Class 1 Exam Flashcards
According to Critical Incident Services, examples of a critical Incident and/or traumatic exent include
- Events that seriously threaten a firefighters life
- Personal identification with the victim or the circumstances
- Mass cassualties
- All of the above
All of the Above
According to Critical incident serves, when a Critical Incident is identified, a peer support team member or any command office can recommend a debriefing. A request or notification will be made to?
- The WFI co-Chairs
2.Platoon chief or assistant Chief of operations and communications - Peer Support team coordination notified
- Both 2 and 3
Both 2 and 3
According to Employee Accident reporting, when an MFES member is injured while on duty, the member must report the incident as soon as possible to their
- District Chief
- Platoon Chief
- Immediate supervisor
- Employee Health services
Immediate supervisor
According to employee Accident reporting, an injury may appear minor and medical aid is not required. if the injury or condition worsens, the employee should.
- Seek medical aid
- Report by telephone the details withing 24 hours to the assistant chief of operations or administration coordinator
- Contact Employee Health services
- Both 1 and 2
- All of the above
both 1 and 2
According to employee safety guidelines, MFES safe working practices include
- Exercise situtational awareness
- Report all unsafe conditions, faulty equipment etc… immediately to your supervisor
- Always wear PPE where required
- All of the above
All of the above
According to MFES WFI, The WFI program has five main components that take a holistic approach to health.
- medical,physical fitness,rehabilitation, couseliing, data collection and reporting
- medical, physical fitness, nutrition, behavioural health, data collection and reporting
- NFPA 1583, physical fitness, rehabilitation, behavioural health, data collection and reporting
- medical, physical fitness, rehabilitation, behavioural health, data collection and reporting
medical, physical fitness, rehabilitation, behacioural health, data collection and reporting
according to MFES violence related incident response, violent incidents are any incidents where MFES personal can be exposed to harm as a resoult of violent or threatening acts
1. drug related situations
2. family disturbances
3. violent incidents at schools
4. people interfering with MFES operations
5. All of the above
- all of the above
According to MFES emergency alert tones and emergency button use, which of the following is correct when resetting an emergency butoon activation on a portable radio
1. the radio is reset by communications when the emergency is stood down or activation was accidental
2. the incident commanders radio can reset the emergency when standing down an emergency button activation
3. the radio is quickly turned on and off to reset
4. the radio that intitiated the emergency must be reset by the operator by holding down the emergency button until the radio indicates it has been reset
- the radio that intitiated the emergency must be reset by the operator by holding down the emergency button until the radio indicates it has been reset
According to MFES safe driving program, which of the following statements about safe dirving practices is incorrect?
1. Headlights do not need to be turned on when flashing lights and light bars are activated
2. posted speed limits may be exceeded when responding to emergencies, providing conditions are such that higher speeds may be accomplished safely
3. Drivers shall exercise extreme caution when approaching intersections, reducing speed to the posted speed limit and being prepared to stop to avoid collisions and for red traffic signals
4. Regardless of speed or driving conditions, adequate stopping distances shall be maintained at all times
- Headlights do not need to be turned on when flashing lights and light bars are activated
According to MFES Backing up Fire Apparatus, during poor visibility from dusk to dawn, what tools would be useful for a spotter?
1. Hand Light
2. portable radio
3. Road flares
4. Both 1 and 2
5. All of the above
- both 1 and 2
According to MFES sector work cycles, work/rest cycle rotation of crews is based on an average working time of ____ mintues in the hazard zone on SCBA
1. 10 mins
2.15 mins
3. 20 mins
4. 30 mins
15 mins
According to MFES Carbon monoxide resposes, during a Carbon monoxide call, MFES personall shal do everything except:
1. Wear full PPE
2. Attempt to confirm the existence of CO in the structure and eliminate any obvious causes
3. Allow residents to return to the structure
4. Recommend tha tthe resident contact the appropriate natural gas utility where appropriate and offer to assist the resident in this regard
- Allow residents to return to the structure
T/F according to MFES explossive device emergencies, the responseto an explosive device emergency is full lights, sirens and air horn for every incident
1. True
2. False
- False
According to MFES RIC, as proactive Ric during the inital size-up the RIC should identify
1. Locations where crews are deployed
2. secondary means of egress
3. Ladder locations for access and egress routes including roof operations
4. equipment assignments for RIC members
5. All of the above
- All of the above
According to MFES Air ambulance procedures and safety guidelines which of the following is incorrect when assisting the air crew?
1. Approach the helicopter with peel paramedics on arrival and assist the flight crew with exiting the aircraft
2. Always apporach the helicopter in full view of the pilot at a 90 degree angle from the side, never from the front or rear
3. carry equipement or at below waist level when approaching or departing the helicopter
4. personnel shall not signal the pilot when teh helicopter wheels will touch down
- Approach the helicopter with peel paramedics on arrival and assist the flight crew with exiting the aircraft
According to MFES NAtural Has incidents Repsonse, which of the following is incorrect?
1. Attempts to control the has leak shall be limited to turning off Valve(S) at the meter and inserting lockout pins
2. PPV ventialtion shall commence after securing the scene
3. If you turn off the wrong valve , leave it off as you may creat another problem
4. always ventialte high, then low as gas rises filling upper areas. Check attic and ventialte if necessary
5. use multi-gas detector to determine if any natural has has enetered exposures
- PPV ventialtion shall commence after securing the scene
According to MFES Emergency Light use, which of the following incident would not require lights, sirens and horns?
- Wires down
- public assitance Flooding
- water flow alarm
- elevator call with medical
- Public assistance flooding
According to MFES Safe roof Operations, Emergency roof operations are particularly hazardous tasks and both crew members and supervisors must have a ehightened degree of _____________ _________
1. concern and care
2. situational awareness
3. situational concern
4. spatial awarness
- situational awareness
According to MFES infection control program, ___________ is use of physical or chemical means to remove, innactivate or destory blood borne, airborne or food borne pathogens on a surface or item to the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectios particles and the surface or item is rendered afe for handling, use or disposal.
1. Cleaning
2. Decontamintation
3. disinfection
- decontamintation
According to MFES dust collection/ hopper systems when openings have not been provided and access is need, this shall be done with caution and remotely. which of the following minimizes the exposure to personnel by using:
1. Aerial ladders
2. Ladders
3. Pike poles
4. Rope
5. All of the above
- All of the above
According to MFEs mayday procedures Appendix A, Which of the following is not a situation that may require mergency traffic?
- Open holes in floor
- A firefighter who is low on air and cannot find an exit
- building collapse
- potential explosion
- rapid fire spread
- A Firefighter who is low on air and cannot find an exit
T/F according to MFES Air horn activation signal, if a vehicle is endangered by the situation, the crew of the vehicle shall report to the next closest vehicle that is positioned in a safe location
1. True
2. False
- True
According to MFES post fire watch, the posit fire watch policy applies to all of the following except:
- incidents where fire has extended into the structure
- incidents where extension into an area containing cellulose fibre insulation is possible
- any incident where complete overhaul is difficult and rekinlde may be a concern
- incidents where fire has been contained to room and contents
- incidents in structures with void areas due to remodeling/ renovations
- Incidents where fire has been contained to room and contents
According to MFEs highway and roadway incidents, the blocker vehicle shall set up a buffer zone of ___ meters upstream from the scene apparatus.
1.20 meters
2. 30 meters
3. 50 meters
4. 60 meters
- 60 meters
According to corporate policy respectful workplace; workplace harrasment and workplace sexual harassment are not defined by intent, but rather by how the behaviour. behaviours which constitue workplace harrassment and workplace sexual harrassment include, but are not limited to :
- bullying
- behavious which create an environment which is hostile or offensive or which contribute to a posoned work environment
- comments such as innapproriate jokes, psychological abuse, name- calling
- all of the above
- all of the above
According to Corporate Policy, Standard behaviour, examples of unnacceptable behaviour include:
1.Failure to disclose conflict of interest
2. insolence and/or insubordination
3. Violence in the workplace
4. all of the above
- all of the above
According to corporate policy access to and acceptable use of information technology resource; IT users are expected to exercise __________ ________ when using IT resources and to ensure they are used appropriately
- Reckless Abandon
- Appropriate Care
- Good Judgment
- Careless Disregard
- Good Judgment
T/F According to Corporate Workplace violence, threats of violence that occur by way of electronic communication will be considered to have occurred in the workplace if directed to or from Employees and where such conduct may reasonably be expected to have an impact on work relationships, work environment and/ or performace.
- True
- False
- True
T/F according to corporate Policy conflict of interest Q&A document; Taking a few customer calls while at work for your own small business is acceptable.
