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PP 4 > CLASS 1 > Flashcards

CLASS 1 Flashcards

1
Q

HPA

A
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2
Q

Health Professional Act of BC (HPA)

A
  • to serve + protect the public
  • to exercise its power in the public interest
  • to create rules for LPNs to follow
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3
Q

restricted activities that do not require an order (LPN scope)

A

(a) make nursing diagnosis - identifying a condition as the cause of the S + S
(b) wound care other than suturing of skin lacerations - perform a procedure on tissue below the dermis or below the surface of a mucous membrane
(c) administer, by inhalation, oxygen or humidified air;
(d) administer purified protein derivative by injection, for the purpose of tuberculosis screening;

(e) for the purpose of assessment, put an instrument or a device or finger:
- external ear canal - up to eardrum
- beyond the anal verge

(f) for the purpose of assessment or ameliorating or resolving a condition, put an instrument or a device or finger beyond the anal verge;
(g) for the purpose of providing personal hygiene care, put an instrument or a device, hand or finger beyond the labia majora, up to the cervix;
(h) put a wearable hearing instrument, or a part of or an accessory for it, into the external ear canal, up to the eardrum;
(i) for the purpose of assessment, put into the external ear canal, up to the eardrum, air that is under pressure no greater than the pressure created by the use of an otoscope;
(j) apply ultrasound for the purpose of bladder volume measurement or blood flow monitoring;
(k) apply electricity using an automatic external defibrillator for the purpose of defibrillation in the course of emergency cardiac care;
(l) apply electricity for the purpose of providing transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation;

(m) in respect of a drug specified in Schedule I or II of the Drug Schedules Regulation,
- compound the drug,
- dispense the drug, or
- administer the drug by any method

for the purpose of: 
     - treating: anaphylaxis, respiratory distress 
        (asthmatic), hypoglycemia
     - preventing disease using 
       immunoprophylactic agents;

(n)in respect of a drug specified in Schedule II of the Drug Schedules Regulation
(i)compound the drug,
(ii)dispense the drug, or
(iii)administer the drug
(A)orally,
(B)intranasally, or
(C) by intradermal, intramuscular or
subcutaneous injection.

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4
Q

restricted activities that require an order

A

(a) perform a procedure on tissue below the dermis or below the surface of a mucous membrane;
(b) cast a fracture of a bone;

(c) administer a substance by
- injection,
- inhalation
- mechanical ventilation
- irrigation
- enteral instillation or parenteral instillation;

(d) for the purpose of establishing intravenous access, maintaining patency or managing hypovolemia,
- perform venipuncture, or
- administer a solution by parenteral instillation;

(e) put an instrument or a device, hand or finger
(i) into the external ear canal, up to the eardrum,
(ii) beyond the point in the nasal passages where they normally narrow,
(iii) beyond the pharynx,
(iv) beyond the opening of the urethra,
(v) beyond the labia majora,
(vi) beyond the anal verge, or
(vii) into an artificial opening into the body;

(f) put into the external ear canal, up to the eardrum, a substance that is under pressure;
(g) apply ultrasound for diagnostic or imaging purposes, except that ultrasound may be applied to a fetus only for the purpose of fetal heart monitoring;

(h) in respect of a drug specified in Schedule I, IA or II of the Drug Schedules Regulation,
(i) compound the drug,
(ii) dispense the drug, or
(iii) administer the drug by any method;
(i) if nutrition is administered by enteral instillation, compound or dispense a therapeutic diet.

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5
Q
A

(2) A registrant may provide a service that includes the performance of an activity described in subsection (1), other than the activity described in subsection (1) (b), only as follows:
(a) to the extent the activity is one described in section 6 (1), without an order as described in paragraph (b) of this subsection;
(b) to the extent the activity is not one described in section 6 (1), if the registrant provides the service for the purpose of implementing an order and, at the time that the registrant provides the service,
(i) the health professional who issues the order is authorized, under the Act or by the body in Alberta, Yukon or the Northwest Territories that regulates the health profession of that health professional, to

(A)provide the service without an order or equivalent instruction or authorization, or

(B)issue an order or equivalent instruction or authorization for the service to be provided, and

(ii) the registrant is authorized under the Act to provide the service.
(3) A registrant may provide a service that includes the performance of the activity described in subsection (1) (b) only if
(a) the registrant provides the service for the purpose of implementing an order issued by a medical practitioner or nurse practitioner, and
(b) at the time that the registrant provides the service,

(i) the medical practitioner or nurse practitioner who issues the order is authorized under the Act to provide the service or to issue an order for the service to be provided, and
(ii) the registrant is authorized under the Act to provide the service.

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6
Q

HEALTHCARE (CONSENT) + CARE FACILITIES (ADMISSION) ACT

A

Determining capability, consent rights, temporary substitute decision-makers, advanced directives

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7
Q

TRUE or FALSE: A client has the right to withdraw consent at any time

A

TRUE

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8
Q

A physician received consent through a family member interpreting for the client only Cantonese. The family member is the client’s next of kin. can the physician proceed?

A

The physician must ensure the consent is not obtained by misrepresentation

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9
Q

A client needs an indwelling urine catheter for the exact measurement of output. the LPN obtained consent for the catheter prior to collecting supplies. during the procedure, the client complains of pain and asks the LPN to stop. What is the next action of the LPN?

