Class 1 Exam

Question 1

According to Critical Incident Services, examples of a critical Incident and/or traumatic exent include

1. Events that seriously threaten a firefighters life
2. Personal identification with the victim or the circumstances
3. Mass cassualties
4. All of the above

Answer 1

All of the Above

Question 2

According to Critical incident serves, when a Critical Incident is identified, a peer support team member or any command office can recommend a debriefing. A request or notification will be made to?

1. The WFI co-Chairs
   2.Platoon chief or assistant Chief of operations and communications
2. Peer Support team coordination notified
3. Both 2 and 3

Answer 2

Both 2 and 3

Question 3

According to Employee Accident reporting, when an MFES member is injured while on duty, the member must report the incident as soon as possible to their

1. District Chief
2. Platoon Chief
3. Immediate supervisor
4. Employee Health services

Answer 3

Immediate supervisor

Question 4

According to employee Accident reporting, an injury may appear minor and medical aid is not required. if the injury or condition worsens, the employee should.

1. Seek medical aid
2. Report by telephone the details withing 24 hours to the assistant chief of operations or administration coordinator
3. Contact Employee Health services
4. Both 1 and 2
5. All of the above

Answer 4

both 1 and 2

Question 5

According to employee safety guidelines, MFES safe working practices include

1. Exercise situtational awareness
2. Report all unsafe conditions, faulty equipment etc… immediately to your supervisor
3. Always wear PPE where required
4. All of the above

Answer 5

All of the above

Question 6

According to MFES WFI, The WFI program has five main components that take a holistic approach to health.

1. medical,physical fitness,rehabilitation, couseliing, data collection and reporting
2. medical, physical fitness, nutrition, behavioural health, data collection and reporting
3. NFPA 1583, physical fitness, rehabilitation, behavioural health, data collection and reporting
4. medical, physical fitness, rehabilitation, behavioural health, data collection and reporting

Answer 6

medical, physical fitness, rehabilitation, behacioural health, data collection and reporting

Question 7

according to MFES violence related incident response, violent incidents are any incidents where MFES personal can be exposed to harm as a resoult of violent or threatening acts
1. drug related situations
2. family disturbances
3. violent incidents at schools
4. people interfering with MFES operations
5. All of the above

Answer 7

5. all of the above

Question 8

According to MFES emergency alert tones and emergency button use, which of the following is correct when resetting an emergency butoon activation on a portable radio
1. the radio is reset by communications when the emergency is stood down or activation was accidental
2. the incident commanders radio can reset the emergency when standing down an emergency button activation
3. the radio is quickly turned on and off to reset
4. the radio that intitiated the emergency must be reset by the operator by holding down the emergency button until the radio indicates it has been reset

Answer 8

4. the radio that intitiated the emergency must be reset by the operator by holding down the emergency button until the radio indicates it has been reset

Question 9

According to MFES safe driving program, which of the following statements about safe dirving practices is incorrect?
1. Headlights do not need to be turned on when flashing lights and light bars are activated
2. posted speed limits may be exceeded when responding to emergencies, providing conditions are such that higher speeds may be accomplished safely
3. Drivers shall exercise extreme caution when approaching intersections, reducing speed to the posted speed limit and being prepared to stop to avoid collisions and for red traffic signals
4. Regardless of speed or driving conditions, adequate stopping distances shall be maintained at all times

Answer 9

1. Headlights do not need to be turned on when flashing lights and light bars are activated

Question 10

According to MFES Backing up Fire Apparatus, during poor visibility from dusk to dawn, what tools would be useful for a spotter?
1. Hand Light
2. portable radio
3. Road flares
4. Both 1 and 2
5. All of the above

Answer 10

4. both 1 and 2

Question 11

According to MFES sector work cycles, work/rest cycle rotation of crews is based on an average working time of ____ mintues in the hazard zone on SCBA
1. 10 mins
2.15 mins
3. 20 mins
4. 30 mins

Answer 11

15 mins

Question 12

According to MFES Carbon monoxide resposes, during a Carbon monoxide call, MFES personall shal do everything except:
1. Wear full PPE
2. Attempt to confirm the existence of CO in the structure and eliminate any obvious causes
3. Allow residents to return to the structure
4. Recommend tha tthe resident contact the appropriate natural gas utility where appropriate and offer to assist the resident in this regard

Answer 12

3. Allow residents to return to the structure

Question 13

T/F according to MFES explossive device emergencies, the responseto an explosive device emergency is full lights, sirens and air horn for every incident
1. True
2. False

Answer 13

2. False

Question 14

According to MFES RIC, as proactive Ric during the inital size-up the RIC should identify
1. Locations where crews are deployed
2. secondary means of egress
3. Ladder locations for access and egress routes including roof operations
4. equipment assignments for RIC members
5. All of the above

Answer 14

5. All of the above

Question 15

According to MFES Air ambulance procedures and safety guidelines which of the following is incorrect when assisting the air crew?
1. Approach the helicopter with peel paramedics on arrival and assist the flight crew with exiting the aircraft
2. Always apporach the helicopter in full view of the pilot at a 90 degree angle from the side, never from the front or rear
3. carry equipement or at below waist level when approaching or departing the helicopter
4. personnel shall not signal the pilot when teh helicopter wheels will touch down

Answer 15

1. Approach the helicopter with peel paramedics on arrival and assist the flight crew with exiting the aircraft

Question 16

According to MFES NAtural Has incidents Repsonse, which of the following is incorrect?
1. Attempts to control the has leak shall be limited to turning off Valve(S) at the meter and inserting lockout pins
2. PPV ventialtion shall commence after securing the scene
3. If you turn off the wrong valve , leave it off as you may creat another problem
4. always ventialte high, then low as gas rises filling upper areas. Check attic and ventialte if necessary
5. use multi-gas detector to determine if any natural has has enetered exposures

Answer 16

2. PPV ventialtion shall commence after securing the scene

Question 17

According to MFES Emergency Light use, which of the following incident would not require lights, sirens and horns?

1. Wires down
2. public assitance Flooding
3. water flow alarm
4. elevator call with medical

Answer 17

2. Public assistance flooding

Question 18

According to MFES Safe roof Operations, Emergency roof operations are particularly hazardous tasks and both crew members and supervisors must have a ehightened degree of _____________ _________
1. concern and care
2. situational awareness
3. situational concern
4. spatial awarness

Answer 18

2. situational awareness

Question 19

According to MFES infection control program, ___________ is use of physical or chemical means to remove, innactivate or destory blood borne, airborne or food borne pathogens on a surface or item to the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectios particles and the surface or item is rendered afe for handling, use or disposal.
1. Cleaning
2. Decontamintation
3. disinfection

Answer 19

2. decontamintation

Question 20

According to MFES dust collection/ hopper systems when openings have not been provided and access is need, this shall be done with caution and remotely. which of the following minimizes the exposure to personnel by using:
1. Aerial ladders
2. Ladders
3. Pike poles
4. Rope
5. All of the above

Answer 20

5. All of the above

Question 21

According to MFEs mayday procedures Appendix A, Which of the following is not a situation that may require mergency traffic?

1. Open holes in floor
2. A firefighter who is low on air and cannot find an exit
3. building collapse
4. potential explosion
5. rapid fire spread

Answer 21

2. A Firefighter who is low on air and cannot find an exit

Question 22

T/F according to MFES Air horn activation signal, if a vehicle is endangered by the situation, the crew of the vehicle shall report to the next closest vehicle that is positioned in a safe location
1. True
2. False

Answer 22

1. True

Question 23

According to MFES post fire watch, the posit fire watch policy applies to all of the following except:

1. incidents where fire has extended into the structure
2. incidents where extension into an area containing cellulose fibre insulation is possible
3. any incident where complete overhaul is difficult and rekinlde may be a concern
4. incidents where fire has been contained to room and contents
5. incidents in structures with void areas due to remodeling/ renovations

Answer 23

4. Incidents where fire has been contained to room and contents

Question 24

According to MFEs highway and roadway incidents, the blocker vehicle shall set up a buffer zone of ___ meters upstream from the scene apparatus.
1.20 meters
2. 30 meters
3. 50 meters
4. 60 meters

Answer 24

5. 60 meters

Question 25

According to corporate policy respectful workplace; workplace harrasment and workplace sexual harassment are not defined by intent, but rather by how the behaviour. behaviours which constitue workplace harrassment and workplace sexual harrassment include, but are not limited to :

1. bullying
2. behavious which create an environment which is hostile or offensive or which contribute to a posoned work environment
3. comments such as innapproriate jokes, psychological abuse, name- calling
4. all of the above

Answer 25

4. all of the above

Question 26

According to Corporate Policy, Standard behaviour, examples of unnacceptable behaviour include:
1.Failure to disclose conflict of interest
2. insolence and/or insubordination
3. Violence in the workplace
4. all of the above

Answer 26

4. all of the above

Question 27

According to corporate policy access to and acceptable use of information technology resource; IT users are expected to exercise __________ ________ when using IT resources and to ensure they are used appropriately

1. Reckless Abandon
2. Appropriate Care
3. Good Judgment
4. Careless Disregard

Answer 27

3. Good Judgment

Question 28

T/F According to Corporate Workplace violence, threats of violence that occur by way of electronic communication will be considered to have occurred in the workplace if directed to or from Employees and where such conduct may reasonably be expected to have an impact on work relationships, work environment and/ or performace.

1. True
2. False

Answer 28

1. True

Question 29

T/F according to corporate Policy conflict of interest Q&A document; Taking a few customer calls while at work for your own small business is acceptable.
1. True
2. False

Answer 29

2. False

Question 30

T/F According to corporate policy Respectful Work place; Incidients that occur by way of electronic communication ( e.g unwelcome phone calls, voice mail,messages on email or other social media and the display of offensive materials on computers, smartphone or other devices) are considered to have occured in the workplace if directed to or from Employees and where such conduct may reasonably be expected to have an impact on work relationships, work environment and/ or performance

1. True
2. False

Answer 30

1. True

Question 31

According to the guidelines for acceptable use of IT resources document, what should you bot be doing when using your city of Mississauga email account?

