CLASS 1-TERMS Flashcards

1
Q

What ctDNA is?

A

Circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) is found in the bloodstream and refers to DNA that comes from cancerous cells and tumors. Most DNA is inside a cell’s nucleus. As a tumor grows, cells die and are replaced by new ones. The dead cells get broken down and their contents, including DNA, are released into the bloodstream. ctDNA are small pieces of DNA, usually comprising fewer than 200 building blocks (nucleotides) in length.

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2
Q

What is cfDNA?

A

Cell-free DNA (or cfDNA) refers to all non-encapsulated DNA in the blood stream. A portion of that cell-free DNA originates from a tumor clone and is called circulating tumor DNA (or ctDNA). cfDNA are nucleic acid fragments that enter the bloodstream during apoptosis or necrosis

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3
Q

What is tumor mutational burden?

A

The total number of mutations (changes) found in the DNA of cancer cells. Knowing the tumor mutational burden may help plan the best treatment. For example, tumors that have a high number of mutations appear to be more likely to respond to certain types of immunotherapy.

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4
Q

What platelets are?

A

(ΑΙΜΟΠΕΤΑΛΕΙΑ)
Platelets are the cells that circulate within our blood and bind together when they recognize damaged blood vessels,” says Marlene Williams, M.D., director of the Coronary Care Unit at Johns Hopkins Bayview Medical Center. “When you get a cut, for example, the platelets bind to the site of the damaged vessel, thereby causing a blood clot. There’s an evolutionary reason why they’re there. It’s to stop us from bleeding.”

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5
Q

What is the function of endothelial cells?

A

Endothelial cells form a single cell layer that lines all blood vessels and regulates exchanges between the bloodstream and the surrounding tissues. Signals from endothelial cells organize the growth and development of connective tissue cells that form the surrounding layers of the blood-vessel wall.

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6
Q

What CAFs are?

A

Cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs) are a group of activated fibroblasts with significant heterogeneity and plasticity in the tumor microenvironment. They secrete a variety of active factors to regulate tumor occurrence, development, metastasis, and therapeutic resistance. Although most studies suggest that CAFs have significant tumor-promoting functions, some evidence indicates that they may have certain tumor-suppressive functions in the early stage of tumors.

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7
Q

What MDA-MB-231 is?

A

MDA-MB-231 is a highly aggressive, invasive and poorly differentiated triple-negative breast
cancer (TNBC) cell line as it lacks oestrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR)
expression, as well as HER2 (human epidermal growth factor receptor 2) amplification2,3.
Similar to other invasive cancer cell lines, the invasiveness of the MDA-MB-231 cells is
mediated by proteolytic degradation of the extracellular matrix

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8
Q

What is MCF-7?

A

It is ER-positive and progesterone receptor (PR)-positive (8) and belongs to the luminal A molecular subtype (2). MCF-7 is a poorly-aggressive and non-invasive cell line (9), normally being considered to have low metastatic potential

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9
Q

What makes an antibody monoclonal, polyclonal, or recombinant?

A

A polyclonal antibody is a heterogeneous mixture of antibodies derived from distinct B- lymphocyte populations that detect different epitopes within the same immunogen. Polyclonal antibodies are typically produced in rabbits but can also be made in ungulates (sheep, goat, horse, etc.), rodents, and chickens, depending on the researchers’ need. Production of polyclonals typically involves collection of blood from the immunized animal, isolation of the immunoglobulin fraction, and affinity purification to remove non-specific antibody populations. Rabbits offer significant advantages over other species due to their larger antibody diversity and ability to generate immune responses to a wide range of antigens including small molecules and peptides with or without post-translational modifications.

A monoclonal antibody is a homogeneous antibody derived from a single B-cell clone which detects a single epitope within the immunogen. All monoclonal antibodies begin as a pool of polyclonal antibodies but are isolated through a selection or cloning process to identify and expand the desired monovalent clone. Monoclonal antibodies are typically produced from rodent hosts, rabbits and camelids, and are produced via a variety of methods depending on the species and type of antibody desired (as detailed below). Traditionally, monoclonal antibodies are generated via stable clones of immortalized B-cells either by injecting and collecting ascites from a mouse or culturing the antibody expressing B-cells and collecting the supernatant. More recently, newer techniques have enabled recombinant cloning of the immunoglobulin heavy and light chain genes from immunoreactive B-cells for expression and production of recombinant monoclonal antibodies in mammalian cell lines.

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10
Q

PD-L1 και Καρκίνος

A

Tα καρκινικά κύτταρα έχουν την ικανότητα να ξεφεύγουν των Τ-κυττάρων εκφράζοντας μια πρωτεΐνη που λέγεται PD-L1 και η οποία λειτουργεί ως «στοπ» και αδρανοποιεί τα Τ-κύτταρα.

Μία προσέγγιση για την καταπολέμηση του καρκίνου είναι η καταστολή της πρωτεΐνης PD-L1, μέσω της οποίας τα καρκινικά κύτταρα παύουν να αδρανοποιούν τα Τ-κύτταρα μέσω των υποδοχέων PD-1 και B7.1. Ο στόχος της ανοσοθεραπείας είναι να αυξηθεί η δραστηριότητα του ανοσοποιητικού συστήματος, ώστε να προκληθεί μια πιο αποτελεσματική αντικαρκινική αντίδραση.

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11
Q

What is CTLA-4?

A

CTLA-4 or CTLA4 (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4), also known as CD152 (cluster of differentiation 152), is a protein receptor that functions as an immune checkpoint and downregulates immune responses. CTLA-4 is constitutively expressed in regulatory T cells but only upregulated in conventional T cells after activation – a phenomenon which is particularly notable in cancers.[5] It acts as an “off” switch when bound to CD80 or CD86 on the surface of antigen-presenting cells.

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12
Q

What is Vimentin?

A

Vimentin is a structural protein that in humans is encoded by the VIM gene. Its name comes from the Latin vimentum which refers to an array of flexible rods.[5]

Immunofluorescence staining of HeLa Cells with antibody to reveal vimentin containing intermediate filaments in green and antibody to LAMP1 to reveal lysosomes in red. Nuclear DNA is seen in blue. Antibodies and image courtesy EnCor Biotechnology Inc.
Vimentin is a type III intermediate filament (IF) protein that is expressed in mesenchymal cells. IF proteins are found in all animal cells[6] as well as bacteria.[7] Intermediate filaments, along with tubulin-based microtubules and actin-based microfilaments, comprises the cytoskeleton. All IF proteins are expressed in a highly developmentally-regulated fashion; vimentin is the major cytoskeletal component of mesenchymal cells. Because of this, vimentin is often used as a marker of mesenchymally-derived cells or cells undergoing an epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT) during both normal development and metastatic progression.

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13
Q

What is detyrosination?

A

Detyrosination is a form of posttranslational modification that occurs on alpha-tubulin.[1] It consists of the removal of the C-terminal tyrosine to expose a glutamate at the newly formed C-terminus. Tubulin polymers, called microtubules, that contain detyrosinated alpha-tubulin are usually referred to as Glu-microtubules while unmodified polymers are called Tyr-microtubules.

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14
Q

How m30 antibody works?

A

During apoptosis, vital intracellular proteins are cleaved. The proteases that mediate this process are called caspases (Cysteinyl-aspartic acid proteases). Caspases are expressed as zymogenes, which are activated by different apoptosis inducers. Once activated, a single caspase activates a cascade of caspases. Until recently, cytokeratins, in particular cytokeratin 18 (CK18), were not known to be affected by early events of apoptosis. Recently, it has been shown that the M30 antibody recognizes a specific caspase-cleavage site within cytokeratin 18, which is not detectable in native CK18 of normal cells. Consequently, the M30 CytoDEATH antibody is a unique tool for the easy and reliable determination of very early apoptotic events in single cells and tissue sections.

