Classic Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

Painless violaceous skin lesions that progress in size

Spindle cells and lymphocytic infiltrate in skin bx

Tx with IFN alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ticlodipine

A

Anti platelet drug

Rare side effect- NEUTROPENIA dt agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acute gout flare treatment

A

NSAIDS- reversible inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting COX1 and COX2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Legionella pneumonia

A

Macrolides (ie azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Left shift of Hb dissociation curve

A

Increased O2 affinity- want to hold onto O2

LOW pCO2
LOW body temp
LOW H+ (high pH)
LOW 2,3 BPG

POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Warfarin reversal

A
FFP (acute)
Vitamin K (non acute)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Cyclophosphamide, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

PCN G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High dose steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tPA reversal

A

Aminocaproic acid
Tranexamic acid
Work by inhibiting activation of plasminogen

tPA increases thrombolysis by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which directly dissolved thrombus by degrading fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Glomus tumor

A

Benign tumor arising from modified smooth muscle cells of the glomus body (involved in dermoregulation)

Small, solitary, PAINFUL, blue red papules/nodules on hand, foot, under nails of patients 20-40 yo

Pain is paroxysmal, severe, EXACERBATED BY COLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All trans retinoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Central- desmopressin

Nephrogenic- HCTZ, indomethacin, amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

First line treatment for Lyme disease in pregnant abs nursing women and kids under 8

A

Oral amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ER+ breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Paradoxical embolism

A

Associated with ASD, PFO, VSD

Allows right sided emboli to enter left sided circulation bypassing pulmonary circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bike acid sequestrants (cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam)

A

Lowers LDL, raises HDL and TGs

Reduce bile acid absorption abs decrease enterohepatic circulation of bile. To synthesize new bile, liver up regulates HDL production AND TG rich VLDL cholesterol- secreted directly into blood and cannot be taken up by liver, TGs increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

PCN prophylaxis

Eval for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MSSA

A

Nafcillin
Oxaclin
Dicolxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

C tetani

A

Anti toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Antiepileptic
Used for trigeminal neuralgia

Inhibits voltage gated sodium channels in brain, which reduces excitability of neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chronic hepatitis B and C

A

IFN alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP SMX (prophylaxis and treatment in immunosuppressed pts CD4<200)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Induction with amphotericin B and flucytosine, maintain with fluconazole (in AIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB anti arrhythmics

Lidocaine, mexilitine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Heparin reversal

A

Protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Glucagonoma

A

Tumor of pancreatic alpha cells

S/s:
Hyperglycemia 
Chronic diarrhea
Neuropsychiatric symptoms 
DVT
Normocytic anemia
NECROLYTIC MIGRATORY ERYTHEMA
30
Q

Candida albicans

A

Vaginal: topical azoles: nystatin, fluconazole, caspofungin

Oral/esophageal: systemic: fluconazole, caspofungin, amphotericin B

31
Q

Sporothrix schenkii

A

Itraconazole, oral potassium iodide

32
Q

Factor Xa inhibitors MOA

A

Blocks active site of factor Xa—> prevents Xa from converting prothrombin to thrombin

Rivaroxaban, apixaban

Oral, no monitoring, used in CVA prevention in a fib

33
Q

N meningiditis

A

PCN/ ceftriaxone

Rigampin for prophylaxis

34
Q

CML

A

Imatinib

35
Q

Beta catenin

A

Intracellular protein that acts as transcription factor for cell proliferation

Normally- Wnt signaling mediates destruction of beta catenin via tumor suppressor APC

Failure of this regulatory process implicated in CRC

36
Q

Anticoagulation in pregnancy and renal disease

A

LMWH

37
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

38
Q

Right shift of Hb o2 dissociation curve

A

Decreased O2 affinity- want to unload O2

HIGH pCO2
HIGH body temp
HIGH H+ (low pH)
HIGH 2,3 BPG

39
Q

Specific marker for monocyte-macrophage cell line

A

CD14

Caseating granulomas of TB are usually surrounded by large macrophages (CD14+)

40
Q

Sarcoidosis s/s

A
Fatigue, dyspnea, hepatomegaly, erythema nodosum, 
Lupus pernio (erythematous/violaceous indurated lesions on face

Biopsy of NON CASEATING GRANULOMA shows asteroid bodies (eosinophilic inclusions in starry patter) or Schaumann bodies

RLD

Elevated ACE and high CD4:CD8 ratio

41
Q

Long term anti coagulation

A

Warfarin
Dabigitran
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban

42
Q

Cyclophosphamide hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna

43
Q

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

A

Piperacillin/tazobactam

Aminoglycosides

Carbapenems

44
Q

What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?