A
  1. stop inserting the catheter - THE CLIENT HAS THE RIGHT TO WITHDRAW CONSENT AT ANYTIME
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10
Q

An 80-year-old client is admitted for pneumonia. They have been increasingly short of breath in the last 24 hours. The client signed a DNR NO CPR NO INTUBATION order upon admission 1/12 ago. The client has been SOB for 1/7 and confused for 4/7. The LPN goes into the client’s room to perform the morning assessment and finds the client has passed. The family walks in and states, “start CPR”. ​

What does the LPN do next?​

A
  1. inform the family the client has a signed advanced directive that states he is DNR
  2. cannot start CPR on an unwitnessed arrest - check agency policy
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11
Q

During conscious sedation for a Rt shoulder dislocation the clients’ respirations cease and they go into a cardiac arrest. Client consent was obtained for the Rt shoulder reduction. There are no advanced care directives. What does the health care team do?​

A
  1. start resuscitating the patient
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12
Q

INFANT’S ACT

A
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13
Q

Mature Minor Consent

A

consent to own health care (<19 yrs) if they have been assessed by a health care provider as being capable

are able to make their own health care decisions independent of their guardians

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14
Q

AGE OF MAJORITY:

what is the age of the Majority?

A

19 years old

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15
Q

define HEALTHCARE as it relates to the Infant’s Act

A

anything that is done for a therapeutic, preventive, palliative, diagnostic, cosmetic or other health-related purpose + includes a course of health care

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16
Q

A 15-year-old client has come to the emergency after an ankle fracture. who needs to give consent for surgery?

A

the infant can give consent if he understands the procedure and it is for his benefit

17
Q

What criteria does the surgeon have to determine in order to accept consent from an infant?

A

a: has explained to the infant and has been satisfied that the infant understands the nature and consequences and the reasonably foreseeable benefits and risks of the health care
b: has made reasonable efforts to determine and has concluded that the health care is in the infant’s best interest

18
Q

FREEDOM OF INFORMATION + PROTECTION OF PRIVACY (FOIPPA)

A

Granting access to information and protecting the privacy of individuals with respect to personal information about themselves held by institutions and provides individuals with a right of access to the information (request in writing)

19
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The health care authority does not have to develop and follow policies and practices to ensure obligations are met for consent for FOIPPA because consent is assumed if they enter their building.​

A

FALSE

ALL GUIDELINES OF FOIPPA MUST BE ADHERED TO AT ALL TIMES

20
Q

A police officer has come to see your client and requested the ETOH level results.

How does the LPN respond?​

A

not disclose the information

21
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Confidentiality is the right of individuals to determine how, when, to whom and for what purposes any personal information will be divulged. ​

A

FALSE

Confidentiality is a type of informational privacy in which one individual or organization agrees to safeguard information about another individual or organization.​

22
Q

In the elevator, a nurse from the LPNs floor is talking about her client and his financial background to another nurse. She has used the client’s first name numerous times.

Does this breach any of the acts or BCCNM standards? If so which one?​

A

breach - CONFIDENTIALITY + FOIPPA

LPNs take action if others inappropriately access or disclose a client’s personal health information.​

Understand that confidentiality is not restricted to clients’ personal health information, but any information obtained within the nurse-client relationship​

23
Q

FIOPPA​

The organization needs to make a reasonable effort to ensure the information corrected is correct. Why?

A

information is used to make a decision that affect the individual to whom the personal information relates. Such as next of kin. ​

24
Q

TISSUE/ORGAN DONATION

A
25
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Human Tissue Gift Act applies to organs, skin, and bone

A

FALSE - organs and not skin/bone/blood

26
Q

When a client has not determined their wish to consenting to the gift act, who are the first two people that can make the decision on behalf of the client?

A

the person’s spouse of any age, then one of the person’s children who has attained the age of majority?​

27
Q

Human Tissue Gift Act: Who determines a death?

A

post-mortem transplant must be determined by at least 2 medical practitioners, not directly involved in the care of the client. ​

28
Q

Mitch, 19 years old, history of depression/SI, consented to a kidney transplant for his cousin. How does the physician proceed?​

A

the decline the transplant request as the client must be mentally competent to consent

29
Q

67 year old Sarah is in need of a liver transplant. She has made a deal with her cousin to take his partial liver for $10, 000.

A

The sale of tissue is prohibited

30
Q

CORONER’S ACT

A
31
Q

TRUE or FALSE

All deaths reported to the coroner must be investigated.

A

True - if the cause of death is section 2 of the act it must be investigated

32
Q

Hiedi, 89 years old, admitted for pneumonia, has gradually gotten worse during her admission. Her family was aware she was deteriorating prior to her passing. How does the nurse proceed with this death in relation to the Coroner’s Act of BC?

A

The death was expected so the coroner does not need to be informed

33
Q

Which deaths must be reported to the coroner regardless of circumstance? ​

A

if a child died

34
Q

When a client dies unexpectedly in the hospital or due to violence how must the healthcare provider treat the body?​

A
  • do not alter anything that is remaining on the body

- Leave in IV lines, tied, any tubes/ dresssings. ​

35
Q

When do deaths have to be reported to the coroner?

A

a) as a result of violence, accident, negligence, misconduct or malpractice,​
(b) as a result of a self-inflicted illness or injury,​
(c) suddenly and unexpectedly, when the person was apparently in good health and not under the care of a medical practitioner or nurse practitioner,​
(d) from disease, sickness or unknown cause, for which the person was not treated by a medical practitioner or nurse practitioner,​
(e) during pregnancy, or following pregnancy in circumstances that might reasonably be attributable to pregnancy,​
(f) if the chief coroner reasonably believes it is in the public interest that a class of deaths be reported and issues a notice in accordance with the regulations, in the circumstances set out in the notice, or​
(g) in any prescribed circumstances.​

PP 4 (1 decks)

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