1. Send or Forward information which is, or may be offensive or disruptive and derogatory or disruptive
2. send or forward e-mail and attachments with confidential City information regarding employee or Citizens personal information
3. send or forward email to your home computer or personal email account, such as hotmail or gmail.
4. all of the above
5. only 1 and 2 are correct

Answer 31

4. All of the above

Question 32

According to Corporate Policy conflict of interest; if the employee is in doubt if their particular situation is not covered in this policy, the employee should ask his or her ___________ for assistance
1. councillor
2. steward
3.supervisor
4. mayor

Answer 32

3. Supervisor

Question 33

According to Coprorate policy respectful workplace; bullying is behaviour by a person or group which intimidates or demeans another person and includes, but is not limited to the following, except:
1. abuse of power
2. Humiliation and embarrassment
3. Justified criticism
4. exclusion and or isolation
5. threats, Rumours/ Gossip

Answer 33

3. Justified criticism

Question 34

According to Corporate Policy Workplace Violence, the city of Mississauga is commited to providing a safe workplace, free of all of the folling except

1. Actual violence
2. Perceived violence
3. Attempted violence
4. Threatened violence

Answer 34

2. Perceived violence

Question 35

According to the MFES Medical directives, section 1 PPE is designated to create a barrier between the firefigter and hazards in the environment . which of these statements about ppe is incorrect?

1. PPE must be chosen based on a critical assessment of the potential and actual risks of communicable disease exposure present in the situation
2. PPE must always be worn correctly and be in good working order as per manufacturer’s instructions
3. PPE can be put on and off in any order. There is no sequence to ensure minimal risk of incorrect wear and accidental self- contamination
4. reusable PPE, such as forms of eye protection must be cleaned and disinfected after every use as per manufacturer’s instructions

Answer 35

3. PPE can be put on and off in any order. There is no sequence to ensure minimal risk of incorrect wear and accidental self- contamination

Question 36

According to the MFES medical directives defibrullation; the following patients are not excluded by the defibrillation standing order

1. the patient is less than 1 year old
2. the patient has a penetrating chest wound
3. the patient exhibits obvious signs of death
4. the patient has a valid DNR

Answer 36

2. the patient has a penetrating chest wound

Question 37

According to the MFES medical directives defibrillation; after a return of a pulse firefighters should:
1. turn off the AED. Assess the airway and breathing and provide appropriate patient care
2. do not remove AED pads, as there is a possibility the patient may re-arrest
3. reasses the patient for a loss of pulse every 45-60 seconds by preforming a 10 second carotid pulse check
4. if no palpable carotid pulse is present, turn AED on and follow AED prompts
5. all of the above

Answer 37

5. all of the above

Question 38

according the the MFES medical directives, sympton assist; exclusions for administering Naloxone include all statement below except for:
1. patient has an allergy to naloxone
2. you have the ability to adequately venti;ate the patient and SP02 >- 92 %
3. PAtient is >- 12 years of age
4. patient has a valid DNR refusing the use of opiod antagonists
5. patient is VSA

Answer 38

3. Patient is >- 12 years of age

Question 39

According to the MFES medical directives CPR guidelines; the correct number of compressions of child two rescuer CPR is _____
1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 30

Answer 39

2. 15

Question 40

According to the MFES medical Directives neonatal resuscitation; ventilation rates for neonatal Resuscitation is between;
1. 20-40 ventilations per minute
2. 25-45 ventilations per minute
3. 35-50 ventilations per minute
4. 40-60 ventilations per minute

Answer 40

4. 40-60 ventilations per minute

Question 41

According to the MFES medical Directives, appendix A; the Personal Protection Strategy model for infection Prevention and Control; before giving medical care, all Firefighters are encouraged to ask all patients the following questions, which of these is not a referenced question to ask?
1. if they have a new or worsening cough
2. if they have just reutned from the hospital
3. if they have nausea, vomiting or diarrhea from a distance of at least 2 meters back
4. if they have a fever

Answer 41

2. if They have just returned from the hospital

Question 42

According to the MFES medical directives; the personal protection strategy model for infection prevention and control; personnel shall not do the following until properly washed from a medical call:
1. eat
2. drink
3.smoke
4. allow hands to come in contact with face, especially the mouth and nose area
5. all of the above

Answer 42

5.all of the above

Question 43

according to the MFEs medical directives; responding to opiod overdose; which answer regarding you PPE is correctre
1. Ensure you are wearing all required PPE gloves, n95 respurator and eye protection
2. do not approach or touch the person without appropriate PPE
3. do not handle the suspected drugs and wrappers or paraphernalia, they maycontain highly toxic substances such as dangerous opiods
4. all of the above

Answer 43

4. all of the above

Question 44

according to the the MFES DNR order, MFES personeel are obligated to provide emergency care to all patients who require. which of the following exceptions for this is correct?
1. Patients displaying obvious signs of death care
2. a higher medical authority takes over patient
3. a valid DNR is provided has capacity and consent is not given
4. where a patient has capacity and consent is not given
5. all of the above

Answer 44

5. all of the above

Question 45

T/F according to MFES DNR order if the patient has a valid DNR and MFES is requested to leave the patient or premises, MFES personnel shall leave the patient or premise
1. True
2. False

Answer 45

1. True

Question 46

According to the supplemtal medical manual, care for serious head spinal injuries include:
1. Place the patient in the rapid transport category
2. intiate SMR
3. Control any external bleeding
4. monitor responsiveness and prepare to provide interventions for respiratory or cardiac issues
5. all of the above

Answer 46

5. all of the above

Question 47

T/F according to the supplemental medical manual, the scoop and manta will be utilized more often due to their ability to be removed once the patient is placed on the stretcher
1.true
2. false

Answer 47

1. true

Question 48

According to the supplemental medical manual, a fracture in the lower leg may involve:
1. radius
2. femur
3. ulna
4. fibula

Answer 48

4. fibula

Question 49

according to the supplemental medical manual, when estimating the extent of a burn, a burn on the anterior side of the torso in an adult would ne worth __ percentage
1. 4.5
2. 9
3. 18
4. 36

Answer 49

3. 18

Question 50

according to the supplemental medical manual, the number one cause of preventable death in victims of penetrating trauma from an active shooter is _______
1. cardiac arrest
2. hemorrhage
3. ashpyxia
4. shock

Answer 50

2. hemorrhage

Question 51

according to the supplemental medical manual, you are sorting patients at a mass Casualty incident using SALT triage. which group of individuals will be your first priority for individual assessment?
1. Patients who can walk to a designated area you direct them to
2. Patients who can only move their arm or leg when responding to commands
3. Patients not responding to commands
4. Patients obviously deceased

Answer 51

3. Patients not responding to Commands

Question 52

According to the supplemental medical manual, which of the following golden rules of EMR Assisting with Self- Administered medications is most correct?
1. Assess the environment for any obvious and potential hazards to the patients and responders
2. intiate critical interventions FIRST including oxygen administration if required
3. a proper history and phyiscal assesment are essential
4. ensure medications belongs (prescribed) to the patient (except in the use of naloxone)
5. all of the above

Answer 52

5. all of the above

Question 53

T/F according to the supplemental medical, if you need a third nitro spray, you must wait 5 minutes after the second spray and no more than 3 sprays should be given within 15 minutes
1. True
2. False

Answer 53

1. Truse

Question 54

True or False: Firefighters are required to perform a vector change after three consecutive analyses showing a shockable rhythm if Paramedics have not made patient contact.

Answer 54

True

Question 55

True or False: Patients under the age of 18 are eligible for the vector change protocol

Answer 55

False

Question 56

True or False: High-quality CPR is only performed before the first analysis in the vector change protocol

Answer 56

False

Question 57

True or False: A patient found in a non-shockable rhythm is contraindicated for the vector change protocol

Answer 57

True

Question 58

True or False: The firefighter must continue high-quality CPR during a vector change.

Answer 58

True

Question 59

What is the minimum age for a patient to qualify for this protocol?
A. 12 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. Any age

Answer 59

B 18 years

Question 60

When is a vector change performed?
A. After the first analysis showing a shockable rhythm
B. After three consecutive analyses showing a shockable rhythm
C. Only if the Paramedics instruct the firefighter to do so
D. Never

Answer 60

B. After three consecutive analyses showing a shockable rhythm

Question 61

Which of the following is a contraindication for the vector change protocol?
A. The patient is ≥18 years old
B. The patient is found in a shockable rhythm
C. The patient is found in a non-shockable rhythm
D. The patient remains in a shockable rhythm for three analyses

Answer 61

C. The patient is found in a non-shockable rhythm

Question 62

What action should firefighters take between the third and fourth analyses having shocks on all three analyses?
A. Stop CPR
B. Perform a vector change
C. Wait for Paramedics to arrive
D. Perform defibrillation without CPR

Answer 62

B. Perform a vector change

Question 63

What is required between each analysis of a shockable rhythm?
A. High-quality CPR for 1 minute
B. High-quality CPR for 2 minutes
C. Immediate defibrillation
D. Vector change

Answer 63

B. High-quality CPR for 2 minutes

Question 64

True or False: During a vector change, firefighters should place a new (red) pad on the patient’s left upper back and a new (purple) pad on the patient’s left chest.