1. True
2. False
- False
T/F According to corporate policy Respectful Work place; Incidients that occur by way of electronic communication ( e.g unwelcome phone calls, voice mail,messages on email or other social media and the display of offensive materials on computers, smartphone or other devices) are considered to have occured in the workplace if directed to or from Employees and where such conduct may reasonably be expected to have an impact on work relationships, work environment and/ or performance
- True
- False
- True
According to the guidelines for acceptable use of IT resources document, what should you bot be doing when using your city of Mississauga email account?
- Send or Forward information which is, or may be offensive or disruptive and derogatory or disruptive
- send or forward e-mail and attachments with confidential City information regarding employee or Citizens personal information
- send or forward email to your home computer or personal email account, such as hotmail or gmail.
- all of the above
- only 1 and 2 are correct
- All of the above
According to Corporate Policy conflict of interest; if the employee is in doubt if their particular situation is not covered in this policy, the employee should ask his or her ___________ for assistance
1. councillor
2. steward
3.supervisor
4. mayor
- Supervisor
According to Coprorate policy respectful workplace; bullying is behaviour by a person or group which intimidates or demeans another person and includes, but is not limited to the following, except:
1. abuse of power
2. Humiliation and embarrassment
3. Justified criticism
4. exclusion and or isolation
5. threats, Rumours/ Gossip
- Justified criticism
According to Corporate Policy Workplace Violence, the city of Mississauga is commited to providing a safe workplace, free of all of the folling except
- Actual violence
- Perceived violence
- Attempted violence
- Threatened violence
- Perceived violence
According to the MFES Medical directives, section 1 PPE is designated to create a barrier between the firefigter and hazards in the environment . which of these statements about ppe is incorrect?
- PPE must be chosen based on a critical assessment of the potential and actual risks of communicable disease exposure present in the situation
- PPE must always be worn correctly and be in good working order as per manufacturer’s instructions
- PPE can be put on and off in any order. There is no sequence to ensure minimal risk of incorrect wear and accidental self- contamination
- reusable PPE, such as forms of eye protection must be cleaned and disinfected after every use as per manufacturer’s instructions
- PPE can be put on and off in any order. There is no sequence to ensure minimal risk of incorrect wear and accidental self- contamination
According to the MFES medical directives defibrullation; the following patients are not excluded by the defibrillation standing order
- the patient is less than 1 year old
- the patient has a penetrating chest wound
- the patient exhibits obvious signs of death
- the patient has a valid DNR
- the patient has a penetrating chest wound
According to the MFES medical directives defibrillation; after a return of a pulse firefighters should:
1. turn off the AED. Assess the airway and breathing and provide appropriate patient care
2. do not remove AED pads, as there is a possibility the patient may re-arrest
3. reasses the patient for a loss of pulse every 45-60 seconds by preforming a 10 second carotid pulse check
4. if no palpable carotid pulse is present, turn AED on and follow AED prompts
5. all of the above
- all of the above
according the the MFES medical directives, sympton assist; exclusions for administering Naloxone include all statement below except for:
1. patient has an allergy to naloxone
2. you have the ability to adequately venti;ate the patient and SP02 >- 92 %
3. PAtient is >- 12 years of age
4. patient has a valid DNR refusing the use of opiod antagonists
5. patient is VSA
- Patient is >- 12 years of age
According to the MFES medical directives CPR guidelines; the correct number of compressions of child two rescuer CPR is _____
1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 30
- 15
According to the MFES medical Directives neonatal resuscitation; ventilation rates for neonatal Resuscitation is between;
1. 20-40 ventilations per minute
2. 25-45 ventilations per minute
3. 35-50 ventilations per minute
4. 40-60 ventilations per minute
- 40-60 ventilations per minute
According to the MFES medical Directives, appendix A; the Personal Protection Strategy model for infection Prevention and Control; before giving medical care, all Firefighters are encouraged to ask all patients the following questions, which of these is not a referenced question to ask?
1. if they have a new or worsening cough
2. if they have just reutned from the hospital
3. if they have nausea, vomiting or diarrhea from a distance of at least 2 meters back
4. if they have a fever
- if They have just returned from the hospital
According to the MFES medical directives; the personal protection strategy model for infection prevention and control; personnel shall not do the following until properly washed from a medical call:
1. eat
2. drink
3.smoke
4. allow hands to come in contact with face, especially the mouth and nose area
5. all of the above
5.all of the above
according to the MFEs medical directives; responding to opiod overdose; which answer regarding you PPE is correctre
1. Ensure you are wearing all required PPE gloves, n95 respurator and eye protection
2. do not approach or touch the person without appropriate PPE
3. do not handle the suspected drugs and wrappers or paraphernalia, they maycontain highly toxic substances such as dangerous opiods
4. all of the above
- all of the above
according to the the MFES DNR order, MFES personeel are obligated to provide emergency care to all patients who require. which of the following exceptions for this is correct?
1. Patients displaying obvious signs of death care
2. a higher medical authority takes over patient
3. a valid DNR is provided has capacity and consent is not given
4. where a patient has capacity and consent is not given
5. all of the above
- all of the above
T/F according to MFES DNR order if the patient has a valid DNR and MFES is requested to leave the patient or premises, MFES personnel shall leave the patient or premise
1. True
2. False
- True
According to the supplemtal medical manual, care for serious head spinal injuries include:
1. Place the patient in the rapid transport category
2. intiate SMR
3. Control any external bleeding
4. monitor responsiveness and prepare to provide interventions for respiratory or cardiac issues
5. all of the above
- all of the above
T/F according to the supplemental medical manual, the scoop and manta will be utilized more often due to their ability to be removed once the patient is placed on the stretcher
1.true
2. false
- true
According to the supplemental medical manual, a fracture in the lower leg may involve:
1. radius
2. femur
3. ulna
4. fibula
- fibula
according to the supplemental medical manual, when estimating the extent of a burn, a burn on the anterior side of the torso in an adult would ne worth __ percentage
1. 4.5
2. 9
3. 18
4. 36
- 18
according to the supplemental medical manual, the number one cause of preventable death in victims of penetrating trauma from an active shooter is _______
1. cardiac arrest
2. hemorrhage
3. ashpyxia
4. shock
- hemorrhage
according to the supplemental medical manual, you are sorting patients at a mass Casualty incident using SALT triage. which group of individuals will be your first priority for individual assessment?
1. Patients who can walk to a designated area you direct them to
2. Patients who can only move their arm or leg when responding to commands
3. Patients not responding to commands
4. Patients obviously deceased
- Patients not responding to Commands
According to the supplemental medical manual, which of the following golden rules of EMR Assisting with Self- Administered medications is most correct?
1. Assess the environment for any obvious and potential hazards to the patients and responders
2. intiate critical interventions FIRST including oxygen administration if required
3. a proper history and phyiscal assesment are essential
4. ensure medications belongs (prescribed) to the patient (except in the use of naloxone)
5. all of the above
- all of the above
T/F according to the supplemental medical, if you need a third nitro spray, you must wait 5 minutes after the second spray and no more than 3 sprays should be given within 15 minutes
1. True
2. False
- Truse
True or False: Firefighters are required to perform a vector change after three consecutive analyses showing a shockable rhythm if Paramedics have not made patient contact.
True
True or False: Patients under the age of 18 are eligible for the vector change protocol
False
True or False: High-quality CPR is only performed before the first analysis in the vector change protocol
False
True or False: A patient found in a non-shockable rhythm is contraindicated for the vector change protocol
True
True or False: The firefighter must continue high-quality CPR during a vector change.
True
What is the minimum age for a patient to qualify for this protocol?
A. 12 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. Any age
B 18 years
When is a vector change performed?
A. After the first analysis showing a shockable rhythm
B. After three consecutive analyses showing a shockable rhythm
C. Only if the Paramedics instruct the firefighter to do so
D. Never
B. After three consecutive analyses showing a shockable rhythm
Which of the following is a contraindication for the vector change protocol?
A. The patient is ≥18 years old
B. The patient is found in a shockable rhythm
C. The patient is found in a non-shockable rhythm
D. The patient remains in a shockable rhythm for three analyses
C. The patient is found in a non-shockable rhythm
What action should firefighters take between the third and fourth analyses having shocks on all three analyses?
A. Stop CPR
B. Perform a vector change
C. Wait for Paramedics to arrive
D. Perform defibrillation without CPR
B. Perform a vector change
What is required between each analysis of a shockable rhythm?
A. High-quality CPR for 1 minute
B. High-quality CPR for 2 minutes
C. Immediate defibrillation
D. Vector change
B. High-quality CPR for 2 minutes
True or False: During a vector change, firefighters should place a new (red) pad on the patient’s left upper back and a new (purple) pad on the patient’s left chest.