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15
Q

What is the normal function of ER and what happens in tumor formation?

A

ER activation in breast and uterus enhances cell proliferation which is necessary for growth and maintenance of tissues. When the response to estrogens by the endocrine system is deregulated, ER activation might eventually result in tumor formation.

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16
Q

Τί είναι η Χρωματομετρική Μέθοδος MTT?

A

Η χρωματομετρική μέθοδος ΜΤΤ, όπως περιγράφηκε πρώτη φορά χρησιμοποιήθηκε με ορισμένες τροποποιήσεις ως μέθοδος ποσοτικού
προσδιορισμού των πολλαπλασιαζόμενων κυττάρων in vitro. Η μέθοδος είναι
απλή, γρήγορη και επαναλήψιμη και χρησιμοποιείται ευρέως ως προκαταρκτική
μέθοδος ελέγχου δράσης νέων ουσιών. Βασίζεται στην ικανότητα των ζωντανών
και μεταβολικά ενεργών κυττάρων να μεταβολίζουν το άλας τετραζολίου MTT, 3-
(4,5-Dimethyl-2-thiazolyl)-2,5-diphenyl-2H-tetrazolium bromide, προς
έγχρωμους αδιάλυτους κρυστάλλους φορμαζάνης, κυρίως μέσω των
εξαρτώμενων από NAD(P)H αφυδρογονασών των μιτοχονδρίων ή/και του κυτταροπλάσματος.
Με διάλυση των κρυστάλλων φορμαζάνης και μέτρηση της απορρόφησης του
διαλύματος προσδιορίζεται ο αριθμός των κυττάρων με βάση πρότυπη καμπύλη
βαθμονόμησης.

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17
Q

Τί είναι φθορισμός;

A

Φθορισμός ονομάζεται η εκπομπή φωτός από μια ουσία
που έχει απορροφήσει φως ή αλλου είδους
ηλεκτρομαγνητική ακτινοβολία.
* Στις περισσότερες περιπτώσεις που αφορούν βιολογικές
παρατηρήσεις, το εκπεμπόμενο φως φθορισμού έχει
μεγαλύτερο μήκος κύματος, και άρα μικρότερη ενέργεια
σε σχέση με την απορροφούμενη ακτινοβολία.

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18
Q

Τι είναι οι χημειοκίνες και ποιος ο ρόλος τους στον καρκίνο;

A

Χημειοκίνες είναι χημικοί αγγελιοφόροι που διευθύνει και να συντονίζει τις κινήσεις του ανοσοποιητικού συστήματος σε όλο το σώμα . Υπάρχουν πάνω από 50 είδη ( συνδέτες) των χημειοκινών στο σώμα, με πάνω από 12 διαφορετικούς τύπους υποδοχέων περιοχές για τις οποίες αυτές οι ενώσεις μπορούν να τηρούν περάσουν μαζί χημική μήνυμά τους. Τα καρκινικά κύτταρα χρησιμοποιούν τα δίκτυα των χημειοκινών κατά τη διαδικασία της μετάστασης , επιτρέποντας στον καρκίνο να εξαπλωθεί σε όλο το σώμα . Οι θεραπείες που μπορούν να στοχεύσουν χημειοκίνες και να αποτρέψει την εξάπλωση αυτής θα μπορούσε δυνητικά να σταματήσει εντελώς τη μετάσταση .

19
Q

Αρχή της μεθόδου της φικόλης

A

Ο διαχωρισμός των μονοπύρηνων με τη χρήση διαλύματος φικόλης πυκνότητας (d = 1.077 g/ml) (Coligan,
1991. Μονοπύρηνα περιφερικού αίματος απομονώνονται από το αίμα εθελοντών με τη μέθοδο φικόλης
(Ficoll) (Biochrom AG, Berlin). Το αίμα (10 ml αίματος παρουσία αντιπηκτικού EDTA) αραιώνεται σε ίσο
όγκο διαλύματος PBS και το προκύπτον διάλυμα αναδεύεται καλά. Το αραιωμένο αίμα στρώνεται σιγά σιγά
σε δεύτερο δοκιμαστικό σωλήνα που περιέχει 15 ml διαλύματος φικόλης και ακολουθεί φυγοκέντρηση σε
1.800 rpm για 20 min στους 20°C (χωρίς επιτάχυνση και επιβράδυνση). Τα ερυθρά αιμοσφαίρια και τα
αιμοπετάλια διέρχονται του διαλύματος φικόλης και καθιζάνουν, τα ουδετερόφιλα σχηματίζουν στιβάδα
επάνω στα ερυθρά αιμοσφαίρια, ενώ τα λεμφοκύτταρα και τα μονοκύτταρα σχηματίζουν στιβάδα μεταξύ της
επάνω επιφάνειας της φικόλης και του πλάσματος. Μετά τη φυγοκέντρηση, το πλάσμα απομακρύνεται και
συλλέγεται η στιβάδα των μονοπύρηνων με προσοχή. Τα μονοπύρηνα πλένονται τρεις φορές με PBS στους
4°C σε 2.500 rpm για 7 λεπτά.

20
Q

What is happening with PD-L1 binding to PD-1?

A

PD-L1 binding to PD-1 triggers a strong inhibitory signal in the T-cell, inducing reduction of cytokine production and arrest of T-cell proliferation. This activation allows the PD-L1 cancer cells to evade the immune recognition.

21
Q

What cytokines are?

A

Cytokines are small secreted proteins released by cells have a specific effect on the interactions and communications between cells. Cytokine is a general name; other names include lymphokine (cytokines made by lymphocytes), monokine (cytokines made by monocytes), chemokine (cytokines with chemotactic activities), and interleukin (cytokines made by one leukocyte and acting on other leukocytes). Cytokines may act on the cells that secrete them (autocrine action), on nearby cells (paracrine action), or in some instances on distant cells (endocrine action).

22
Q

Refer WBC that can interact with CTCs.

A

The CTCs can interact with a variety of WBCs in the circulation
such as neutrophils (39), PMN-MDSC (17, 40, 41), platelets (31),
macrophages (35), and lymphocytes (16).

23
Q

Explain the rationale of fixation, permeabilisation and blocking during immunofluorescence.

A

Fixation: The cells or tissues are usually fixed to preserve their structure and prevent any further changes.

Permeabilization:
In some cases, especially for intracellular targets, cells need to be permeabilized to allow antibodies to penetrate the cell membrane and access the internal structures.

Blocking:
To minimize nonspecific binding of antibodies, the sample is treated with a blocking solution. This solution contains proteins such as bovine serum albumin (BSA) or normal serum, which occupy unbound sites on the sample, reducing background fluorescence.

24
Q

Describe mounting and then imaging of the sample in IF.

A

Mounting:
The sample is mounted on a microscope slide using an appropriate mounting medium, which preserves the fluorescence signal and helps maintain the structural integrity of the sample.

Imaging:
The final step involves observing the sample under a fluorescence microscope. The fluorophores on the secondary antibodies emit light of a specific wavelength when exposed to the appropriate light source, allowing the visualization of the target molecules within the cells or tissues.

25
Q

Describe in detail the process of antibody binding during IF. Also desribe monoclonal and polyclona use of antibody.

A
  1. Primary Antibody Binding:
    The primary antibody is specifically designed to recognize and bind to a particular epitope on the target molecule. An epitope is a small, specific region of an antigen (the molecule being targeted) to which an antibody binds. The binding of the primary antibody to its target epitope is a highly specific and selective interaction.