Answer 64

True

Question 65

What is the correct sequence of actions during a vector change?
A. Stop compressions immediately and apply new pads
B. Perform 30 compressions and 2 breaths, then place new pads in the Anterior/Posterior position
C. Place both new pads on the patient’s chest without performing compressions
D. Wait for Paramedics to arrive before continuing

Answer 65

B. Perform 30 compressions and 2 breaths, then place new pads in the Anterior/Posterior position

Question 66

What must firefighters do with the original pads during a vector change?
A. Leave them in place for future use
B. Move them to a different location on the chest
C. Remove and discard them after plugging in the new pads
D. Store them for Paramedics to reuse

Answer 66

C. Remove and discard them after plugging in the new pads

Question 67

True or False: Ornge helicopters are permitted to respond to any landing site at night, regardless of approval.

Answer 67

False

Question 68

Where will Ornge helicopters respond to at night?
A. Any open field
B. Only to heliports, airports, and company-approved landing sites
C. Public roads with adequate lighting
D. Any location with a marked landing zone

Answer 68

B. Only to heliports, airports, and company-approved landing sites

Question 69

What is required for an Ornge helicopter to land at night?
A. Clear weather conditions
B. An unlit open space
C. Approval of the landing site by the company
D. Permission from local authorities

Answer 69

C. Approval of the landing site by the company

Question 70

True or False: The landing zone for a helicopter must have a radius of at least 150 feet (45 meters).

Answer 70

True

Question 71

True or False: Security tape is an acceptable method to mark the helicopter landing zone.

Answer 71

False

Question 72

Which of the following actions should be taken to secure a helicopter landing zone?
A. Place vehicles within the landing zone to create a boundary
B. Hose down dusty areas to prevent a visibility issue during landing
C. Mark the landing zone with security tape
D. Allow personnel in the landing zone until the helicopter is about to land

Answer 72

B. Hose down dusty areas to prevent a visibility issue during landing

Question 73

When must vehicles and personnel clear the landing zone?
A. As soon as the helicopter begins its descent
B. At least 3 minutes before the helicopter’s estimated arrival or when directed by the flight crew
C. Only after the helicopter has landed
D. Only when the pilot explicitly requests it

Answer 73

B. At least 3 minutes before the helicopter’s estimated arrival or when directed by the flight crew

Question 74

True or False: MFES personnel are allowed to travel on restricted airport property (Airside) without an authorized escort during airport emergencies.

Answer 74

False

Question 75

True or False: Aircraft movement, including take-off and landing, may continue during serious airport emergencies.

Answer 75

True

Question 76

What must MFES personnel do when dispatched to airport emergencies?
A. Enter restricted airport property (Airside) without escort
B. Follow the instructions of Incident Command (IC) or the assigned escort
C. Stop all aircraft movement immediately
D. Position vehicles anywhere deemed convenient

Answer 76

B. Follow the instructions of Incident Command (IC) or the assigned escort

Question 77

When can MFES personnel enter restricted airport property (Airside)?
A. Only during take-off and landing
B. When granted access by the airport tower
C. Only under an authorized escort
D. During emergencies without restrictions

Answer 77

C. Only under an authorized escort

Question 78

True or False: MFES generally requires two spotters to safely back up apparatus, and they must be MFES personnel.

Answer 78

True

Question 79

Why are other personnel (e.g., police or paramedics) not suitable as spotters for MFES apparatus?
A. They are not authorized by the Incident Command
B. They are not familiar with MFES apparatus or procedures
C. They do not have proper safety equipment
D. They are too busy with their own duties

Answer 79

B. They are not familiar with MFES apparatus or procedures

Question 80

True or False: If two spotters are not available, the driver must perform a 360-degree risk assessment and use one spotter at the rear of the vehicle.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

What is the first action a driver must take when reversing a fire apparatus without a spotter?
A. Roll down the driver’s window
B. Honk the horn
C. Perform a 360-degree walk around the vehicle
D. Reverse slowly

Answer 81

C. Perform a 360-degree walk around the vehicle

Question 82

Which precaution is NOT required when a driver is reversing a fire apparatus without a spotter?
A. Honking the horn prior to reversing
B. Activating the headlights, emergency lights, and 4-way flashers
C. Performing a 360-degree risk assessment
D. Using two spotters at the rear of the vehicle

Answer 82

D. Using two spotters at the rear of the vehicle

Question 83

True or False: Cellulose fibre insulation fires typically follow a specific and predictable pattern.

Answer 83

False

Question 84

What is a key characteristic of fire spread in cellulose fibre insulation?
A. It spreads vertically and is easily detectable
B. It spreads horizontally and often goes undetected
C. It ignites and extinguishes quickly
D. It cannot harbour smouldering embers

Answer 84

B. It spreads horizontally and often goes undetected

Question 85

To what distance beyond the room’s perimeter must cellulose insulation be removed?
A. One meter
B. Two meters
C. Three meters
D. Only to the edge of visible fire damage

Answer 85

B. Two meters

Question 86

Why must cellulose insulation be removed beyond the perimeter of the room(s) involved?
A. To reduce the weight on the structure
B. To ensure no hidden fire or smouldering embers remain
C. To allow for proper ventilation of the space
D. To inspect the building’s framework

Answer 86

B. To ensure no hidden fire or smouldering embers remain

Question 87

True or False: Individuals with a suspended, downgraded, or revoked DZ driver’s license must report it immediately to their Supervisor.

Answer 87

True

Question 88

For what reasons must a DZ driver’s license issue be reported?
A. Suspension, downgrade, or revocation
B. Renewal of the license
C. Obtaining a new vehicle assignment
D. Change in personal address

Answer 88

A. Suspension, downgrade, or revocation

Question 89

What color is the Personal Identification Tag (PIT) used in the incident accountability system?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow

Answer 89

C. Green

Question 90

True or False: The Personal Identification Tag (PIT) system is used to account for all personnel at an incident.

Answer 90

True

Question 91

True or False: The red Personal Identification Tag (PIT) system is used to track the location and function of all personnel in a hazard zone.

Answer 91

True

Question 92

What is the purpose of the red Personal Identification Tag (PIT) system in Entry Control?
A. To monitor equipment usage in the hazard zone
B. To track the location and/or function of personnel in a hazard zone
C. To identify vehicles assigned to the hazard zone
D. To log communications from the hazard zone

Answer 92

B. To track the location and/or function of personnel in a hazard zone

Question 93

True or False: When responding to a gas leak, MFES personnel must ensure the Gas Company is notified and all vehicles are staged at a safe distance from the leak.

Answer 93

True

Question 94

True or False: It is acceptable for responders to squeeze off a ruptured gas line if no other method to stop the leak is available.

Answer 94

False

Question 95

What action must responders take when managing a gas leak?
A. Lay a 45mm pre-connect line
B. Secure a water supply and lay a minimum of one charged 65mm pre-connect line
C. Use an uncharged 65mm pre-connect line for easy movement
D. Wait until the Gas Company arrives before laying any lines

Answer 95

B. Secure a water supply and lay a minimum of one charged 65mm pre-connect line

Question 96

True or False: If carbon monoxide levels exceed 25 ppm, the house must be vacated, and the Gas Company must be called.

Answer 96

True

Question 97

What action is recommended if carbon monoxide levels are below 25 ppm?
A. Vacate the house immediately and call the Gas Company
B. Confirm the owner has a CO accumulation problem and strongly advise they call the Gas Company if fired appliances are present
C. Take no action as the levels are considered safe
D. Open windows and doors and wait for levels to naturally decrease

Answer 97

B. Confirm the owner has a CO accumulation problem and strongly advise they call the Gas Company if fired appliances are present

Question 98

Who are the most susceptible to the effects of carbon monoxide exposure?
A. Young adults and healthy individuals
B. Athletes and physically active persons
C. People in poor health, the elderly, children, and pregnant individuals
D. Individuals living in urban areas

Answer 98

C. People in poor health, the elderly, children, and pregnant individuals

Question 99

True or False: At a dust collector or hopper fire, a water supply must be secured, and a minimum of two 45mm hand lines and one 65mm hand line must be charged and staffed at all times.

Answer 99

True

Question 100

True or False: The activation of a hopper’s fire suppression system may cause an explosion.

Answer 100

True

Question 101

What type of fire streams should be used when water is necessary for a hopper fire?
A. High velocity streams
B. Low velocity streams
C. Fog streams
D. Uncharged streams

Answer 101

B. Low velocity streams

Question 102

How many hand lines are required to be set up and staffed at a hopper fire?
A. One 45mm and one 65mm hand line
B. Two 45mm and one 65mm hand line
C. Three 45mm hand lines only
D. Two 65mm and one 45mm hand line

Answer 102

B. Two 45mm and one 65mm hand line

Question 103

What temperature qualifies as extreme cold weather conditions?
A. Minus 10 degrees
B. Minus 15 degrees
C. Minus 20 degrees
D. Minus 25 degrees

Answer 103

B. Minus 15 degrees

Question 104

True or False: Wind chill is considered in determining extreme cold weather conditions.

Answer 104

True

Question 105

True or False: A Fire Investigator/Inspector (FI) will be called to the scene if the fire loss exceeds $100,000.00 or the cause is uncertain.

Answer 105

True

Question 106

True or False: The OFMEM will engage MFES 24/7 for fires in vulnerable occupancies, fatal fires, serious injuries, and explosions.

Answer 106

True

Question 107

When should the Fire Chief or designate be notified of a fire?
A. For losses exceeding $100,000.00
B. For losses exceeding $150,000.00
C. Only for fire-related deaths or injuries
D. For any fire-related incident

Answer 107

B. For losses exceeding $150,000.00

Question 108

Which situations require immediate notification to the OFMEM?
A. Fires with minor injuries
B. All equipment malfunctions
C. Fatal fires, serious injuries, explosions, and fires in vulnerable occupancies
D. Fires in non-residential buildings

Answer 108

C. Fatal fires, serious injuries, explosions, and fires in vulnerable occupancies

Question 109

True or False: According to the Ontario Building Code, highrise buildings are defined as those with seven storeys or more, or where the highest floor level is more than 18 metres above grade.