True
What is the correct sequence of actions during a vector change?
A. Stop compressions immediately and apply new pads
B. Perform 30 compressions and 2 breaths, then place new pads in the Anterior/Posterior position
C. Place both new pads on the patient’s chest without performing compressions
D. Wait for Paramedics to arrive before continuing
B. Perform 30 compressions and 2 breaths, then place new pads in the Anterior/Posterior position
What must firefighters do with the original pads during a vector change?
A. Leave them in place for future use
B. Move them to a different location on the chest
C. Remove and discard them after plugging in the new pads
D. Store them for Paramedics to reuse
C. Remove and discard them after plugging in the new pads
True or False: Ornge helicopters are permitted to respond to any landing site at night, regardless of approval.
False
Where will Ornge helicopters respond to at night?
A. Any open field
B. Only to heliports, airports, and company-approved landing sites
C. Public roads with adequate lighting
D. Any location with a marked landing zone
B. Only to heliports, airports, and company-approved landing sites
What is required for an Ornge helicopter to land at night?
A. Clear weather conditions
B. An unlit open space
C. Approval of the landing site by the company
D. Permission from local authorities
C. Approval of the landing site by the company
True or False: The landing zone for a helicopter must have a radius of at least 150 feet (45 meters).
True
True or False: Security tape is an acceptable method to mark the helicopter landing zone.
False
Which of the following actions should be taken to secure a helicopter landing zone?
A. Place vehicles within the landing zone to create a boundary
B. Hose down dusty areas to prevent a visibility issue during landing
C. Mark the landing zone with security tape
D. Allow personnel in the landing zone until the helicopter is about to land
B. Hose down dusty areas to prevent a visibility issue during landing
When must vehicles and personnel clear the landing zone?
A. As soon as the helicopter begins its descent
B. At least 3 minutes before the helicopter’s estimated arrival or when directed by the flight crew
C. Only after the helicopter has landed
D. Only when the pilot explicitly requests it
B. At least 3 minutes before the helicopter’s estimated arrival or when directed by the flight crew
True or False: MFES personnel are allowed to travel on restricted airport property (Airside) without an authorized escort during airport emergencies.
False
True or False: Aircraft movement, including take-off and landing, may continue during serious airport emergencies.
True
What must MFES personnel do when dispatched to airport emergencies?
A. Enter restricted airport property (Airside) without escort
B. Follow the instructions of Incident Command (IC) or the assigned escort
C. Stop all aircraft movement immediately
D. Position vehicles anywhere deemed convenient
B. Follow the instructions of Incident Command (IC) or the assigned escort
When can MFES personnel enter restricted airport property (Airside)?
A. Only during take-off and landing
B. When granted access by the airport tower
C. Only under an authorized escort
D. During emergencies without restrictions
C. Only under an authorized escort
True or False: MFES generally requires two spotters to safely back up apparatus, and they must be MFES personnel.
True
Why are other personnel (e.g., police or paramedics) not suitable as spotters for MFES apparatus?
A. They are not authorized by the Incident Command
B. They are not familiar with MFES apparatus or procedures
C. They do not have proper safety equipment
D. They are too busy with their own duties
B. They are not familiar with MFES apparatus or procedures
True or False: If two spotters are not available, the driver must perform a 360-degree risk assessment and use one spotter at the rear of the vehicle.
True
What is the first action a driver must take when reversing a fire apparatus without a spotter?
A. Roll down the driver’s window
B. Honk the horn
C. Perform a 360-degree walk around the vehicle
D. Reverse slowly
C. Perform a 360-degree walk around the vehicle
Which precaution is NOT required when a driver is reversing a fire apparatus without a spotter?
A. Honking the horn prior to reversing
B. Activating the headlights, emergency lights, and 4-way flashers
C. Performing a 360-degree risk assessment
D. Using two spotters at the rear of the vehicle
D. Using two spotters at the rear of the vehicle
True or False: Cellulose fibre insulation fires typically follow a specific and predictable pattern.
False
What is a key characteristic of fire spread in cellulose fibre insulation?
A. It spreads vertically and is easily detectable
B. It spreads horizontally and often goes undetected
C. It ignites and extinguishes quickly
D. It cannot harbour smouldering embers
B. It spreads horizontally and often goes undetected
To what distance beyond the room’s perimeter must cellulose insulation be removed?
A. One meter
B. Two meters
C. Three meters
D. Only to the edge of visible fire damage
B. Two meters
Why must cellulose insulation be removed beyond the perimeter of the room(s) involved?
A. To reduce the weight on the structure
B. To ensure no hidden fire or smouldering embers remain
C. To allow for proper ventilation of the space
D. To inspect the building’s framework
B. To ensure no hidden fire or smouldering embers remain
True or False: Individuals with a suspended, downgraded, or revoked DZ driver’s license must report it immediately to their Supervisor.
True
For what reasons must a DZ driver’s license issue be reported?
A. Suspension, downgrade, or revocation
B. Renewal of the license
C. Obtaining a new vehicle assignment
D. Change in personal address
A. Suspension, downgrade, or revocation
What color is the Personal Identification Tag (PIT) used in the incident accountability system?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
C. Green
True or False: The Personal Identification Tag (PIT) system is used to account for all personnel at an incident.
True
True or False: The red Personal Identification Tag (PIT) system is used to track the location and function of all personnel in a hazard zone.
True
What is the purpose of the red Personal Identification Tag (PIT) system in Entry Control?
A. To monitor equipment usage in the hazard zone
B. To track the location and/or function of personnel in a hazard zone
C. To identify vehicles assigned to the hazard zone
D. To log communications from the hazard zone
B. To track the location and/or function of personnel in a hazard zone
True or False: When responding to a gas leak, MFES personnel must ensure the Gas Company is notified and all vehicles are staged at a safe distance from the leak.
True
True or False: It is acceptable for responders to squeeze off a ruptured gas line if no other method to stop the leak is available.
False
What action must responders take when managing a gas leak?
A. Lay a 45mm pre-connect line
B. Secure a water supply and lay a minimum of one charged 65mm pre-connect line
C. Use an uncharged 65mm pre-connect line for easy movement
D. Wait until the Gas Company arrives before laying any lines
B. Secure a water supply and lay a minimum of one charged 65mm pre-connect line
True or False: If carbon monoxide levels exceed 25 ppm, the house must be vacated, and the Gas Company must be called.
True
What action is recommended if carbon monoxide levels are below 25 ppm?
A. Vacate the house immediately and call the Gas Company
B. Confirm the owner has a CO accumulation problem and strongly advise they call the Gas Company if fired appliances are present
C. Take no action as the levels are considered safe
D. Open windows and doors and wait for levels to naturally decrease
B. Confirm the owner has a CO accumulation problem and strongly advise they call the Gas Company if fired appliances are present
Who are the most susceptible to the effects of carbon monoxide exposure?
A. Young adults and healthy individuals
B. Athletes and physically active persons
C. People in poor health, the elderly, children, and pregnant individuals
D. Individuals living in urban areas
C. People in poor health, the elderly, children, and pregnant individuals
True or False: At a dust collector or hopper fire, a water supply must be secured, and a minimum of two 45mm hand lines and one 65mm hand line must be charged and staffed at all times.
True
True or False: The activation of a hopper’s fire suppression system may cause an explosion.
True
What type of fire streams should be used when water is necessary for a hopper fire?
A. High velocity streams
B. Low velocity streams
C. Fog streams
D. Uncharged streams
B. Low velocity streams
How many hand lines are required to be set up and staffed at a hopper fire?
A. One 45mm and one 65mm hand line
B. Two 45mm and one 65mm hand line
C. Three 45mm hand lines only
D. Two 65mm and one 45mm hand line
B. Two 45mm and one 65mm hand line
What temperature qualifies as extreme cold weather conditions?
A. Minus 10 degrees
B. Minus 15 degrees
C. Minus 20 degrees
D. Minus 25 degrees
B. Minus 15 degrees
True or False: Wind chill is considered in determining extreme cold weather conditions.
True
True or False: A Fire Investigator/Inspector (FI) will be called to the scene if the fire loss exceeds $100,000.00 or the cause is uncertain.
True
True or False: The OFMEM will engage MFES 24/7 for fires in vulnerable occupancies, fatal fires, serious injuries, and explosions.
True
When should the Fire Chief or designate be notified of a fire?
A. For losses exceeding $100,000.00
B. For losses exceeding $150,000.00
C. Only for fire-related deaths or injuries
D. For any fire-related incident
B. For losses exceeding $150,000.00
Which situations require immediate notification to the OFMEM?