Antigen and Epitope:
Antigen: The molecule or part of a molecule (e.g., a protein) that elicits an immune response and is recognized by an antibody.
Epitope (or Antigenic Determinant): The specific region on the antigen to which an antibody binds.
Primary Antibody Types:
Monoclonal Antibodies: Recognize a single epitope with high specificity.
Polyclonal Antibodies: Recognize multiple epitopes on the same antigen, providing increased binding versatility.
2. Secondary Antibody Binding:
The secondary antibody does not directly recognize the target molecule. Instead, it binds to the Fc (constant) region of the primary antibody. The Fc region is a constant part of the antibody structure that is not involved in antigen recognition. The secondary antibody is conjugated to a fluorophore, allowing the visualization of the bound primary antibody.

Why Use a Secondary Antibody?
Signal Amplification: Since multiple secondary antibodies can bind to a single primary antibody, signal amplification occurs, enhancing the fluorescence signal.
Versatility: A single type of secondary antibody can be used with various primary antibodies from different species, streamlining the process.

26
Q

why do we use cytokeratin as a positive marker for detection of circulating tumor cells?

A

Epithelial Origin of Tumors:
Cytokeratins are intermediate filament proteins that are part of the cytoskeleton of epithelial cells. Many cancers arise from epithelial tissues. Carcinomas, which account for the majority of cancers, originate from epithelial cells. Therefore, using markers specific to epithelial cells helps in identifying and isolating tumor cells.

27
Q

why do we used CD45 as a negative marker for detection of CTCs?

A

CD45 is a transmembrane protein and a member of the protein tyrosine phosphatase family. It is commonly known as a leukocyte common antigen and is expressed on all nucleated cells of hematopoietic origin, except erythrocytes and platelets. CD45 is predominantly expressed on cells of hematopoietic origin, including lymphocytes (T cells, B cells), monocytes, granulocytes, and natural killer (NK) cells. It is not expressed on non-hematopoietic cells, such as epithelial cells.

28
Q

Describe PARP inhibition in cancer

A

PARP (Poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase) inhibition is a targeted therapeutic approach in cancer treatment, particularly in the context of certain types of DNA repair-deficient cancers. PARP enzymes play a crucial role in the repair of single-strand DNA breaks through the base excision repair pathway. Inhibiting PARP can selectively target cancer cells with defective DNA repair mechanisms, leading to synthetic lethality.

29
Q

What is HER2?

A

HER2, which stands for Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2, is a gene that codes for a protein known as HER2 or ERBB2. The HER2 protein is a member of the human epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family. These receptors are involved in the regulation of cell growth and division. The HER2 gene is located on chromosome 17.

30
Q

Estrogen Receptor (ER):
Function:
ER-Positive Breast Cancer:
Hormone Receptor Status Testing:

A

Estrogen Receptor (ER):
Function: Estrogen receptors are proteins that bind to the hormone estrogen. When estrogen binds to these receptors, it triggers a signaling pathway that influences gene expression, promoting cell growth and development.

ER-Positive Breast Cancer: If breast cancer cells have estrogen receptors, they are referred to as ER-positive (ER+). ER-positive breast cancers are dependent on estrogen for growth. This characteristic is crucial in determining treatment strategies.

Hormone Receptor Status Testing: Estrogen receptor status is determined through laboratory tests, such as immunohistochemistry (IHC) or molecular assays. If the cancer cells test positive for estrogen receptors, it indicates that the cancer may respond to hormone therapies that block the effects of estrogen.

31
Q

Progesterone Receptor (PR):
Function:
PR-Positive Breast Cancer:
Hormone Receptor Status Testing:

A

Progesterone Receptor (PR):
Function: Progesterone receptors, like estrogen receptors, are proteins that bind to hormones. In this case, they bind to the hormone progesterone. The binding of progesterone to its receptor also influences gene expression and cell growth.