A

Rare complication of MEASLES that may develop years after infection

CSF analysis shows high levels of anti measles antibodies

Untreatable

45
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine and pyramethamine

46
Q

Cause of meckels diverticulum

A

Failed obliteration of vitelline (omphalomesenteric) duct

Presents with spontaneous painless lower GIB

Dx 99technecium scan- ectopic gastric mucosa, 99tech radioisotope has high affinity for PARIETAL CELLS

47
Q

Entacapone

A

Peripherally acting COMT inhibitor that reduces methylation of levodopa and dopamine—> more stable and long lasting plasma concentration of drug

48
Q

Immediate anti coagulation

A

Heparin

49
Q

MRSA

A

Vancomycin
Daptomycin
Linezolid
Ceftaroline

50
Q

Fixed, wide splitting of S2

A

ASD

Caused by increased volume within pulmonary circulation

51
Q

Hyper IgM syndrome

A

Impaired interaction between Th cells and B cells resulting in B cell class switching defect

CD40 ligand deficiency MC—> CD40L deficiency in Th cells leads to abnormal interaction between B cells which express CD40 receptor—> disrupts B class switching—> depleted Igs

B cells produce IgM but cannot produce other Igs

LN bx shows absent germinal centers (where B cells proliferate and class switching occurs)

Recurrent infections with Pneumocystis jirovecii and Histoplasma, Cryptosporidium, CMV hepatitis

52
Q

Physostigmine and neostigmine

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Used for myasthenia gravis and reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Act peripherally, do not cross bbb

53
Q

Essential tremor

A

Primidone

Barbituate- primary active metabolite is phenobarbital

Also used as anticonvulsant for grand mail, psychomotor, focal seizures

54
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine, mefloquine, atovaquone/proguanil (for blood schizont)

Primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

55
Q

Tiotropium, ipratropium

A

Competitive inhibition of muscarinic receptors,
—> prevents bronchoconstriction

COPD and asthma

56
Q

Breast cancer in post menopausal women

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

57
Q

Acute tubular necrosis

A

BUN/Cr < 20:1

Caused by ischemia- straight segment of PCT and thick ascending limb

  • hypotension (hypovolemia (dehydration, sepsis), shock
  • thromboembolism
  • thrombotic microangopathy

Caused by toxins- convoluted segment of PCT

  • contrast induced
  • aminoglycosides, cisplatin, amphotericin, lead, ethylene glycol, myoglobinuria, hemoglobinuria, uric acid

Diagnostics: azotemia, MUDDY BROWN CASTS, epithelial casts, free renal tubular epithelial cells

Spontaneous recovery

58
Q

C botulinum

A

Antitoxin

59
Q

Lateral nucleus of hypothalamus

A

Regulates hunger

Damage to lateral nucleus causes anorexia, starvation, failure to thrive

Stimulated by ghrelin, inhibited by leptin

60
Q

HCV treatment

A

Ribavirin, simeprivir, sofosbuvir

61
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (with ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection)

Erythromycin for chlamydial conjunctivitis in infants

62
Q

Buerger disease

A

Smoking cessation

63
Q

N gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia trachomatis)

64
Q

Haemophilus influenzae B

A

Mucosal infections- Amoxicillin with clavulanate

Meningitis- ceftriaxone

Prophylaxis- rifampin

65
Q

Leydig and Sertoli cells in MALES

A

Leydig cells—> Testosterone

Sertoli cells- inhibin

66
Q

Hepatitis B 3 major facts

A
  1. Partially dsDNA
  2. Reverse transcriptase
  3. Envelope comes from ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM
67
Q

MAOIs (transcyclomine, phenelzine, isocarboxazid)

A

Inhibit monoamine oxidase—> increased serotonin and NE in synaptic cleft

NO ANTIMUSCARINIC EFFECTS

Side effects- dizziness, weakness, fatigue, anxiety, HYPOTENSION

**if MAOIs patients ingest TYRAMINE, tyramine will not be broken down and will be absorbed and displace NE stores in peripheral neurons —> excess NE will not be broken down because of MAO inhibition—> HYPERTENSIVE CRISIS

68
Q

MHCI

A

Encoded by HLA A, B, C, etc

Bind to TCR and CD8 cells

1 long chain (alpha chain), 1 short chain (beta2 microglobulin)

Expressed on: ALL NUCLEATED CELLS, APCs, PLATELETS
NOT ON RBCS

Present ENDOGENOUS antigens (viral, cytosolic, cancer) to CD8 cytotoxic T cells

Ag PEPTIDE loaded onto MHCI in RER after delivery via TAP (transporter associated with antigen processing)

69
Q

MHCII

A

Encoded by HLA DP, DQ, DR

Binds TCR and CD4

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

Expressed ONLY on APCs- dendritic cells, B cells, macrophages

Present EXOGENOUS antigens (bacterial proteins) to CD4 Th cells

Ag loaded following release of INVARIANT CHAIN in ACIDIFIED LYSOSOME
- invariant chain blocks any binding in ag binding pocket before it merges with lysosome

70
Q

Cardiac arrest acid base disturbance

A

MIXED ACIDOSIS

  • high pCO2 dt ventilators standstill leading to respiratory acidosis
  • low bicarb and low pH dt lactic (metabolic) acidosis (poorly perfumed tissues)
  • high anion gap dt lactate accumulation
  • metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis