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CL650 Flashcards GM > CL650 Single Flashcards GM > Flashcards

CL650 Single Flashcards GM

1
Q

What does the L(R) REV UNLOCKED CAS message indicate?

A

Reverser has moved more than 1/8 of an inch out of stowed position

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2
Q

Under which conditions must continuous ignition be used?

A

Takeoff with high crosswind, takeoff and landings on contaminated runways, flight through moderate to severe turbulences, moderate to heavy rain, vicinity of thunderstorms

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3
Q

Below 79% N1, is the engine in N1 or N2 speed control? What does that mean?

A

N2 control; matched thrust lever settings produce matched N2 RPM

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4
Q

Engine air starts should not be attempted above which altitude?

A

21,000 feet

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5
Q

What could be expected if an ENGINE SPEED switch is moved from ON to OFF at high power settings?

A

The engine will immediately revert to N2 speed control; A rapid increase in engine acceleration will occur and N1,N2 and ITT temperature limits may be exceeded

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6
Q

What are the limitations on the use of thrust reversers?

A

Do not use to back up
Ground use only; 60% below 60 KIAS on landing
Max crosswind component of 24 kts approved for use
No take-off with REV icon or UNLOCKED/UNSAFE EICAS message

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7
Q

Which procedure must be followed under cold soak conditions?

A

Motor the engines for 60 seconds and Confirm fan rotation before attempting a start; Deploy and stow the TRs until each cycle is 5 seconds or less

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8
Q

What is the function of 14th-stage bleed air?What is the function of 10th-stage bleed air?

A

14th: Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice or Thrust Reversers operation 10th: Packs or Engine Starting

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9
Q

When is the APU LCV interlock protection function activated?

A

When either the left 10th SOV switch/light pressed in or

right 10th SOV and ISOL switch/lights pressed in

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10
Q

What are the fail-safe positions of the 14TH stage SOVs? 10TH stage SOVs?

A

14TH: Open 10TH: Close

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11
Q

Which indications display on the PFDs to differentiate between an increasing and a decreasing performance windshear?

A

Increasing = Amber; Decreasing = Red

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12
Q

What does the LOC WILL BE TUNED message mean and when does it display?

A

LOC will be AUTO-TUNED Within 30 NM of destination airport, when VOR tuning is in MAN mode

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13
Q

What action must be taken when the “LPV NOT AVAILABLE” displays on the CDU?

A

Select BARO on the ARRIVAL DATA page and use LNAV/VNAV minima

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14
Q

Where must the altitude pre-selector be to enable the capture of a VNAV descent?

A

Below the current aircraft altitude

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15
Q

How and when does IRS alignment start?

A

Automatically, when GPS/GNSS position is valid

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16
Q

Which light(s) controlled via the LANDING / TAXI LTS PANEL do not have a ground operation limitation?

A

NOSE landing light

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17
Q

What do you have to do if you forget to turn off the EMER LTS before APU shutdown at the end of the flight?

A

Restore AC power, then turn off the EMER LTS.

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18
Q

What is the fuel capacity of each fuel tank?

A

MAIN 4860 lbs per wing AUX 7168 lbs TAIL 3112 lbs

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19
Q

What does an AUTO TAIL XFER INHIBIT CAS message indicate?

A

Automatic fuel transfer from TAIL tank to AUXILIARY tank disabled due to low nitrogen pressure in the rotor-burst protection shroud.

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20
Q

What are the fuel imbalance limitations for wing tanks in flight, during taxi, takeoff and landing, and for fueling?

A

In flight: 800 lb For taxi, takeoff and landing: 400 lb For fueling: 2500 lb”

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21
Q

How is fuel from the collector tanks supplied to each engine-driven pump?

A

Via L/R Main ejectors and/or DC electric boost pumps

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22
Q

Which conditions need to be met for the DC boost pumps to run?

A

Low pressure detected at the output of a MAIN EJECTOR and Affected side BOOST PUMP switch ARMED

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23
Q

What is the purpose of the guarded DUMP

switch/light on the FUEL panel?

A

To prevent an excessive aft center of gravity if unable to transfer fuel from the TAIL tank to AUXILIARY tank.

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24
Q

What are the static sources for the integrated standby instrument (ISI)?

A

L and R Static ports (S3)

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25
Q

What are the ground limits for avionics cooling when the outside temperature is above 40°C/104°F?

A

30 minutes operation unless door is closed and at least one PACK is operating

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26
Q

What are the consequences of a single IRS failure on the AFCS and the ATS?

A

A/C equipped with 3 IRSs: autopilot disconnects, but can be re-engaged after IRS #3 reversion
A/C equipped with 2 IRSs: loss of autopilot
If total failure of IRS #1: loss of ATS
(regardless of number of IRS equipped)

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27
Q

What does an EFIS MISCOMP CAS message mean?

A

A miscompare between L and R PFD information has been detected

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28
Q

What is the electrical power source for the left/right PFD?