Answer 109

True

Question 110

True or False: Residential highrise buildings typically have undivided open spaces similar to commercial highrises.

Answer 110

False

Question 111

True or False: HVAC systems in highrise buildings have the potential to recirculate smoke and toxic fire gases, potentially contaminating multiple floors.

Answer 111

True

Question 112

What is the defining feature of a highrise building according to the Ontario Building Code?
A. It must have at least five storeys
B. It must have sprinklers and a standpipe system
C. It must have seven storeys or a floor level more than 18 metres above grade
D. It must include both residential and commercial occupancies

Answer 112

C. It must have seven storeys or a floor level more than 18 metres above grade

Question 113

What is a typical characteristic of commercial highrise buildings?
A. Fire-rated walls separating offices
B. Open spaces with partitions extending to a hanging ceiling
C. Fire protection systems specific to residential use
D. Complete compartmentalization of all units

Answer 113

B. Open spaces with partitions extending to a hanging ceiling

Question 114

Which of the following systems in highrise buildings must firefighting crews be familiar with?
A. Standpipe systems
B. Firefighter elevators
C. HVAC and voice communication systems
D. All of the above

Answer 114

D. All of the above

Question 115

True or False: The first arriving aerial apparatus should always function as the fireground pumper, regardless of the situation.

Answer 115

False

Question 116

True or False: At a fire alarm activation, the driver/operator of the first arriving apparatus should locate the Fire Department Connection (FDC) and fire hydrant but should not pressurize the system until directed by the Incident Commander.

Answer 116

True

Question 117

True or False: When investigating a fire alarm, the first crew should initially proceed two floors below the alarm floor to establish staging and check conditions before advancing.

Answer 117

True

Question 118

What is the primary responsibility of the Captain and crew upon arriving at a highrise fire alarm activation?
A. Connect the apparatus to the FDC and pressurize it immediately
B. Respond to the annunciator panel to confirm the type and location of the alarm
C. Establish Lobby Sector and set up Entry Control
D. Perform an exterior fire attack immediately

Answer 118

B. Respond to the annunciator panel to confirm the type and location of the alarm

Question 119

If the first arriving apparatus is a Heavy Rescue, what should its role be?
A. Assume the fireground pumper role
B. Park out of the way and defer the fireground pumper role to the next arriving pumper
C. Immediately begin forcible entry
D. Begin the initial fire attack

Answer 119

B. Park out of the way and defer the fireground pumper role to the next arriving pumper

Question 120

When using elevators at a highrise fire, what must the crew do first?
A. Bring forcible entry tools to the fire floor
B. Proceed directly to the fire floor without stopping
C. Secure and ground the elevators, and assign an “Elevator Sector” equipped with SCBA and a portable radio
D. Use the elevators only after the fire has been confirmed extinguished

Answer 120

C. Secure and ground the elevators, and assign an “Elevator Sector” equipped with SCBA and a portable radio

Question 121

True or False: The Captain and crew of the second arriving apparatus should join the first arriving crew to assist with fire floor operations unless directed otherwise. (highrise fire)

Answer 121

True

Question 122

True or False: The second arriving crew’s objectives at a highrise fire include assisting with hose stretches, performing forcible entry, and conducting primary and secondary searches.

Answer 122

True

Question 123

What should the placement of the second arriving apparatus prioritize at a highrise fire?
A. Blocking vehicle traffic around the incident
B. Supporting the fireground pumper, including tandem pumping if required
C. Establishing a safe perimeter for bystanders
D. Acting as the primary incident command vehicle

Answer 123

B. Supporting the fireground pumper, including tandem pumping if required

Question 124

If the first arriving apparatus was an aerial or a Heavy Rescue, what role does the second arriving apparatus assume? highrise fire
A. It acts as the fireground support pumper
B. It defers to the next arriving pumper and waits for further instructions
C. It assumes the fireground pumper role with access to the FDC and hydrant
D. It becomes the command unit for the incident

Answer 124

C. It assumes the fireground pumper role with access to the FDC and hydrant

Question 125

What equipment should the second arriving crew bring when joining the first crew? highrise fire
A. Only forcible entry tools and highrise hose packs
B. A thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, and components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit
C. A ladder and basic firefighting tools
D. Medical equipment for potential rescues

Answer 125

B. A thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, and components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit

Question 126

True or False: The Captain of the third arriving apparatus will assume the duties of “Lobby Sector” upon arrival. highrise fire

Answer 126

True

Question 127

True or False: The third arriving crew is responsible for managing medical needs in the lobby, including bringing a medical bag and defibrillator. highrise fire

Answer 127

True

Question 128

Where should the third arriving apparatus stage at a highrise fire if not assigned to be the fireground pumper or fireground support pumper?
A. Directly in front of the building entrance
B. In an area that does not interfere with aerial access
C. Adjacent to the hydrant closest to the incident
D. At the incident command post

Answer 128

B. In an area that does not interfere with aerial access

Question 129

If the Incident Commander assigns the third arriving crew to fire floor operations, who typically assumes the “Lobby Sector” responsibilities?
A. The first arriving apparatus crew
B. A later arriving apparatus crew
C. The Incident Commander
D. The fireground support pumper crew

Answer 129

B. A later arriving apparatus crew

Question 130

What should the fourth arriving crew bring if assigned to the fire floor? highrise fire
A. Spare air cylinders and hose packs
B. RIT kit and defibrillator
C. Forcible entry tools and a thermal imaging camera
D. Fireground pumper equipment

Answer 130

C. Forcible entry tools and a thermal imaging camera

Question 131

True or False: The fifth arriving crew’s primary responsibility is to establish and manage ventilation operations unless reassigned by the Incident Commander. highrise fires

Answer 131

True

Question 132

True or False: The fifth arriving crew may also be tasked with bringing in additional attack line components if required. highrise fire

Answer 132

True

Question 133

What equipment should the fifth arriving crew consider bringing for ventilation operations? highrise fire
A. Spare air cylinders and medical bags
B. Thermal imaging cameras and forcible entry tools
C. Ventilation and air monitoring equipment, aerial ladder belts, and bolt cutters
D. Highrise hose packs and a fire extinguisher

Answer 133

C. Ventilation and air monitoring equipment, aerial ladder belts, and bolt cutters

Question 134

True or False: The Captain and crew of the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving apparatus should stage at Level 1 and await assignment from the Incident Commander.

Answer 134

True

Question 135

True or False: One of the tasks that the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews could be assigned is setting up a rehabilitation area three floors below the fire floor.

Answer 135

True

Question 136

What equipment should the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews bring for staging?
A. Fire extinguishers, air monitoring equipment, and highrise hose packs
B. Thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, spare air cylinders, and bottled water
C. Ventilation equipment and roof hatches
D. Medical bags and defibrillators

Answer 136

B. Thermal imaging camera, forcible entry tools, spare air cylinders, and bottled water

Question 137

What is the primary role of the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews?
A. To engage in fire suppression operations immediately
B. To perform ventilation tasks and coordinate evacuation
C. To serve as a relief crew or to assist with tasks as assigned by the Incident Commander
D. To take over the duties of the first arriving crew

Answer 137

C. To serve as a relief crew or to assist with tasks as assigned by the Incident Commander

Question 138

In the event additional attack lines are needed, what might the sixth, seventh, and eighth arriving crews be tasked with?
A. Performing a secondary search of the fire floor
B. Setting up the rehabilitation area
C. Bringing in components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit
D. Assisting with ventilation and roof hatch operations

Answer 138

C. Bringing in components of the highrise hose packs and standpipe kit

Question 139

True or False The greatest risk to personnel occurs during two phases of traffic management is the set up and takedown

Answer 139

True

Question 140

What is the buffer zone from the first arriving vehicle be from the Incident?
A. 10 m
B. 15 m
C. 30 M
D. 60 M

Answer 140

C. 30 M

Question 141

True or False All Crew members shall don their High visibility traffic vest and helmet prior to commencing on scene work

Answer 141

True

Question 142

True or False you can walk across high speed traffic lanes and cross the jersey wall to access the scene

Answer 142

False

Question 143

True or False MFES Apparatus located more than 75 Meters from a hydrant will install the relay valve when taking the hydrant

Answer 143

True

Question 144

What KPA is the pump operator to charge the fire line pumper through an inline relay valve?
A. 800 KPA
B. 1000 KPA
C. 1300 KPA
D. 1600 KPA

Answer 144

C. 1300 KPA

Question 145

True or False A residual pressure reading on the compound gauge of 150 KPA or greater must be maintained

Answer 145

True

Question 146

When performing a Mayday use the LIP acronym. what does LIP stand for
A. Layout, Issue, position
B. Location, Identification, Problem
C. Location, Interior, protection

Answer 146

B. Location, Identification, Problem

Question 147

True or False When responding to a MRI device emergencies. crews will consult the MRI technologist before taking any actions regarding Safety, Preventing damage to MRI device

Answer 147

True

Question 148

Batteries in the SCBA will be changed at what percentage
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%

Answer 148

C. 75%

Question 149

How many people will be used to resuscitate the small animal
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 149

B.2

Question 150

True or False Contaminated components of the Pet O2 shall be discarded upon return to the station

Answer 150

True

Question 151

True or False Roof ladders will not be used on steel or tile pitched roofs

Answer 151

True

Question 152

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 1, Overview; standard Personal
Protective Equipment includes all of the following EXCEPT? (pg. 6)
A) Properly fit-tested N95 respirators
B) Protective eye wear, including goggle or face shield
C) Prescription eye glasses
D) Gowns or bunker gear

Answer 152

C) Prescription eye glasses

Question 153

According to MFES Medical Directive, Section 1, Overview; PPE is designed to create a
barrier between the Firefighter and hazards in the environment. Which is NOT an
appropriate action to take? (Pg. 5)
A) PPE should be put on as close to point-of-care as possible.
B) It must be chosen based on a critical assessment of the potential and actual risks of
communicable disease exposure present in the situation.
C) PPE must be put on and taken off in the correct order to ensure minimal risk of
incorrect wear and accidental self-contamination.
D) PPE must always be worn correctly and be in good working order as per
manufacturer’s instructions.
E) Reusable PPE, such as some forms of eye protection do not need to be cleaned or
disinfected.

