.
(D) a water treatment plant owned by Town A within the jurisdiction of Town B and built on the site of a former factory
Generally, municipally owned property is exempt, but under special circumstances it is taxable if it’s in another jurisdiction.
Assuming that the tax collector takes the maximum legally allowed amount of time to sell a property for unpaid taxes, how long could the owner have to redeem it by paying the back taxes and penalties?
(A) three years; (B) five years; (C) seven years; (D) ten years.
(C) seven years
The owner has five years to redeem the property, during which time the tax collector cannot sell it, and the tax collector has two years to sell it, during which time it can still be redeemed.
Marital status is a protected class in the:
(A) Federal Fair Housing Act of 1968; (B) Unruh Civil Rights Act; (C) Fair Employments and Housing Act; (D) 1866 Civil Rights Act.
(C) Fair Employments and Housing Act
The other laws do not include marital status as a protected class.
A broker must maintain transaction records:
(A) for three years from the date of listing or three years from the date of closing, whichever is longer; (B) for three years from the date of closing; (C) for three years from the date of listing; (D) until the broker closes the brokerage.
(A) for three years from the date of listing or three years from the date of closing, whichever is longer
Note that, technically, choices B and C could be correct but Choice A is the most complete and, therefore, the best answer.
Under the regulations for operating a prepaid rental listing service license, what must a prospective tenant be provided with?
(A) at least three available rentals within five days of paying the fee; (B) at least five available rentals within three days of paying the fee; (C) at least ten available rentals within the first month of paying the fee; (D) There is no minimum requirement.
(A) at least three available rentals within five days of paying the fee
This is statutory.