PR-Positive Breast Cancer: Breast cancers with progesterone receptors are referred to as PR-positive (PR+). The presence of progesterone receptors is often assessed along with estrogen receptors, and tumors may be ER+/PR+ or ER+/PR-.

Hormone Receptor Status Testing: Similar to ER, the status of progesterone receptors is determined through laboratory tests, typically done in conjunction with ER testing. PR-positive status can also guide treatment decisions, particularly in combination with ER status.

32
Q

What is the normal role of Immune Checkpoints and what is their role in cancer? Give examples using PD-L1 and CTLA-4.

A

Immune checkpoints are regulatory molecules and pathways that play a crucial role in modulating the immune response to maintain self-tolerance and prevent excessive immune reactions. These checkpoints are critical for preventing the immune system from attacking normal, healthy cells. However, in the context of cancer, tumor cells can exploit these checkpoints to evade immune surveillance. Understanding immune checkpoints has led to the development of immunotherapies that aim to enhance the body’s natural ability to recognize and attack cancer cells.

Key Immune Checkpoints:
CTLA-4 (Cytotoxic T-Lymphocyte-Associated Protein 4):

CTLA-4 is expressed on the surface of activated T cells and acts as an inhibitory receptor. It competes with the co-stimulatory receptor CD28 for binding to B7 molecules on antigen-presenting cells. When CTLA-4 binds to B7, it inhibits T cell activation, leading to suppression of the immune response.
PD-1 (Programmed Cell Death Protein 1) and PD-L1 (Programmed Death-Ligand 1):

PD-1 is expressed on the surface of T cells, and PD-L1 is often expressed on the surface of cancer cells and other immune cells. When PD-1 on T cells binds to PD-L1 on cancer cells, it inhibits T cell activity and contributes to immune evasion by the tumor.

33
Q

What are the CSCs?

A

Cancer stem cells (CSCs), also known as tumor-initiating cells or cancer-initiating cells, are a small population of cells within a tumor that possess the ability to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types found in the tumor. These cells are thought to play a crucial role in the initiation, growth, and recurrence of cancer.

34
Q

What is detyrosinated α-tubulin?

A

Detyrosinated alpha tubulin refers to a specific post-translational modification of tubulin, a protein that is a major component of microtubules. Microtubules are structural components of the cytoskeleton, which is a dynamic network of protein filaments that provide structural support and play a crucial role in intracellular transport, cell division, and various cellular processes.

Tubulin is a heterodimer consisting of alpha and beta subunits. The alpha tubulin subunit undergoes various post-translational modifications, and one of them is the removal of the tyrosine residue at the C-terminus of alpha tubulin. This process is known as detyrosination.

Detyrosination involves the cleavage of the tyrosine residue from the alpha tubulin subunit by a specific enzyme called tubulin-tyrosine carboxypeptidase (TCP). The resulting product is called detyrosinated alpha tubulin. The enzyme removes the terminal tyrosine and exposes a glutamate residue at the C-terminus of alpha tubulin.

Detyrosinated microtubules are associated with stable microtubule structures, and this modification has been linked to various cellular processes, including cell migration, intracellular trafficking, and possibly cell signaling. Detyrosination is reversible, and the tyrosine residue can be re-added by another enzyme called tubulin tyrosine ligase (TTL).

35
Q

What is depolymerization of microtubules?

A

Depolymerization of microtubules refers to the process in which the long chains of tubulin protein subunits that make up the microtubule structure break down or disassemble. Microtubules are dynamic structures that undergo constant cycles of polymerization (assembly) and depolymerization (disassembly), a phenomenon known as dynamic instability.

36
Q

Explain how confocal works with our samples.

A

Our samples contain fluorescent molecules (fluorophores), which they will absorb the laser light and re-emit it at a longer wavelength.A pinhole aperture is placed in front of a detector to allow only the emitted light from the focal point to pass through. This helps in rejecting out-of-focus light, resulting in sharper images.