Answer 153

E) Reusable PPE, such as some forms of eye protection do not need to be cleaned or
disinfected.

Question 154

T/F According to MFES Medical Directive, Section 7, DNR; a photocopy of a DNR will
NOT be accepted. (Pg. 47)

Answer 154

False

Question 155

According to MFES Medical Directive, Section 7, DNR; to validate a DNR, firefighters
(usually the Officer in Charge) will verify that the DNR contains the following, EXCEPT.
(Pg. 47)
A) A serial number in the upper right corner
B) Correct name of patient
C) A check mark in one of the boxes indicating CPR is not part of the plan of treatment
D) The patients insurance contact information
E) Name and profession of the health care provider
F) Signature and date when the form was completed

Answer 155

D) The patients insurance contact information

Question 156

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, Determination of
Obvious Death; a patient meets “obvious death criteria” if they are vital signs absent
and one or more of the following: (Pg-24)
A) decapitation
B) decomposition
C) gross charring
D) open head or torso wounds
E) gross rigor mortis and gross lividity
F) all of the above

Answer 156

F) all of the above

Question 157

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, Blunt Trauma,
Penetrating Chest/Torso Trauma; if there is sufficient evidence that the patient has
suffered blunt force trauma or penetrating chest/torso trauma, the patient should
receive the following: (Pg. 16)
A. Allow the AED to complete one analysis only.
B. If indicated deliver a single shock.
C. After the first analysis (and shock if necessary) is complete, turn off the AED after
receiving the “Start CPR” voice prompt.
D. Continue CPR until transfer of care to Paramedics
E. B & D
F. A & C
G. All of the above

Answer 157

G. All of the above

Question 158

T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; A neonate’s age
range is between 0 to 28 days (pg. 28)
A) True
B) False

Answer 158

False

Question 159

T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; for infants
(<1 year), DO NOT apply the AED. Landmark between the nipples, use two fingers (or
two thumbs encircling the chest) and compress the chest so that it is depressed one
third to one half its original depth. (pg. 28)
A) True
B) False

Answer 159

True

Question 160

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, Unresponsive Patient
with Pulse (Choking Protocol); what are the order of steps when dealing with a patient who
is unresponsive with an airway obstruction; the patient has a pulse. (pg. 14)
A) 30 thrusts, check mouth, attempt ventilation, check pulse, and continue
B) 30 chest compressions, check mouth, attempt ventilation, and continue
C) 5 back blows, followed by 5 abdominal thrusts
D) 30 thrusts, check mouth, attempt ventilation

Answer 160

A) 30 thrusts, check mouth, attempt ventilation, check pulse, and continue

Question 161

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation, and Cardiac Arrest of
a Hypothermic Patient: How long is a pulse check for an unresponsive hypothermic
patient? (pg. 15)
A) 45 sec
B) 10 sec
C) 60 sec
D) 15 sec

Answer 161

A) 45 sec

Question 162

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2 Defibrillation, Cardiac Arrest of a
Hypothermic Patient: During resuscitation efforts, you are instructed, “shock advised”
with an unresponsive, VSA, hypothermic patient. What are the CORRECT steps you
follow after delivering the shock? (pg. 15)
A) Turn off the AED after receiving the “Start CPR” voice prompt , continue CPR
until transfer of care to Paramedics.
B) Administer shock, continue with defibrillator protocols & CPR
C) Do not shock patient, you will worsen their condition since they are hypothermic
D) Administer shock, turn off defibrillator, remove pads, continue CPR

Answer 162

A) Turn off the AED after receiving the “Start CPR” voice prompt , continue CPR
until transfer of care to Paramedics.

Question 163

. T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; you are attending a
call for a VSA. The patient just celebrated their 8th birthday. The correct protocol would be:
attach Adult Pads. (pg. 11)
A) True
B) False

Answer 163

True

Question 164

T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; if patient is ≥1 and <
8 years of age, firefighters will attach pediatric pads. (pg. 11)
A) True
B) False

Answer 164

True

Question 165

T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; when transferring
care between public/private access defibrillation (PAD) providers, firefighters shall operate
the PAD Defibrillator. (pg. 21)
A) True
B) False

Answer 165

False

Question 166

. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; the following patient(s)
are NOT excluded by the defibrillation standing order: (pg. 27)
A) The patient is less than 1 years of age
B) The patient is pregnant
C) The patient exhibits obvious signs of death
D) The patient has a valid ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’

Answer 166

B) The patient is pregnant

Question 167

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; while the AED is
analyzing the patient’s heart rhythm, it is important for the firefighter to: (pg. 9)
A) Continue CPR
B) Remove the patient’s shirt
C) Provide ventilations only
D) Do not touch the patient

Answer 167

D) Do not touch the patient

Question 168

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; after a return of a pulse
firefighters should: (pg. 12)
A) Turn off the AED. Assess the airway and breathing and provide appropriate patient
care
B) Do not remove AED pads, as there is a possibility the patient may re-arrest
C) Reassess the patient for a loss of pulse every 45-60 seconds by performing a 10
second carotid pulse check
D) If no palpable carotid pulse is present, turn AED on and follow AED prompts
E) All of the Above

Answer 168

E) All of the Above

Question 169

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; during analysis, the
AED indicates “shock advise” prior to administering the shock immediately perform a
minimum of ________ compressions (pg. 11)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 30
D) As many as possible

Answer 169

B) 15

Question 170

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; the amount of
voltage per shock begins and increases (pg. 11)
A) 120-150-200
B) Does not increase maintains at 200
C) 100-120-150
D) 150-200-250

Answer 170

A) 120-150-200

Question 171

According to the MFES Medical Directives Section 2 Defibrillation, after using the AED on
your patient, you determine that the patient has regained a pulse and is breathing
adequately. You should then do all of the following EXCEPT: (pg. 13)
A) Monitor the patient’s pulse
B) Turn off AED
C) Keep the AED attached to the patient
D) Continue CPR until the Paramedics arrive

Answer 171

D) Continue CPR until the Paramedics arrive

Question 172

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; After the AED has
provided the first analyze to a hypothermic patient, the firefighter should: (pg. 15)
A) Turn the AED off
B) Wait for the second analysis and only turn it off if “no shock advised”
C) Discontinue resuscitation efforts
D) Leave AED on, but ignore further prompts

Answer 172

A) Turn the AED off

Question 173

. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; a 6 month old boy is
not breathing and does not have a pulse. Emergency care for him will include: (pg. 28)
A. A minute of CPR followed by the application of the AED
B. Application of the AED followed by rescue breathing
C. Immediate defibrillation
D. CPR only

Answer 173

D. CPR only

Question 174

. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; what age range are
pediatric pads rated for? (pg. 28)
A. 1-8 years
B. 30 days – 2 years
C. 8 to 12 years
D. Less than 1 year

Answer 174

A. 1-8 years

Question 175

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; you respond to a
single vehicle MVC, with a VSA patient with no obvious trauma. After extricating the
patient, you begin MFES AED protocol. After first analysis, the AED provides a “Shock
advised”. After delivering the shock the firefighter should: (pg. 11)
A. Turn off the AED
B. Keep AED on but detach pads
C. Wait for paramedic instruction
D. Leave AED on and continue to follow prompts

Answer 175

D. Leave AED on and continue to follow prompts

Question 176

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; you respond to a
patient VSA due to penetrating trauma. After first analysis AED provides a “shock
advised”. Following the shock, the firefighter will: (pg. 16)
A. Turn off AED, continue CPR
B. Leave AED on and continue to follow prompts
C. Terminate resuscitation efforts, as patient is code 5
D. Wait for paramedic direction

Answer 176

A. Turn off AED, continue CPR

Question 177

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 2, Defibrillation; A firefighter should
turn the AED on when: (pg. 9)
A. The dispatcher provides an update of VSA on route to the call
B. As soon as the firefighter assesses patient and confirms VSA
C. When the patient is prepared and pads are on
D. Do not turn on AED to avoid paperwork, wait for paramedics

Answer 177

B. As soon as the firefighter assesses patient and confirms VSA

Question 178

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3 Symptom Assist, Administration of
Epinephrine; the correct dosage of Epinephrine for a 6 year old patient weighing < 33 kg
is: (pg. 30)
A) 0.3 mg
B) 0.6 mg
C) 0.15 mg
D) 0.12 mg

Answer 178

C) 0.15 mg

Question 179

. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist, Assisting with
Patients own Nitroglycerin; what should the minimal heart rate and blood pressure be
prior to administration of nitroglycerin? (pg.33)
A) HR of < 40/min, BP of < 90 systolic
B) HR of < 60/min, BP of >100 systolic
C) HR of > 120/min, BP of >120 systolic
D) HR of < 60/min, BP of >120 systolic

Answer 179

B) HR of < 60/min, BP of >100 systolic

Question 180

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist, Administration of
Epinephrine; the correct dose of Epinephrine for a patient who weighs ≥30 kg is?
(pg. 30)
A) 0.3 mg
B) 0.6 mg
C) 0.15mg
D) 0.12mg

Answer 180

A) 0.3 mg

Question 181

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; a patient may
receive Epinephrine administered by the Firefighter, provided that the patient has not
received a maximum of __ doses prior to the Firefighter’s arrival. (pg. 30)
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4