A. Fires with minor injuries
B. All equipment malfunctions
C. Fatal fires, serious injuries, explosions, and fires in vulnerable occupancies
D. Fires in non-residential buildings
C. Fatal fires, serious injuries, explosions, and fires in vulnerable occupancies
True or False: According to the Ontario Building Code, highrise buildings are defined as those with seven storeys or more, or where the highest floor level is more than 18 metres above grade.
True
True or False: Residential highrise buildings typically have undivided open spaces similar to commercial highrises.
False
True or False: HVAC systems in highrise buildings have the potential to recirculate smoke and toxic fire gases, potentially contaminating multiple floors.
True
What is the defining feature of a highrise building according to the Ontario Building Code?
A. It must have at least five storeys
B. It must have sprinklers and a standpipe system
C. It must have seven storeys or a floor level more than 18 metres above grade
D. It must include both residential and commercial occupancies
C. It must have seven storeys or a floor level more than 18 metres above grade
What is a typical characteristic of commercial highrise buildings?
A. Fire-rated walls separating offices
B. Open spaces with partitions extending to a hanging ceiling
C. Fire protection systems specific to residential use
D. Complete compartmentalization of all units
B. Open spaces with partitions extending to a hanging ceiling
Which of the following systems in highrise buildings must firefighting crews be familiar with?
A. Standpipe systems
B. Firefighter elevators
C. HVAC and voice communication systems
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
True or False: The first arriving aerial apparatus should always function as the fireground pumper, regardless of the situation.
False
True or False: At a fire alarm activation, the driver/operator of the first arriving apparatus should locate the Fire Department Connection (FDC) and fire hydrant but should not pressurize the system until directed by the Incident Commander.
True
True or False: When investigating a fire alarm, the first crew should initially proceed two floors below the alarm floor to establish staging and check conditions before advancing.
True
What is the primary responsibility of the Captain and crew upon arriving at a highrise fire alarm activation?
A. Connect the apparatus to the FDC and pressurize it immediately
B. Respond to the annunciator panel to confirm the type and location of the alarm
C. Establish Lobby Sector and set up Entry Control
D. Perform an exterior fire attack immediately
B. Respond to the annunciator panel to confirm the type and location of the alarm
If the first arriving apparatus is a Heavy Rescue, what should its role be?
A. Assume the fireground pumper role
B. Park out of the way and defer the fireground pumper role to the next arriving pumper
C. Immediately begin forcible entry
D. Begin the initial fire attack
B. Park out of the way and defer the fireground pumper role to the next arriving pumper
When using elevators at a highrise fire, what must the crew do first?
A. Bring forcible entry tools to the fire floor
B. Proceed directly to the fire floor without stopping
C. Secure and ground the elevators, and assign an “Elevator Sector” equipped with SCBA and a portable radio
D. Use the elevators only after the fire has been confirmed extinguished
C. Secure and ground the elevators, and assign an “Elevator Sector” equipped with SCBA and a portable radio
True or False: The Captain and crew of the second arriving apparatus should join the first arriving crew to assist with fire floor operations unless directed otherwise. (highrise fire)
True
True or False: The second arriving crew’s objectives at a highrise fire include assisting with hose stretches, performing forcible entry, and conducting primary and secondary searches.
True
What should the placement of the second arriving apparatus prioritize at a highrise fire?
A. Blocking vehicle traffic around the incident
B. Supporting the fireground pumper, including tandem pumping if required
C. Establishing a safe perimeter for bystanders
D. Acting as the primary incident command vehicle
B. Supporting the fireground pumper, including tandem pumping if required
If the first arriving apparatus was an aerial or a Heavy Rescue, what role does the second arriving apparatus assume? highrise fire
A. It acts as the fireground support pumper
B. It defers to the next arriving pumper and waits for further instructions
C. It assumes the fireground pumper role with access to the FDC and hydrant
D. It becomes the command unit for the incident
C. It assumes the fireground pumper role with access to the FDC and hydrant
What equipment should the second arriving crew bring when joining the first crew? highrise fire
A. Only forcible entry tools and highrise hose packs
B. A thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, and components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit
C. A ladder and basic firefighting tools
D. Medical equipment for potential rescues
B. A thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, and components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit
True or False: The Captain of the third arriving apparatus will assume the duties of “Lobby Sector” upon arrival. highrise fire
True
True or False: The third arriving crew is responsible for managing medical needs in the lobby, including bringing a medical bag and defibrillator. highrise fire
True
Where should the third arriving apparatus stage at a highrise fire if not assigned to be the fireground pumper or fireground support pumper?
A. Directly in front of the building entrance
B. In an area that does not interfere with aerial access
C. Adjacent to the hydrant closest to the incident
D. At the incident command post
B. In an area that does not interfere with aerial access
If the Incident Commander assigns the third arriving crew to fire floor operations, who typically assumes the “Lobby Sector” responsibilities?
A. The first arriving apparatus crew
B. A later arriving apparatus crew
C. The Incident Commander
D. The fireground support pumper crew
B. A later arriving apparatus crew
What should the fourth arriving crew bring if assigned to the fire floor? highrise fire
A. Spare air cylinders and hose packs
B. RIT kit and defibrillator
C. Forcible entry tools and a thermal imaging camera
D. Fireground pumper equipment
C. Forcible entry tools and a thermal imaging camera
True or False: The fifth arriving crew’s primary responsibility is to establish and manage ventilation operations unless reassigned by the Incident Commander. highrise fires
True
True or False: The fifth arriving crew may also be tasked with bringing in additional attack line components if required. highrise fire
True
What equipment should the fifth arriving crew consider bringing for ventilation operations? highrise fire
A. Spare air cylinders and medical bags
B. Thermal imaging cameras and forcible entry tools
C. Ventilation and air monitoring equipment, aerial ladder belts, and bolt cutters
D. Highrise hose packs and a fire extinguisher
C. Ventilation and air monitoring equipment, aerial ladder belts, and bolt cutters
True or False: The Captain and crew of the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving apparatus should stage at Level 1 and await assignment from the Incident Commander.
True
True or False: One of the tasks that the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews could be assigned is setting up a rehabilitation area three floors below the fire floor.
True
What equipment should the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews bring for staging?
A. Fire extinguishers, air monitoring equipment, and highrise hose packs
B. Thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, spare air cylinders, and bottled water
C. Ventilation equipment and roof hatches
D. Medical bags and defibrillators
B. Thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, spare air cylinders, and bottled water
What is the primary role of the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews?
A. To engage in fire suppression operations immediately
B. To perform ventilation tasks and coordinate evacuation
C. To serve as a relief crew or to assist with tasks as assigned by the Incident Commander
D. To take over the duties of the first arriving crew
C. To serve as a relief crew or to assist with tasks as assigned by the Incident Commander
In the event additional attack lines are needed, what might the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews be tasked with?
A. Performing a secondary search of the fire floor
B. Setting up the rehabilitation area
C. Bringing in components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit
D. Assisting with ventilation and roof hatch operations
C. Bringing in components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit
True or False The greatest risk to personnel occurs during two phases of traffic management is the set up and takedown
True
What is the buffer zone from the first arriving vehicle be from the Incident?
A. 10 m
B. 15 m
C. 30 M
D. 60 M
C. 30 M
True or False All Crew members shall don their High visibility traffic vest and helmet prior to commencing on scene work
True
True or False you can walk across high speed traffic lanes and cross the jersey wall to access the scene
False
True or False MFES Apparatus located more than 75 Meters from a hydrant will install the relay valve when taking the hydrant
True
What KPA is the pump operator to charge the fire line pumper through an inline relay valve?
A. 800 KPA
B. 1000 KPA
C. 1300 KPA
D. 1600 KPA
C. 1300 KPA
True or False A residual pressure reading on the compound gauge of 150 KPA or greater must be maintained
True
When performing a Mayday use the LIP acronym. what does LIP stand for
A. Layout, Issue, position
B. Location, Identification, Problem
C. Location, Interior, protection
B. Location, Identification, Problem
True or False When responding to a MRI device emergencies. crews will consult the MRI technologist before taking any actions regarding Safety, Preventing damage to MRI device
True
Batteries in the SCBA will be changed at what percentage
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
C. 75%
How many people will be used to resuscitate the small animal
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B.2
True or False Contaminated components of the Pet O2 shall be discarded upon return to the station
True
True or False Roof ladders will not be used on steel or tile pitched roofs
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 1, Overview; standard Personal
Protective Equipment includes all of the following EXCEPT? (pg. 6)
A) Properly fit-tested N95 respirators
B) Protective eye wear, including goggle or face shield
C) Prescription eye glasses
D) Gowns or bunker gear
C) Prescription eye glasses
According to MFES Medical Directive, Section 1, Overview; PPE is designed to create a
barrier between the Firefighter and hazards in the environment. Which is NOT an
appropriate action to take? (Pg. 5)
A) PPE should be put on as close to point-of-care as possible.