Image Reconstruction: The detected light is used to create a detailed image of the specimen, with each point contributing to the final picture.

37
Q

Describe how z stacks work in confocal microscopy.

A

The microscope captures images at multiple focal planes throughout the specimen. This is achieved by adjusting the position of the microscope’s objective lens along the Z-axis, which is the optical axis perpendicular to the specimen. The series of images obtained at different focal planes are compiled to create a Z-stack. Each image in the stack represents a slice or section of the specimen at a specific depth along the Z-axis.

3D Reconstruction: Software is used to analyze and reconstruct the Z-stack images into a three-dimensional representation of the specimen.

38
Q

What are the differences between triple negative cell lines, MDA-MB-231 and MDA-MB-436?

A

Despite being TNBC cell lines, there might be differences in the expression levels of other molecular markers and genetic mutations between the two cell lines.

39
Q

What is Vinorelbine?

A

Vinorelbine is a chemotherapy medication used in the treatment of various cancers, most commonly lung cancer and breast cancer. It belongs to the vinca alkaloid class of drugs and is derived from the periwinkle plant (Catharanthus roseus). Vinorelbine works by interfering with the microtubule structures in cells, disrupting the normal process of cell division.

40
Q

why do we add protease inhibitors in the lysis buffer of protein isolation?

A

Protease inhibitors are added to lysis buffers during protein isolation procedures to prevent the degradation of proteins by endogenous proteases. Cells and tissues contain various proteolytic enzymes (proteases) that can break down proteins, leading to the loss of the target proteins and potentially affecting the accuracy and reliability of downstream analyses.

41
Q

Explain the rationale of Bradford assay.

A

The Bradford assay relies on the interaction between Coomassie Brilliant Blue dye and proteins. When proteins are present in the sample, they bind to the dye, causing a color change that can be measured.

In the absence of proteins, the Coomassie dye exists in a red form. When proteins are added to the solution, they bind to the dye, causing it to change to a blue form. The extent of this color change is directly proportional to the amount of protein in the sample.

42
Q

Western Blot/SDS-PAGE Electrophoesis:
This gel is meticulously crafted through the ………. of …………, incorporating NN’-methylene-bis-acrylamide. The catalyst for this reaction is ……….., with free oxygen radicals necessary for ion generation (S2O3−). The process involves the denaturation of proteins through ………., while …………… binds to proteins, imparting a negative charge and disrupting their secondary structure.
Reducing agents, such as ………….. and …….., play a crucial role in ………. The consistent binding of SDS per unit weight allows for the determination of protein charge, making molecular weight the basis of analysis.
The electrophoresis process is divided into stacking and separating gels. The former loads proteins, and the latter, positioned below, separates them. Once polymerization is complete, the gel is vertically fixed in a specialized electrophoresis apparatus. A running buffer is applied to both the top and bottom and electrophoresis is initiated with a constant current through a power supply.

A

polymerization
acrylamide monomers
NNN’N’-tetramethylenediamine (TEMED)
boiling
Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate (SDS)
dithiothreitol (DTT) and β-mercaptoethanol
breaking disulfide bonds

43
Q

Western Blot/Transfer
The experimental procedure entailed the migration of polypeptide chains, previously separated via electrophoresis on a polyacrylamide gel, onto a specialized …….. under the influence of an electric field. …………….. predominantly facilitated the strong binding of proteins to the membrane, forming a distinct imprint of the gel. The hydrophobic nature of the PVDF membrane necessitated ……….. before exposure to aqueous solutions so that aqueous solutions, such as Transfer buffer, can penetrate it.

A

membrane (PVDF)
Hydrophobic interactions
immersion in methanol

44
Q

Explain what happens in chemiluminescence for WB.

A

If using an enzyme-linked secondary antibody, you add a substrate that reacts with the enzyme to produce a visible signal (e.g., light in chemiluminescence). If using a fluorescent secondary antibody, you directly visualize the fluorescence.