Answer 181

C) 2

Question 182

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist Administration of
Epinephrine; which of the following is not a sign and symptom of an allergic reaction,
including anaphylaxis? (pg. 30)
A) Hypertension
B) Hypotension
C) Stridor
D) Wheezing

Answer 182

A) Hypertension

Question 183

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist Anaphylaxis
Protocol; a second dose of Epinephrine may be given after ___ minutes from the first
dose. (pg. 31)
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20

Answer 183

B) 10

Question 184

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist, Suspected Opioid
Toxicity; Overdose signs and symptoms can include: (pg. 35)
A) Respiratory distress, respiratory depression or arrest
B) Suspected opioid toxicity
C) Reduced level of consciousness
D) Have a room air SpO2 <92% or not reading
E) All of the above

Answer 184

E) All of the above

Question 185

T/F: According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; if a suspected
opioid overdose patient is not breathing or has no pulse, initiate defibrillation protocol
as per the medical directives. If the patient has a pulse and the patient’s respiratory rate
is ˂ 10 breaths per minute and SpO2 <92% or not reading, begin assisted ventilation. 1
ventilation every 6 seconds (pg. 35)
A) True
B) False

Answer 185

True

Question 186

. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Responding to
Opioid Overdose; which answer is NOT a symptom of an opioid overdose? (pg. 35)
A) Elevated heart rate (Hypertension)
B) Altered level of responsiveness
C) Respiratory depression with respiratory rate <10 breaths per minute
D) Suspected opioid toxicity

Answer 186

A) Elevated heart rate (Hypertension)

Question 187

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; which of the
following is NOT signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis (pg. 30)
A) Generalized Urticaria (Hives)
B) Hypotension (systolic BP < 90)
C) Stridor
D) Strong, regular pulse
E) Wheezing

Answer 187

D) Strong, regular pulse

Question 188

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; exclusions for
administering Naloxone include all statements below except for: (pg. 35)
A) Patient has an allergy to naloxone
B) You have the ability to adequately ventilate the patient and SpO2 ≥ 92%
C) Patient is ≥ 12 years of age
D) Patient has a valid DNR refusing the use of opioid antagonists
E) Patient is VSA

Answer 188

C) Patient is ≥ 12 years of age

Question 189

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; If the patient has
self administered one dose of epinephrine prior to firefighter arrival, a firefighter should:
(pg. 31)
A. Not administer any more epinephrine
B. Administer a second dose after 10 minutes if the patients clinical conditions
warrants
C. Administer a second dose immediately, we cannot trust the patients medication
D. Attach AED pads and prepare for the worst

Answer 189

B. Administer a second dose after 10 minutes if the patients clinical conditions
warrants

Question 190

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; what are some
signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? (pg. 30)
A. Hypotension
B. Hives/rash
C. Shortness of breath/wheezes/stridor
D. A combination of some or all of the above

Answer 190

D. A combination of some or all of the above

Question 191

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; The following are
potential signs of an asthma attack: (pg. 32)
A. Poor air entry
B. Wheezing
C. Cyanosis
D. Intercostal indrawing
E. All of the above

Answer 191

E. All of the above

Question 192

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Prior to helping the
patient take their Ventolin, the firefighter must: (pg. 32)
A. Confirm the Ventolin belongs to the patient
B. Confirm a history of COPD
C. Consider other treatment as appropriate
D. All of the above

Answer 192

D. All of the above

Question 193

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; what is the time
interval and maximum dose you should follow when nitroglycerin is given? (pg. 33)
A. Every 2 minutes to a maximum of 3 sprays/tablets
B. Every 10 minutes to a maximum of 6 sprays/tablets
C. Every 5 minutes with no maximum number of sprays/tablets
D. Every 5 minutes to a maximum of 3 sprays/tablets

Answer 193

D. Every 5 minutes to a maximum of 3 sprays/tablets

Question 194

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; After
administration of nitroglycerin, a firefighter should: (pg. 33)
A. Monitor patient’s vital signs every 5 minutes,
B. Complete the call and leave patient with instructions for further doses if problem
continues
C. Apply AED pads and prepare for the worst
D. Provide 2 more doses over the next 10 minutes without re-assessing

Answer 194

A. Monitor patient’s vital signs every 5 minutes,

Question 195

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; which of the
following is NOT a clinical presentation of Opioid overdose? (pg. 35)
A. Dilated pupils
B. Altered level of responsiveness
C. Respiratory depression
D. None of the above

Answer 195

A. Dilated pupils

Question 196

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; after receiving
Naloxone, the patient never requires medical attention. (Pg. 36)
A. True
B. False

Answer 196

False

Question 197

T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C; Naloxone side effects may
include severe opioid withdrawal. (pg. 73)
A. True
B. False

Answer 197

True

Question 198

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; it could take up to
8 minutes for Naloxone to take effect. (pg. 36)
A. True
B. False

Answer 198

True

Question 199

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C, You arrive at a scene of a 32 year
old male who has overdosed on heroin. Upon your assessment he is unconscious, not
breathing, but has a pulse rate of 130. What is your first priority? (pg. 72)
A. Administer Narcan immediately
B. Get a full set of vitals and wait for EMS
C. Assist with ventilations, 1 breathe every 5-6 seconds and reassess
D. Begin AED/CPR protocol

Answer 199

C. Assist with ventilations, 1 breathe every 5-6 seconds and reassess

Question 200

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; it is permitted for
MFES to provide a second dose of naloxone using a new nasal spray, as long as you use
the other nostril. (pg. 35)
A. True
B. False

Answer 200

False

Question 201

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; The MFES medical
directive states that Narcan is given after rescuers have been unsuccessful providing
adequate ventilations. (pg. 35)
A. True
B. False

Answer 201

True

Question 202

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; under what
condition should assistance for self-administration of nitroglycerin occur? (Pg. 33)
A. Chest pain <30 minutes duration
B. Chest pain similar to previous angina/MI
C. Patient requests assistance with taking their prescribed nitroglycerin
D. All of the above

Answer 202

D. All of the above

Question 203

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; which of the
following is NOT and contra-indication in the administration of the patient’s ASA?
(Pg. 34)
A. Asthma with no prior ASA use
B. Blood pressure <100mmHG
C. CVA or TIA within previous 24 hrs
D. Allergy to ASA or non-steroidal anti – inflammatory (NSAID)

Answer 203

B. Blood pressure <100mmHG

Question 204

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Nitroglycerin
should NOT be administered if the patient has any of the following contraindications
(pg. 33)
A. The patient’s pulse drops below 60 bpm
B. The patient’s systolic blood pressure falls below 100mmHG
C. The patient has 3 or more doses of Nitroglycerin already administered
D. All of the above

Answer 204

D. All of the above

Question 205

T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; Urticaria on
its own is not an indication for administering Epinephrine (pg. 31)
A. True
B. False

Answer 205

True

Question 206

. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 3, Symptom Assist; The correct dose
of ASA is: (pg. 34)
A. 1 x 80 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
B. 2 x 80 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
C. 2 x 40 mg of the patients own chewable ASA
D. None of the above

Answer 206

B. 2 x 80 mg of the patients own chewable ASA

Question 207

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 4, CPR Guidelines; the correct
number of compressions for Child two rescuer CPR is ______. (Pg. 39)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

Answer 207

B) 15

Question 208

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 4, CPR Guidelines; the correct
number of compressions for Adult two rescuer CPR is ______. (pg. 39)
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

Answer 208

D) 30

Question 209

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 4, CPR Guidelines; how often should
you switch out for CPR? (pg. 39)
A) Every 2 min
B) As needed
C) Every 4 min
D) When the firefighter is showing signs of exhaustion

Answer 209

A) Every 2 min

Question 210

. The correct ratio of compressions to ventilation for two-rescuer adult CPR is: (Pg. 39 )
A) 15 to 1
B) 5 to 1
C) 30 to 2
D) 5 to 2

Answer 210

C) 30 to 2

Question 211

63. According to the MFES Medical Directives, Section 5, Neonatal Resuscitation; which of
    the following is correct for Neonatal Resuscitation Protocol? (pg. 42)
    A) Assess neonate for the presence of meconium, breathing, crying, good muscle
    tone and colour.
    B) Dry, stimulate and reposition the airway
    C) If HR < 60 despite adequate oxygenation and ventilation, continue to provide
    positive pressure ventilation and administer chest compressions at a ratio of 3:1
    (compression/ventilation)
    D) All of the above

Answer 211

D) All of the above

Question 212

According to MFES Medical Directives, There is a significant onus of moral and ethical
responsibility involved in practicing safe and responsible IPAC strategies that sits
squarely on the shoulders of each and every Firefighter in everything they do, the KEY to
infection control is ______? (pg. 52)
A. N95 Mask
B. Nitrile Gloves
C. You
D. None of the above

Answer 212

C. You

Question 213

According MFES Medical Directive, there are two acceptable methods for hand hygiene
in the pre-hospital environments: (pg. 53)
A. Soap and Water
B. Alcohol Based Hand Rubs (ABHR) and Soap
C. Alcohol Based hands rub (ABHR) and soap and water.
D. Hand Sanitizer and Liquid Soap.