B) It must be chosen based on a critical assessment of the potential and actual risks of
communicable disease exposure present in the situation.
C) PPE must be put on and taken off in the correct order to ensure minimal risk of
incorrect wear and accidental self-contamination.
D) PPE must always be worn correctly and be in good working order as per
manufacturer’s instructions.
E) Reusable PPE, such as some forms of eye protection do not need to be cleaned or
disinfected.
E) Reusable PPE, such as some forms of eye protection do not need to be cleaned or
disinfected.
T/F According to MFES Medical Directive, Section 7, DNR; a photocopy of a DNR will
NOT be accepted. (Pg. 47)
False
According to MFES Medical Directive, Section 7, DNR; to validate a DNR, firefighters
(usually the Officer in Charge) will verify that the DNR contains the following, EXCEPT.
(Pg. 47)
A) A serial number in the upper right corner
B) Correct name of patient
C) A check mark in one of the boxes indicating CPR is not part of the plan of treatment
D) The patients insurance contact information
E) Name and profession of the health care provider
F) Signature and date when the form was completed
D) The patients insurance contact information
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, Determination of
Obvious Death; a patient meets “obvious death criteria” if they are vital signs absent
and one or more of the following: (Pg-24)
A) decapitation
B) decomposition
C) gross charring
D) open head or torso wounds
E) gross rigor mortis and gross lividity
F) all of the above
F) all of the above
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, Blunt Trauma,
Penetrating Chest/Torso Trauma; if there is sufficient evidence that the patient has
suffered blunt force trauma or penetrating chest/torso trauma, the patient should
receive the following: (Pg. 16)
A. Allow the AED to complete one analysis only.
B. If indicated deliver a single shock.
C. After the first analysis (and shock if necessary) is complete, turn off the AED after
receiving the “Start CPR” voice prompt.
D. Continue CPR until transfer of care to Paramedics
E. B & D
F. A & C
G. All of the above
G. All of the above
T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; A neonate’s age
range is between 0 to 28 days (pg. 28)
A) True
B) False
False
T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; for infants
(<1 year), DO NOT apply the AED. Landmark between the nipples, use two fingers (or
two thumbs encircling the chest) and compress the chest so that it is depressed one
third to one half its original depth. (pg. 28)
A) True
B) False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, Unresponsive Patient
with Pulse (Choking Protocol); what are the order of steps when dealing with a patient who
is unresponsive with an airway obstruction; the patient has a pulse. (pg. 14)
A) 30 thrusts, check mouth, attempt ventilation, check pulse, and continue
B) 30 chest compressions, check mouth, attempt ventilation, and continue
C) 5 back blows, followed by 5 abdominal thrusts
D) 30 thrusts, check mouth, attempt ventilation
A) 30 thrusts, check mouth, attempt ventilation, check pulse, and continue
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, and Cardiac Arrest of
a Hypothermic Patient: How long is a pulse check for an unresponsive hypothermic
patient? (pg. 15)
A) 45 sec
B) 10 sec
C) 60 sec
D) 15 sec
A) 45 sec
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2 Defibrillation, Cardiac Arrest of a
Hypothermic Patient: During resuscitation efforts, you are instructed, “shock advised”
with an unresponsive, VSA, hypothermic patient. What are the CORRECT steps you
follow after delivering the shock? (pg. 15)
A) Turn off the AED after receiving the “Start CPR” voice prompt , continue CPR
until transfer of care to Paramedics.
B) Administer shock, continue with defibrillator protocols & CPR
C) Do not shock patient, you will worsen their condition since they are hypothermic
D) Administer shock, turn off defibrillator, remove pads, continue CPR
A) Turn off the AED after receiving the “Start CPR” voice prompt , continue CPR
until transfer of care to Paramedics.
. T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; you are attending a
call for a VSA. The patient just celebrated their 8th birthday. The correct protocol would be:
attach Adult Pads. (pg. 11)
A) True
B) False
True
T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; if patient is ≥1 and <
8 years of age, firefighters will attach pediatric pads. (pg. 11)
A) True
B) False
True
T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; when transferring
care between public/private access defibrillation (PAD) providers, firefighters shall operate
the PAD Defibrillator. (pg. 21)
A) True
B) False
False
. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; the following patient(s)
are NOT excluded by the defibrillation standing order: (pg. 27)
A) The patient is less than 1 years of age
B) The patient is pregnant
C) The patient exhibits obvious signs of death
D) The patient has a valid ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’
B) The patient is pregnant
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; while the AED is
analyzing the patient’s heart rhythm, it is important for the firefighter to: (pg. 9)
A) Continue CPR
B) Remove the patient’s shirt
C) Provide ventilations only
D) Do not touch the patient
D) Do not touch the patient
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; after a return of a pulse
firefighters should: (pg. 12)
A) Turn off the AED. Assess the airway and breathing and provide appropriate patient
care
B) Do not remove AED pads, as there is a possibility the patient may re-arrest
C) Reassess the patient for a loss of pulse every 45-60 seconds by performing a 10
second carotid pulse check
D) If no palpable carotid pulse is present, turn AED on and follow AED prompts
E) All of the Above
E) All of the Above
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; during analysis, the
AED indicates “shock advise” prior to administering the shock immediately perform a
minimum of ________ compressions (pg. 11)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 30
D) As many as possible
B) 15
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; the amount of
voltage per shock begins and increases (pg. 11)
A) 120-150-200
B) Does not increase maintains at 200
C) 100-120-150
D) 150-200-250
A) 120-150-200
According to the MFES Medical Directives Section 2 Defibrillation, after using the AED on
your patient, you determine that the patient has regained a pulse and is breathing
adequately. You should then do all of the following EXCEPT: (pg. 13)
A) Monitor the patient’s pulse
B) Turn off AED
C) Keep the AED attached to the patient
D) Continue CPR until the Paramedics arrive
D) Continue CPR until the Paramedics arrive
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; After the AED has
provided the first analyze to a hypothermic patient, the firefighter should: (pg. 15)
A) Turn the AED off
B) Wait for the second analysis and only turn it off if “no shock advised”
C) Discontinue resuscitation efforts
D) Leave AED on, but ignore further prompts
A) Turn the AED off
. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; a 6 month old boy is
not breathing and does not have a pulse. Emergency care for him will include: (pg. 28)
A. A minute of CPR followed by the application of the AED
B. Application of the AED followed by rescue breathing
C. Immediate defibrillation
D. CPR only
D. CPR only
. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; what age range are
pediatric pads rated for? (pg. 28)
A. 1-8 years
B. 30 days – 2 years
C. 8 to 12 years
D. Less than 1 year
A. 1-8 years
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; you respond to a
single vehicle MVC, with a VSA patient with no obvious trauma. After extricating the
patient, you begin MFES AED protocol. After first analysis, the AED provides a “Shock
advised”. After delivering the shock the firefighter should: (pg. 11)
A. Turn off the AED
B. Keep AED on but detach pads
C. Wait for paramedic instruction
D. Leave AED on and continue to follow prompts
D. Leave AED on and continue to follow prompts
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; you respond to a
patient VSA due to penetrating trauma. After first analysis AED provides a “shock
advised”. Following the shock, the firefighter will: (pg. 16)
A. Turn off AED, continue CPR
B. Leave AED on and continue to follow prompts
C. Terminate resuscitation efforts, as patient is code 5
D. Wait for paramedic direction
A. Turn off AED, continue CPR
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; A firefighter should
turn the AED on when: (pg. 9)
A. The dispatcher provides an update of VSA on route to the call
B. As soon as the firefighter assesses patient and confirms VSA
C. When the patient is prepared and pads are on
D. Do not turn on AED to avoid paperwork, wait for paramedics
B. As soon as the firefighter assesses patient and confirms VSA
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3 Symptom Assist, Administration of
Epinephrine; the correct dosage of Epinephrine for a 6 year old patient weighing < 33 kg
is: (pg. 30)
A) 0.3 mg
B) 0.6 mg
C) 0.15 mg
D) 0.12 mg
C) 0.15 mg
. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist, Assisting with
Patients own Nitroglycerin; what should the minimal heart rate and blood pressure be
prior to administration of nitroglycerin? (pg.33)
A) HR of < 40/min, BP of < 90 systolic
B) HR of < 60/min, BP of >100 systolic
C) HR of > 120/min, BP of >120 systolic
D) HR of < 60/min, BP of >120 systolic
B) HR of < 60/min, BP of >100 systolic
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist, Administration of
Epinephrine; the correct dose of Epinephrine for a patient who weighs ≥30 kg is?
(pg. 30)
A) 0.3 mg
B) 0.6 mg
C) 0.15mg
D) 0.12mg
A) 0.3 mg
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; a patient may
receive Epinephrine administered by the Firefighter, provided that the patient has not
received a maximum of __ doses prior to the Firefighter’s arrival. (pg. 30)
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4
C) 2
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist Administration of
Epinephrine; which of the following is not a sign and symptom of an allergic reaction,
including anaphylaxis? (pg. 30)
A) Hypertension
B) Hypotension
C) Stridor
D) Wheezing
A) Hypertension
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist Anaphylaxis
Protocol; a second dose of Epinephrine may be given after ___ minutes from the first
dose. (pg. 31)
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
B) 10
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist, Suspected Opioid
Toxicity; Overdose signs and symptoms can include: (pg. 35)
A) Respiratory distress, respiratory depression or arrest
B) Suspected opioid toxicity
C) Reduced level of consciousness
D) Have a room air SpO2 <92% or not reading
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; if a suspected
opioid overdose patient is not breathing or has no pulse, initiate defibrillation protocol
as per the medical directives. If the patient has a pulse and the patient’s respiratory rate
is ˂ 10 breaths per minute and SpO2 <92% or not reading, begin assisted ventilation. 1
ventilation every 6 seconds (pg. 35)
A) True
B) False
True
. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Responding to
Opioid Overdose; which answer is NOT a symptom of an opioid overdose? (pg. 35)
A) Elevated heart rate (Hypertension)
B) Altered level of responsiveness
C) Respiratory depression with respiratory rate <10 breaths per minute
D) Suspected opioid toxicity
A) Elevated heart rate (Hypertension)
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; which of the
following is NOT signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (pg. 30)
A) Generalized Urticaria (Hives)
B) Hypotension (systolic BP < 90)
C) Stridor
D) Strong, regular pulse
E) Wheezing
D) Strong, regular pulse
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; exclusions for
administering Naloxone include all statements below except for: (pg. 35)
A) Patient has an allergy to naloxone
B) You have the ability to adequately ventilate the patient and SpO2 ≥ 92%
C) Patient is ≥ 12 years of age
D) Patient has a valid DNR refusing the use of opioid antagonists
E) Patient is VSA
C) Patient is ≥ 12 years of age
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; If the patient has
self administered one dose of epinephrine prior to firefighter arrival, a firefighter should:
(pg. 31)
A. Not administer any more epinephrine
B. Administer a second dose after 10 minutes if the patients clinical conditions
warrants
C. Administer a second dose immediately, we cannot trust the patients medication
D. Attach AED pads and prepare for the worst
B. Administer a second dose after 10 minutes if the patients clinical conditions
warrants
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; what are some
signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? (pg. 30)
A. Hypotension
B. Hives/rash
C. Shortness of breath/wheezes/stridor
D. A combination of some or all of the above
D. A combination of some or all of the above
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; The following are
potential signs of an asthma attack: (pg. 32)
A. Poor air entry
B. Wheezing
C. Cyanosis
D. Intercostal indrawing
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Prior to helping the
patient take their Ventolin, the firefighter must: (pg. 32)
A. Confirm the Ventolin belongs to the patient
B. Confirm a history of COPD
C. Consider other treatment as appropriate
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; what is the time
interval and maximum dose you should follow when nitroglycerin is given? (pg. 33)
A. Every 2 minutes to a maximum of 3 sprays/tablets
B. Every 10 minutes to a maximum of 6 sprays/tablets
C. Every 5 minutes with no maximum number of sprays/tablets
D. Every 5 minutes to a maximum of 3 sprays/tablets
D. Every 5 minutes to a maximum of 3 sprays/tablets
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; After
administration of nitroglycerin, a firefighter should: (pg. 33)
A. Monitor patient’s vital signs every 5 minutes,
B. Complete the call and leave patient with instructions for further doses if problem
continues
C. Apply AED pads and prepare for the worst
D. Provide 2 more doses over the next 10 minutes without re-assessing
A. Monitor patient’s vital signs every 5 minutes,
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; which of the
following is NOT a clinical presentation of Opioid overdose? (pg. 35)
A. Dilated pupils
B. Altered level of responsiveness
C. Respiratory depression
D. None of the above
A. Dilated pupils
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; after receiving
Naloxone, the patient never requires medical attention. (Pg. 36)
A. True
B. False
False
T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C; Naloxone side effects may
include severe opioid withdrawal. (pg. 73)
A. True
B. False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; it could take up to
8 minutes for Naloxone to take effect. (pg. 36)
A. True
B. False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C, You arrive at a scene of a 32 year
old male who has overdosed on heroin. Upon your assessment he is unconscious, not
breathing, but has a pulse rate of 130. What is your first priority? (pg. 72)
A. Administer Narcan immediately
B. Get a full set of vitals and wait for EMS
C. Assist with ventilations, 1 breathe every 5-6 seconds and reassess
D. Begin AED/CPR protocol
C. Assist with ventilations, 1 breathe every 5-6 seconds and reassess
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; it is permitted for
MFES to provide a second dose of naloxone using a new nasal spray, as long as you use
the other nostril. (pg. 35)
A. True
B. False
False
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; The MFES medical
directive states that Narcan is given after rescuers have been unsuccessful providing
adequate ventilations. (pg. 35)
A. True
B. False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; under what
condition should assistance for self-administration of nitroglycerin occur? (Pg. 33)
A. Chest pain <30 minutes duration
B. Chest pain similar to previous angina/MI
C. Patient requests assistance with taking their prescribed nitroglycerin
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; which of the
following is NOT and contra-indication in the administration of the patient’s ASA?
(Pg. 34)
A. Asthma with no prior ASA use
B. Blood pressure <100mmHG
C. CVA or TIA within previous 24 hrs
D. Allergy to ASA or non-steroidal anti – inflammatory (NSAID)
B. Blood pressure <100mmHG
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Nitroglycerin
should NOT be administered if the patient has any of the following contraindications
(pg. 33)
A. The patient’s pulse drops below 60 bpm
B. The patient’s systolic blood pressure falls below 100mmHG
C. The patient has 3 or more doses of Nitroglycerin already administered
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Urticaria on
its own is not an indication for administering Epinephrine (pg. 31)
A. True
B. False
True
. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; The correct dose
of ASA is: (pg. 34)
A. 1 x 80 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
B. 2 x 80 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
C. 2 x 40 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
D. None of the above
B. 2 x 80 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 4, CPR Guidelines; the correct
number of compressions for Child two rescuer CPR is ______. (Pg. 39)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
B) 15
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 4, CPR Guidelines; the correct
number of compressions for Adult two rescuer CPR is ______. (pg. 39)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
D) 30
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 4, CPR Guidelines; how often should
you switch out for CPR? (pg. 39)
A) Every 2 min
B) As needed
C) Every 4 min
D) When the firefighter is showing signs of exhaustion
A) Every 2 min
. The correct ratio of compressions to ventilation for two-rescuer adult CPR is: (Pg. 39 )
A) 15 to 1
B) 5 to 1
C) 30 to 2
D) 5 to 2
C) 30 to 2
- According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 5, Neonatal Resuscitation; which of
the following is correct for Neonatal Resuscitation Protocol? (pg. 42)
A) Assess neonate for the presence of meconium, breathing, crying, good muscle
tone and colour.
B) Dry, stimulate and reposition the airway
C) If HR < 60 despite adequate oxygenation and ventilation, continue to provide
positive pressure ventilation and administer chest compressions at a ratio of 3:1
(compression/ventilation)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to MFES Medical Directives, There is a significant onus of moral and ethical
responsibility involved in practicing safe and responsible IPAC strategies that sits
squarely on the shoulders of each and every Firefighter in everything they do, the KEY to
infection control is ______? (pg. 52)
A. N95 Mask
B. Nitrile Gloves
C. You
D. None of the above
C. You
According MFES Medical Directive, there are two acceptable methods for hand hygiene
in the pre-hospital environments: (pg. 53)
A. Soap and Water
B. Alcohol Based Hand Rubs (ABHR) and Soap
C. Alcohol Based hands rub (ABHR) and soap and water.
D. Hand Sanitizer and Liquid Soap.
C. Alcohol Based hands rub (ABHR) and soap and water.
According to MFES Medical Directive, Appendix A. A Firefighter attends a medical call
where the patient has been symptomatic with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea for several
days. The Firefighter should be: (Pg. 57)
A. Aware that the environment around the patient may be contaminated.
B. Wearing medical gloves and performing hand-hygiene before and after use.
C. Ensuring all reusable equipment that was used is cleaned and disinfected before
reuse.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
According to MFES Medical Directive Appendix A, PPE is useless unless it is available,
functioning, easily accessible and worn properly.