Answer 213

C. Alcohol Based hands rub (ABHR) and soap and water.

Question 214

According to MFES Medical Directive, Appendix A. A Firefighter attends a medical call
where the patient has been symptomatic with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea for several
days. The Firefighter should be: (Pg. 57)
A. Aware that the environment around the patient may be contaminated.
B. Wearing medical gloves and performing hand-hygiene before and after use.
C. Ensuring all reusable equipment that was used is cleaned and disinfected before
reuse.
D. All of the above

Answer 214

D. All of the above

Question 215

According to MFES Medical Directive Appendix A, PPE is useless unless it is available,
functioning, easily accessible and worn properly.
T/F - It is the personal responsibility of the Firefighter to know and understand how and
when to use each piece of PPE per the policies and procedures of their service. (Pg. 59)
A. True
B. False

Answer 215

True

Question 216

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; The Firefighter is responsible for
his/her own personal safety and to work in compliance with the occupational health and
safety program of their institution. The Firefighter plays a key role in preventing
exposures to communicable disease in both themselves and the patients they serve.
Methods of exposure prevention include? (pg. 63)
A) Application of PPE
B) Distancing from patient
C) Being immunized
D) Practising proper, diligent hand hygiene

Answer 216

B) Distancing from patient

Question 217

T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; It is the station Captains
responsibility to know what to do to prevent exposures to communicable diseases, and
how to respond if one occurs, for all his/her crew. (pg. 64)
A) True
B) False

Answer 217

False

Question 218

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; when dealing with
communicable diseases, a firefighter shall (pg. 68)
A) Use all PPE provided in prescribed manner
B) Be aware of situations that could lead to potential exposure
C) In the event of exposure, complete the Exposure Report Form
D) Contact the Designated Officer
E) All of the above

Answer 218

E) All of the above

Question 219

T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix B; A patient who is undergoing
chemotherapy will break down the treatment in their body, which can then be passed
through urine.
A) True
B) False

Answer 219

True

Question 220

According to MFES Medical Directive Opioid Overdose. Due to their effect on the part of
the brain which regulates breathing, opioids in high doses can cause respiratory
depression and death. An opioid overdose can be identified by a combination of three
signs and symptoms referred to as the “opioid overdose triad”. Which is NOT a
symptom of the triad: (pg.70 )
A. Pinpoint Pupils
B. Unconsciousness
C. Respiratory Depression
D. Increased Heart Rate

Answer 220

D. Increased Heart Rate

Question 221

According to MFES Medical Directive Overdose Signs and Symptoms, First responders
may find themselves exposed to opioids during operational situations such as overdose
calls and other first responder duties. A person that has been exposed to opioids may
experience the following symptoms: (pg. 71 )
A. Respiratory distress, respiratory depression or arrest.
B. Reduced level or loss of consciousness
C. Limp body
D. Dizziness
E. Nausea/vomiting
F. All of the above
G. A and C
H. B, D and E

Answer 221

F. All of the above

Question 222

According to MFES Medical Directive Naloxone, which is NOT the most common side
effect of naloxone by nasal spray? (Pg. 73)
A. Increased Blood Pressure
B. Musculoskeletal Pain
C. Nasal Dryness
D. Nasal Congestion
E. Dilated Pupil

Answer 222

E. Dilated Pupil

Question 223

According to MFES Medical Directive on Oxygen Therapy, The Firefighter shall
administer oxygen therapy using an oxygen delivery system and flow rate to attempt to
maintain a patient’s oxygen saturation between: (Pg. 75)
A. 94% - 98%
B. 90% - 94%
C. 92% - 96%
D. 92% - 98%

Answer 223

C. 92% - 96%

Question 224

T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C, Oxygen Therapy Standard;
continuous high concentration oxygen should be administered to a patient suffering
from sickle cell anemia with suspected vaso-occlusive crisis (pg. 75)
A) True
B) False

Answer 224

True

Question 225

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix C, Oxygen Therapy Standard; the
max L/m of oxygen flow rate, must NOT exceed ____ when using a nasal cannula.
(pg. 75)
A) 4 L/m
B) 6 L/m
C) 8 L/m
D) 10 L/m

Answer 225

B) 6 L/m

Question 226

. According to MFES Medical Directive on Spinal Motion Restriction (SMR), The Firefighter
shall consider spinal motion restriction (SMR) for any patient with a potential spine or
spinal cord injury, based on mechanism of injury, such as? Which is NOT considered a
mechanism of injury requiring SMR? (pg. 76)
A. Any trauma associated with complaints of neck or back pain.
B. Falls (e.g. Stairs)
C. Electrocution
D. Sports accidents
E. Second degree burn
F. Lightning strike

Answer 226

E. Second degree burn

Question 227

T/F According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix E, Spinal Motion Restriction
Standard (SMR); SMR should be considered on a patient suffering from an electrocution
and shows signs of neurologic signs and symptoms (pg. 76)
A) True
B) False

Answer 227

True

Question 228

According to the MFES Medical Directives, Appendix E, Spinal Motion Restriction
Standard (SMR); which of the following meets the criterial to use a SMR? (pg. 76)
A) Neck & back pain
B) Altered level of consciousness
C) Suspected alcohol intoxication
D) A patient 66 years of age
E) Spine tenderness
F) A, B & E
G) All of the above

Answer 228

G) All of the above

Question 229

. Looking for signs and symptoms of illness in the patient is an extremely important step
in the situational assessment. Signs are measured by mechanical means, such as blood
pressure or temperature. Symptoms are physical changes in the body usually observed
by the Firefighter or reported by the patient, which can include? (Pg. 56)
A. Fever
B. Chills
C. Swelling
D. Pain or redness
E. Nausea
F. All of the above

Answer 229

F. All of the above

Question 230

T/F 3 symptoms of an opioid overdose are pinpoint pupils, unconsiousness, and respiratory depression.

Answer 230

True

Question 231

After initiating an emergency alert tone on your radio, how many seconds does it create an open mic for.
a) 3 seconds
b) 5 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) 30 seconds

Answer 231

c) 10 seconds

Question 232

T/F After initiating a MAYDAY, the acronym LIP stands for location, identification, and problem.

Answer 232

True

Question 233

According to MFES policy O2 Oxygen Therapy Standards, What level must a person be to provide oxygen therapy.
A) 96%
B) 94%
C) below 92%
D) above 92%

Answer 233

c) below 92%

Question 233

According to MFES Emergency Light Policy 03-03-027 we respond with emergency lights to all calls except:
a) structure fire
b) medical
c) elevator with medical
d) bomb threat

Answer 233

d) bomb threat

Question 234

According to corporate policies on conflict of interest; which of the follow statements is incorrect:
a) gifts for speaking engagements can be accepted
b) cash can be accepted
c) if a conflict of interest cannot be avoided, it must be declared
d) hospitality gifts can be accepted if less than $50 and doesn’t occur frequently from the same indvidual or party

Answer 234

b) cash can be accepted

Question 235

Color Codes
Yellow ___________
Blue _____________
Orange ___________
Red ______________
Green ___________
Pink ____________

Answer 235

Yellow - extra caution
Blue - suicide or attemptd
Orange - comunicable disease
Red - police emergency
Green - grow lab
Pink - infant VSA

Question 236

T/F Officers can use code red to ensure police respond faster to calls requesting their assistance.

Answer 236

False

Question 237

Building Construction
Type 1

Answer 237

Fire resistive

Question 238

Building Construction
Type 2

Answer 238

Non-combust

Question 239

Building Construction
Type 3

Answer 239

Ordinary

Question 240

Building Construction
Type 4

Answer 240

Heavy Timber

Question 241

Building Construction
Type 5

Answer 241

Wood frame

Question 242

T/F If the situation warrants crowd control measures such as using hoses and steams at 250 KPA if done carefully.

Answer 242

False

Question 243

As per medical directives Spinal Motion Restriction (SMR) should be used for:

a) trauma with complaints of back or neck pain
b) sports accidents
c) falls
d) pedestrian struck
e) all of the above

Answer 243

e) all of the above

Question 244

According to MFES o2 Oyxgen Therapy Standard, which of the below steps are incorrect when dealing with a patient who has COPD.

a) provide nasal canula 2L above home oxygen
b) reassess vitals every 10 mins
c) or crease o2 increments of 2L every 2-3 mins not exceeding 6L
d) put defib pads on to prepare for the patient going VSA

Answer 244

d) put defib pads on to prepare for the patient going VSA

Question 245

According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. When operating inside a structure you should be scanning 6 sides. These 6 sides include:
a) left, right
b) up, bottom
c) front, behind
d) all of the above

Answer 245

d) all of the above

Question 246

According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. Which of the following is correct when obersving the contrast of the TIC?
a) the higher heat, the more contrast you will see
b) white represents most heat in the field of view
c) black represents the coldest objects in the field of view
d) all of the above

Answer 246

d) all of the above

Question 247

According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. You are checking in the TIC and start up screen does not turn to the operational mode with temperature bar and battery icon, what should you do first?
a) tag the TIC for repair
b) shut off and on to reboot
c) contact stores for replacement
d) have your officer notify the DC and get a spare

Answer 247

b) shut off and on to reboot

Question 248

According to the 2020 MFES Thermal Imaging (TIC) presentation. A quick check with the TIC provides the firefighter with what information.
A) victim location
B) fire location /severity
C) room size and configuration
D) all of the above

Answer 248

D) all of the above

Question 249

For ventilation at a normal sized window, where should the tip of the ladder be placed?
a)underneath window sill
b)in line with the top of the window on the windward side
c)3-5 rungs above sill
d)in line with the top of the window on the leeward side

Answer 249

b) in line with the top of the window on the windward side

Question 250

Which of the following is correct about ladder raises?
a) always carry ladder with butt section toward fire
b) identify stable ground to put butt down avoid soggy or depressed ground areas
c) check for overhead obstructions
d) never lose eye contact and or control of the ladder at any time while raising and lowering
e) all of the above

Answer 250

e) all of the above

Question 251

Which of the follow is not a ladder part of MFES ladder inventory?

a) 35” extension ladder
b) 17” extension ladder
c) folding ladder
d) step ladder

Answer 251

b) 17” extension ladder

Question 252

Which of the following statements about laddering is incorrect?

a) it is important to understand capabilities and limitiations of the ground ladders
b) ground ladders must be deployed at every structure fire to be prepared for a firefighters reactive response to dangerous fire condtions
c) aerial ladder deployment for the purpose of rescue of an occupant is faster and more efficent than ground ladders
d) firefighters in distress will have a reactive response to deteriorating condtions

Answer 252

c) aerial ladder deployment for the purpose of rescue of an occupant is faster and more efficent than ground ladders

Question 253

According to MFES SOG NO 03-06-049 Auto Extrication. MFES suppression personnel at a MVC response will perform the following functions except:
a) provide fire protection and hazard control
b) provide advanced life support to patients
c) disentangle entrapped occupants
d) assist ambulance personnel in patient removal
e) try to preserve evidence

Answer 253

b) provide advanced life support to patients

Question 254

According to MFES policy on confined space. Confined space is defined as one or more of the following conditions:
a) hazardous atmosphere
b) engulfing type material
c) inward sloping or tapered walls or floors
d) any recognized serious safety or health hazard
e) all of the above

Answer 254

e) all of the above

Question 255

According to MFES clandestine drug lab policy. MFES will provide support at calls for clandestine labs. This support may consist of all actions below except:
a) RIT crew for operations for entry personnel
b) air quality monitroing
c) lead entry team
d) porivde info on chemicals that are suspected or discorved in lab
e) decon of entry personnel

Answer 255

c) lead entry team

Question 256

T/F MFES WFI commite promotes values of personal health through: education, training, and prevention.