T/F - It is the personal responsibility of the Firefighter to know and understand how and
when to use each piece of PPE per the policies and procedures of their service. (Pg. 59)
A. True
B. False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; The Firefighter is responsible for
his/her own personal safety and to work in compliance with the occupational health and
safety program of their institution. The Firefighter plays a key role in preventing
exposures to communicable disease in both themselves and the patients they serve.
Methods of exposure prevention include? (pg. 63)
A) Application of PPE
B) Distancing from patient
C) Being immunized
D) Practising proper, diligent hand hygiene
B) Distancing from patient
T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; It is the station Captains
responsibility to know what to do to prevent exposures to communicable diseases, and
how to respond if one occurs, for all his/her crew. (pg. 64)
A) True
B) False
False
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; when dealing with
communicable diseases, a firefighter shall (pg. 68)
A) Use all PPE provided in prescribed manner
B) Be aware of situations that could lead to potential exposure
C) In the event of exposure, complete the Exposure Report Form
D) Contact the Designated Officer
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; A patient who is undergoing
chemotherapy will break down the treatment in their body, which can then be passed
through urine.
A) True
B) False
True
According to MFES Medical Directive Opioid Overdose. Due to their effect on the part of
the brain which regulates breathing, opioids in high doses can cause respiratory
depression and death. An opioid overdose can be identified by a combination of three
signs and symptoms referred to as the “opioid overdose triad”. Which is NOT a
symptom of the triad: (pg.70 )
A. Pinpoint Pupils
B. Unconsciousness
C. Respiratory Depression
D. Increased Heart Rate
D. Increased Heart Rate
According to MFES Medical Directive Overdose Signs and Symptoms, First responders
may find themselves exposed to opioids during operational situations such as overdose
calls and other first responder duties. A person that has been exposed to opioids may
experience the following symptoms: (pg. 71 )
A. Respiratory distress, respiratory depression or arrest.
B. Reduced level or loss of consciousness
C. Limp body
D. Dizziness
E. Nausea/vomiting
F. All of the above
G. A and C
H. B, D and E
F. All of the above
According to MFES Medical Directive Naloxone, which is NOT the most common side
effect of naloxone by nasal spray? (Pg. 73)
A. Increased Blood Pressure
B. Musculoskeletal Pain
C. Nasal Dryness
D. Nasal Congestion
E. Dilated Pupil
E. Dilated Pupil
According to MFES Medical Directive on Oxygen Therapy, The Firefighter shall
administer oxygen therapy using an oxygen delivery system and flow rate to attempt to
maintain a patient’s oxygen saturation between: (Pg. 75)
A. 94% - 98%
B. 90% - 94%
C. 92% - 96%
D. 92% - 98%
C. 92% - 96%
T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C, Oxygen Therapy Standard;
continuous high concentration oxygen should be administered to a patient suffering
from sickle cell anemia with suspected vaso-occlusive crisis (pg. 75)
A) True
B) False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C, Oxygen Therapy Standard; the
max L/m of oxygen flow rate, must NOT exceed ____ when using a nasal cannula.
(pg. 75)
A) 4 L/m
B) 6 L/m
C) 8 L/m
D) 10 L/m
B) 6 L/m
. According to MFES Medical Directive on Spinal Motion Restriction (SMR), The Firefighter
shall consider spinal motion restriction (SMR) for any patient with a potential spine or
spinal cord injury, based on mechanism of injury, such as? Which is NOT considered a
mechanism of injury requiring SMR? (pg. 76)
A. Any trauma associated with complaints of neck or back pain.
B. Falls (e.g. Stairs)
C. Electrocution
D. Sports accidents
E. Second degree burn
F. Lightning strike
E. Second degree burn
T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix E, Spinal Motion Restriction
Standard (SMR); SMR should be considered on a patient suffering from an electrocution
and shows signs of neurologic signs and symptoms (pg. 76)
A) True
B) False
True
According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix E, Spinal Motion Restriction
Standard (SMR); which of the following meets the criterial to use a SMR? (pg. 76)
A) Neck & back pain
B) Altered level of consciousness
C) Suspected alcohol intoxication
D) A patient 66 years of age
E) Spine tenderness
F) A, B & E
G) All of the above
G) All of the above
. Looking for signs and symptoms of illness in the patient is an extremely important step
in the situational assessment. Signs are measured by mechanical means, such as blood
pressure or temperature. Symptoms are physical changes in the body usually observed
by the Firefighter or reported by the patient, which can include? (Pg. 56)
A. Fever
B. Chills
C. Swelling
D. Pain or redness
E. Nausea
F. All of the above
F. All of the above
T/F 3 symptoms of an opioid overdose are pinpoint pupils, unconsiousness, and respiratory depression.
True
After initiating an emergency alert tone on your radio, how many seconds does it create an open mic for.
a) 3 seconds
b) 5 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) 30 seconds
c) 10 seconds
T/F After initiating a MAYDAY, the acronym LIP stands for location, identification, and problem.
True
According to MFES policy O2 Oxygen Therapy Standards, What level must a person be to provide oxygen therapy.
A) 96%
B) 94%
C) below 92%
D) above 92%
c) below 92%
According to MFES Emergency Light Policy 03-03-027 we respond with emergency lights to all calls except:
a) structure fire
b) medical
c) elevator with medical
d) bomb threat
d) bomb threat
According to corporate policies on conflict of interest; which of the follow statements is incorrect:
a) gifts for speaking engagements can be accepted
b) cash can be accepted
c) if a conflict of interest cannot be avoided, it must be declared
d) hospitality gifts can be accepted if less than $50 and doesn’t occur frequently from the same indvidual or party
b) cash can be accepted
Color Codes
Yellow ___________
Blue _____________
Orange ___________
Red ______________
Green ___________
Pink ____________
Yellow - extra caution
Blue - suicide or attemptd
Orange - comunicable disease
Red - police emergency
Green - grow lab
Pink - infant VSA
T/F Officers can use code red to ensure police respond faster to calls requesting their assistance.
False
Building Construction
Type 1
Fire resistive
Building Construction
Type 2
Non-combust
Building Construction
Type 3
Ordinary
Building Construction
Type 4
Heavy Timber
Building Construction
Type 5
Wood frame
T/F If the situation warrants crowd control measures such as using hoses and steams at 250 KPA if done carefully.
False
As per medical directives Spinal Motion Restriction (SMR) should be used for:
a) trauma with complaints of back or neck pain
b) sports accidents
c) falls
d) pedestrian struck
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
According to MFES o2 Oyxgen Therapy Standard, which of the below steps are incorrect when dealing with a patient who has COPD.
a) provide nasal canula 2L above home oxygen
b) reassess vitals every 10 mins
c) or crease o2 increments of 2L every 2-3 mins not exceeding 6L
d) put defib pads on to prepare for the patient going VSA
d) put defib pads on to prepare for the patient going VSA
According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. When operating inside a structure you should be scanning 6 sides. These 6 sides include:
a) left, right
b) up, bottom
c) front, behind
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. Which of the following is correct when obersving the contrast of the TIC?
a) the higher heat, the more contrast you will see
b) white represents most heat in the field of view
c) black represents the coldest objects in the field of view
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. You are checking in the TIC and start up screen does not turn to the operational mode with temperature bar and battery icon, what should you do first?
a) tag the TIC for repair
b) shut off and on to reboot
c) contact stores for replacement
d) have your officer notify the DC and get a spare
b) shut off and on to reboot
According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. A quick check with the TIC provides the firefighter with what information.