Answer 256

True

Question 257

T/F WFI program has five main components that take a holistic approach to health they include: medical, physical fitness, rehab, beahvioral health, and data collection/reporting.

Answer 257

True

Question 258

T/F the WFI program is punitive and relies on mandatory compliance.

Answer 258

False

Question 259

T/F Personal fitness equipment brought into the station requires approval from the WFI commitee or the head shift STI.

Answer 259

True

Question 260

As per MFES policy on vacation selection VHR (vacation by the hour) employess can take time off in the following blocks:
a) 2, 4, 8, and 12
b) 4, 6, 8, and 12
c) 6, 12, and 18
d) 6, 8, 12, and 16

Answer 260

c) 6, 12, and 18

Question 261

T/F Vacation carry over (VCO) employees can carry over a maximum of 3 vacation days per calendar year.

Answer 261

False - correct awnser is 2

Question 262

T/F all personnel in bunker gear or without water rescue PPE operating in the hazard zone must be tied off to a secure anchor for fall protection from the water.

Answer 262

True

Question 263

Communications between rescuers at water rescue incidents should be maintained through which of the following methods:
a) radio
b) verbally
c) whistles
d) hand signals
e) all of the above

Answer 263

e) all of the above

Question 264

T/F Evacuation of a seriously injured firefighter at a violent incident takes priority over all other activities at incidents involving violence.

Answer 264

True

Question 265

T/F The control of crowds at a fire scene is a MFES function and shall be attempted by firefighters.

Answer 265

False

Question 266

As per MFES policy on vehicle fire tactics the apparatus should be placed:
a) downhill and downwind when possible
b) uphill and upwind of incident and as a barrier to the scene

Answer 266

b) uphill and upwind of incident and as a barrier to the scene

Question 267

As per MFES policy on fire attack for vehicle fires, firefighters should employ all of the following tactics except:
a) approach uphill and upwind (if possible)
b) approach the vehicle on a 45
c) rescue a person if they are in the vehicle
d) have a backup line to protect fire attack crew

Answer 267

c) rescue a person if they are in the vehicle

Question 268

T/F Do not park or stop apparatus on or within 5 meters of railway tracks.

Answer 268

True

Question 269

T/F According to the policy on shutting down turbo charged engines you should allow the engine to idle for approximately two minutes before backing into the station.

Answer 269

True

Question 270

According to MFES policy on trench rescue, how is a trench defined?
a) an excavation with a depth less than the width
b) an excavation with a depth greater than the width
c) any excavation deeper than 6 feet (1.8 meters)
d) an excavation without shoring

Answer 270

b) an excavation with a depth greater than the width

Question 271

What is the primary cause of trench collapses?
a) heavy machinery near trenches
b) poor air quality in trenches
c) unstable soil conditions and lack of proper shoring
d) excessive depth of the trench

Answer 271

c) unstable soil conditions and lack of proper shoring

Question 272

What is the minimum number of technician level trained firefighters required to respond to a trench rescue incident?
a) none
b) one
c) two
d) three

Answer 272

b) one

Question 273

Which personnel are allowed to perform tecnhical duties like placing shoring equipment in a trench rescue?
a) awareness level
b) the district chief
c) only the trench rescue team
d) the first arriving officer

Answer 273

c) only the trench rescue team

Question 274

When should ventilation of the trench be intiated?
a) after arrival of the trench rescue team
b) after securing a responsible party
c) as soon as possible
d) only if air quality tests fail

Answer 274

c) as soon as possible

Question 275

MFES trucks “out of service response” examples include everything below except:
a) training activities
b) vehicle change over
c) mechnical reasons
d) if the crew has been too busy and is taking a break

Answer 275

d) if the crew has been too busy and is taking a break

Question 276

T/F Time on scene notifications will begin at 10 - minute intervals.

Answer 276

True

Question 277

Time on scene notifications will be used under the following circumstances except:
a) structure fires
b) special operations incidents
c) if captain requires it
d) at medicals where the crew will be stuck waiting for EMS crews

Answer 277

d) at medicals where the crew will be stuck waiting for EMS crews

Question 278

T/F After daily check in of the TIC it should be returned to basic mode

technical rope rescue policy

Answer 278

True

Question 279

According to MFES SOG No: 03-03-048 Highway and Roadway Incidents, the greatest risk to personnel occurs during which phase(s) of Traffic Management:

A) Set-up
B) Operations
C) Takedown
D) Both A and C

Answer 279

D) Both A and C

Question 280

According to MFES SOG No: 03-03-048 Highway and Roadway Incidents,

A) All crew members shall only don their helmet prior to commencing on scene work

B) Firefighters should exit the fire apparatus on the untraveled side of traffic flow

C) Firefighters may walk across high-speed traffic lanes to access involved vehicles

D) Crews may cross the highway divider (Jersey Wall) to access vehicles involved in the opposite direction of travel

Answer 280

B) Firefighters should exit the fire apparatus on the untraveled side of traffic flow

Question 281

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, What are the dangers of a hybrid/electric vehicle

A) High voltage batteries will leak dangerous amounts of fluids if damaged.

B) Risk of electrocution by touching an HEV/EV involved in a crash or when it is submerged.

C) It is difficult to disable the HV (High voltage) electrical safety system.

D) The engine makes no noise

E) All of the above

Answer 281

D) The engine makes no noise

Question 282

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, How much of the golden hour does the patient really have?

A) 30 mins
B) 35 mins
C) 45 mins
D) 60 mins

Answer 282

C) 45 mins

Question 283

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, Glass, Gas, Fire, & Wire are apart of what?

A) The life cycle of an auto extrication.

B) Scene stabilization

C) The Golden hour

D) New vehicle technology

Answer 283

B) Scene Stabilization

Question 284

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, With a 12 volt car battery, what do you disconnect/cut first?

A) Negative (Black)

B) Positive (Red)

C) It doesnt matter which you cut first.

D) Never disconnect a car battery

Answer 284

A) Negative (Black)

Question 285

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, What are the benchmarks in the life cycle of an auto extrication?

A) Arrival, Scene Size-Up, Vehicle Stabilization

B) Scene Size-Up, Vehicle Stabilization, Patient Treatment

C) Scene Stabilization, Patient Treatment, Call Termination

D) Scene Stabilization, Patient Access, Patient Removal

Answer 285

D) Scene Stabilization, Patient Access, Patient Removal

Question 286

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, The main priorities of a first in fire truck to an MVC include:

A) The scene should be stabilized

B) Vehicle should be cribbed

C) Fire should have patient contact

D) All of the above

E) None of the above

Answer 286

D) All of the above

Question 287

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, when building box cribbing, it his important not to go higher than ___ times its footprint.

A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1

Answer 287

B) 2

Question 288

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, a typical softwood MFES 4 x 4 block can hold _________ lbs at each point of solid contact.

A) 15,000 pounds
B) 10,000 pounds
C) 8,000 pounds
D) 6000 pounds

Answer 288

D) 6000 pounds

Question 289

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, a typical softwood MFES 6 x 6 block can hold _________ lbs at each point of solid contact.

A) 15,000 pounds
B) 10,000 pounds
C) 8000 pounds
D) 6000 pounds

Answer 289

A) 15,000 pounds

Question 290

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, how much weight would a 2 by 2 box crib with 4 points of contact hold using MFES 4 x 4 softwood?

A) 6,000 pounds
B) 24,000 pounds
C) 54,000 pounds
D) 15,000 pounds

Answer 290

B) 24,000 pounds

Question 291

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, how much weight would a 3 by 3 box crib with 9 points of contact hold using MFES 6 x 6 softwood?

A) 15,000 pounds
B) 24,000 pounds
C) 60,000 pounds
D) 135,000 pounds

Answer 291

D) 135,000 pounds

Question 292

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, which types of glass can be found on vehicles in 2022?

A) tempered
B) Laminated
C) Enhanced protective glass (EPV)
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above

Answer 292

E) All of the above

Question 293

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, what is the protective action distance for side curtains, knee bolsters & passenger protection air bags?

A) 5 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 15 inches
D) 20 Inches

Answer 293

A) 5 inches

Question 294

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, what is the protective action distance for driver’s side air bags?

A) 5 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 15 inches
D) 20 Inches

Answer 294

B) 10 inches

Question 295

According to the 2020 MFES Auto Extrication for Pumps & Aerials presentation, what is the protective action distance for passengers side air bags?

A) 5 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 15 inches
D) 20 Inches

Answer 295

D) 20 inches