A) victim location
B) fire location /severity
C) room size and configuration
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
For ventilation at a normal sized window, where should the tip of the ladder be placed?
a)underneath window sill
b)in line with the top of the window on the windward side
c)3-5 rungs above sill
d)in line with the top of the window on the leeward side
b) in line with the top of the window on the windward side
Which of the following is correct about ladder raises?
a) always carry ladder with butt section toward fire
b) identify stable ground to put butt down avoid soggy or depressed ground areas
c) check for overhead obstructions
d) never lose eye contact and or control of the ladder at any time while raising and lowering
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
Which of the follow is not a ladder part of MFES ladder inventory?
a) 35” extension ladder
b) 17” extension ladder
c) folding ladder
d) step ladder
b) 17” extension ladder
Which of the following statements about laddering is incorrect?
a) it is important to understand capabilities and limitiations of the ground ladders
b) ground ladders must be deployed at every structure fire to be prepared for a firefighters reactive response to dangerous fire condtions
c) aerial ladder deployment for the purpose of rescue of an occupant is faster and more efficent than ground ladders
d) firefighters in distress will have a reactive response to deteriorating condtions
c) aerial ladder deployment for the purpose of rescue of an occupant is faster and more efficent than ground ladders
According to MFES SOG NO 03-06-049 Auto Extrication. MFES suppression personnel at a MVC response will perform the following functions except:
a) provide fire protection and hazard control
b) provide advanced life support to patients
c) disentangle entrapped occupants
d) assist ambulance personnel in patient removal
e) try to preserve evidence
b) provide advanced life support to patients
According to MFES policy on confined space. Confined space is defined as one or more of the following conditions:
a) hazardous atmosphere
b) engulfing type material
c) inward sloping or tapered walls or floors
d) any recognized serious safety or health hazard
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
According to MFES clandestine drug lab policy. MFES will provide support at calls for clandestine labs. This support may consist of all actions below except:
a) RIT crew for operations for entry personnel
b) air quality monitroing
c) lead entry team
d) porivde info on chemicals that are suspected or discorved in lab
e) decon of entry personnel
c) lead entry team
T/F MFES WFI commite promotes values of personal health through: education, training, and prevention.
True
T/F WFI program has five main components that take a holistic approach to health they include: medical, physical fitness, rehab, beahvioral health, and data collection/reporting.
True
T/F the WFI program is punitive and relies on mandatory compliance.
False
T/F Personal fitness equipment brought into the station requires approval from the WFI commitee or the head shift STI.
True
As per MFES policy on vacation selection VHR (vacation by the hour) employess can take time off in the following blocks:
a) 2, 4, 8, and 12
b) 4, 6, 8, and 12
c) 6, 12, and 18
d) 6, 8, 12, and 16
c) 6, 12, and 18
T/F Vacation carry over (VCO) employees can carry over a maximum of 3 vacation days per calendar year.
False - correct awnser is 2
T/F all personnel in bunker gear or without water rescue PPE operating in the hazard zone must be tied off to a secure anchor for fall protection from the water.
True
Communications between rescuers at water rescue incidents should be maintained through which of the following methods:
a) radio
b) verbally
c) whistles
d) hand signals
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
T/F Evacuation of a seriously injured firefighter at a violent incident takes priority over all other activities at incidents involving violence.
True
T/F The control of crowds at a fire scene is a MFES function and shall be attempted by firefighters.
False
As per MFES policy on vehicle fire tactics the apparatus should be placed:
a) downhill and downwind when possible
b) uphill and upwind of incident and as a barrier to the scene
b) uphill and upwind of incident and as a barrier to the scene
As per MFES policy on fire attack for vehicle fires, firefighters should employ all of the following tactics except:
a) approach uphill and upwind (if possible)
b) approach the vehicle on a 45
c) rescue a person if they are in the vehicle
d) have a backup line to protect fire attack crew
c) rescue a person if they are in the vehicle
T/F Do not park or stop apparatus on or within 5 meters of railway tracks.
True
T/F According to the policy on shutting down turbo charged engines you should allow the engine to idle for approximately two minutes before backing into the station.
True
According to MFES policy on trench rescue, how is a trench defined?
a) an excavation with a depth less than the width
b) an excavation with a depth greater than the width
c) any excavation deeper than 6 feet (1.8 meters)
d) an excavation without shoring
b) an excavation with a depth greater than the width
What is the primary cause of trench collapses?
a) heavy machinery near trenches
b) poor air quality in trenches
c) unstable soil conditions and lack of proper shoring
d) excessive depth of the trench
c) unstable soil conditions and lack of proper shoring
What is the minimum number of technician level trained firefighters required to respond to a trench rescue incident?
a) none
b) one
c) two
d) three
b) one
Which personnel are allowed to perform tecnhical duties like placing shoring equipment in a trench rescue?
a) awareness level
b) the district chief
c) only the trench rescue team
d) the first arriving officer
c) only the trench rescue team
When should ventilation of the trench be intiated?
a) after arrival of the trench rescue team
b) after securing a responsible party
c) as soon as possible
d) only if air quality tests fail
c) as soon as possible
MFES trucks “out of service response” examples include everything below except:
a) training activities
b) vehicle change over
c) mechnical reasons
d) if the crew has been too busy and is taking a break
d) if the crew has been too busy and is taking a break
T/F Time on scene notifications will begin at 10 - minute intervals.
True
Time on scene notifications will be used under the following circumstances except:
a) structure fires
b) special operations incidents
c) if captain requires it
d) at medicals where the crew will be stuck waiting for EMS crews
d) at medicals where the crew will be stuck waiting for EMS crews
T/F After daily check in of the TIC it should be returned to basic mode
technical rope rescue policy
True
According to MFES SOG No: 03-03-048 Highway and Roadway Incidents, the greatest risk to personnel occurs during which phase(s) of Traffic Management:
A) Set-up
B) Operations
C) Takedown
D) Both A and C
D) Both A and C
According to MFES SOG No: 03-03-048 Highway and Roadway Incidents,
A) All crew members shall only don their helmet prior to commencing on scene work
B) Firefighters should exit the fire apparatus on the untraveled side of traffic flow
C) Firefighters may walk across high-speed traffic lanes to access involved vehicles
D) Crews may cross the highway divider (Jersey Wall) to access vehicles involved in the opposite direction of travel
B) Firefighters should exit the fire apparatus on the untraveled side of traffic flow
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, What are the dangers of a hybrid/electric vehicle
A) High voltage batteries will leak dangerous amounts of fluids if damaged.
B) Risk of electrocution by touching an HEV/EV involved in a crash or when it is submerged.
C) It is difficult to disable the HV (High voltage) electrical safety system.
D) The engine makes no noise
E) All of the above
D) The engine makes no noise
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, How much of the golden hour does the patient really have?
A) 30 mins
B) 35 mins
C) 45 mins
D) 60 mins
C) 45 mins
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, Glass, Gas, Fire, & Wire are apart of what?
A) The life cycle of an auto extrication.
B) Scene stabilization
C) The Golden hour
D) New vehicle technology
B) Scene Stabilization
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, With a 12 volt car battery, what do you disconnect/cut first?
A) Negative (Black)
B) Positive (Red)
C) It doesnt matter which you cut first.
D) Never disconnect a car battery
A) Negative (Black)
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, What are the benchmarks in the life cycle of an auto extrication?
A) Arrival, Scene Size-Up, Vehicle Stabilization
B) Scene Size-Up, Vehicle Stabilization, Patient Treatment
C) Scene Stabilization, Patient Treatment, Call Termination
D) Scene Stabilization, Patient Access, Patient Removal
D) Scene Stabilization, Patient Access, Patient Removal
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, The main priorities of a first in fire truck to an MVC include:
A) The scene should be stabilized
B) Vehicle should be cribbed
C) Fire should have patient contact
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
D) All of the above
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, when building box cribbing, it his important not to go higher than ___ times its footprint.
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
B) 2
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, a typical softwood MFES 4 x 4 block can hold _________ lbs at each point of solid contact.
A) 15,000 pounds
B) 10,000 pounds
C) 8,000 pounds
D) 6000 pounds
D) 6000 pounds
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, a typical softwood MFES 6 x 6 block can hold _________ lbs at each point of solid contact.
A) 15,000 pounds
B) 10,000 pounds
C) 8000 pounds
D) 6000 pounds
A) 15,000 pounds
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, how much weight would a 2 by 2 box crib with 4 points of contact hold using MFES 4 x 4 softwood?
A) 6,000 pounds
B) 24,000 pounds
C) 54,000 pounds
D) 15,000 pounds
B) 24,000 pounds
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, how much weight would a 3 by 3 box crib with 9 points of contact hold using MFES 6 x 6 softwood?
A) 15,000 pounds
B) 24,000 pounds
C) 60,000 pounds
D) 135,000 pounds
D) 135,000 pounds
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, which types of glass can be found on vehicles in 2022?
A) tempered
B) Laminated
C) Enhanced protective glass (EPV)
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, what is the protective action distance for side curtains, knee bolsters & passenger protection air bags?
A) 5 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 15 inches
D) 20 Inches
A) 5 inches
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, what is the protective action distance for driver’s side air bags?
A) 5 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 15 inches
D) 20 Inches
B) 10 inches
According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, what is the protective action distance for passengers side air bags?
A) 5 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 15 inches
D) 20 Inches
D) 20 inches