A

DC ESS bus/DC bus 2

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29
Q

Which indications are lost when there is an air data computer (ADC) failure?

A

Airspeed, Altitude and VSI indications lost and replaced by red air data flags on failed side. EFIS COMP INOP CAS msg

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30
Q

What is the source of the low speed cue?

A

AUX AOA vane

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31
Q

What immediate actions must be taken when a MLG BAY OVHT warning message displays on the EICAS?

A

(1) Airspeed 197 Kts
maximum
(2) L DG GEAR lever DN

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32
Q

What actions occur when either the LH (RH) ENG FIRE PUSH switch/light is pressed?

A

Associated engine driven generator shuts down. Fuel, hydraulic and bleed air (10th and 14th stages) SOVs close. Igniters on the associated engine are disabled. Engine FIREX bottle 1 and 2 squibs are armed. BOTTLE 1 and 2 ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switch/lights illuminate.

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33
Q

Which electrical buses power the fire and overheat indication system?

A

DC BATT BUS

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34
Q

Which electrical buses power the fire extinguishing system?

A

DC EMER BUS

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35
Q

What does it mean when an L (R) ENG SOV amber message displays on the EICAS after pressing the respective ENG FIRE PUSH switch/light?

A

The associated engine fuel SOV failed to close.

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36
Q

Which EICAS messages display when there is a short in an overheat detection loop?

A

L (R) JETPIPE OVHT FAIL or
L (R) FIRE FAIL or APU FIRE FAIL
APU FIRE FAIL

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37
Q

Where do oxygen pressure indications display?

A

EICAS SUMMARY page and oxygen servicing panel

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38
Q

What is the function of the FDR EVENT switch?

A

Commands DCUs to place a marker in the FDR memory for quick data retrieval

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39
Q

At which cabin altitude do the passenger masks automatically deploy?

A

14,500 feet +/-500’

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40
Q

When the manual gear extension handle is pulled, what lowers the gear?What ensures full gear extension?

A

Nose: Gravity and airload Mains: Gravity
Nose: Downlock assist springs; Mains: Downlock assist actuators powered by Hydraulic System 2

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41
Q

What is the default mode of the proximity sensor electronic unit (PSEU), air or ground?How does the PSEU determine that the aircraft is on the ground?

A

Air

When 3 of 4 main gear WOW proximity sensors are ‘target near’

42
Q

What is the gear extension max airspeed?

A

197 Kts IAS

43
Q

Following a loss of pressure in hydraulic systems 2 or 3, the brake accumulators provide pressure for how many brake applications?

A

6

44
Q

With the aircraft unpowered, what is required before the parking brake will hold? Which wheels are braked?

A

Hydraulic pressure is required in the inboard brake accumulator Inboard main wheels

45
Q

How does the wing anti-ice system operate when in NORM mode and STBY mode?

A

NORM: anti-ice controller regulates valves to maintain leading edge at 88°C STBY: anti-ice controller is bypassed, valves independently open or close fully; temperature ranges from 49 - 82°C

46
Q

Which anti-ice ducts trigger an ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message on the EICAS?

A

Left Fuselage, Right Fuselage, Left Wing, Right Wing

47
Q

Which conditions indicate icing in flight?

A

Ice buildup on leading
edges
or ICE message on EICAS

48
Q

On a walkaround, when there is AC power on the aircraft, what are the safety considerations for the ice detector heaters?

A

With AC power on the aircraft, ice detector heaters will activate if detector touched.

49
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are there on the Challenger 650?

A

6

50
Q

With the B pump switches in AUTO, which conditions are required for pumps to operate?

A

Flaps not at zero and Cross-side generator is online (1B and 2B) or Either generator 1 or 2 is online (3B)

51
Q

Which hydraulic system is used to extend and retract the landing gear?

A

System 3

52
Q

With regards to 1B and 2B pumps, what does load shedding mean?

A

Either 1B or 2B pump will be automatically disabled in case of a cross-side engine driven generator (EDG) failure to prevent overloading the remaining EDG

53
Q

During a walkaround with the 3A pump on, what should the accumulator pressure be for hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3 respectively.

A

1500 psi, 1500 psi and 3000 psi

54
Q

On which side are the aileron/elevator autopilot servos located?

A

Right side/Left side (same as the associated “PULL AND TURN” Handle)

55
Q

What is the purpose of the flight spoiler detent mechanism?

A

To prevent a “split” greater than 20° between sides in case of input linkage disconnect with spoilers deployed greater than 20°

56
Q

What is the airspeed limitation for flight spoiler deployment?

A

No maximum speed for spoiler deployment Minimum speed for deployment is Vapproach
+ 10kts

57
Q

What is the altitude limitation for flight spoiler deployment?

A

300 ft AGL

58
Q

Are the primary flight controls manually or hydraulically actuated? Is there any manual backup?

A

Hydraulically actuated No

59
Q

What system is built in to the aircraft to protect against a jammed rudder control cable on one side?

A

Anti-jam breakout mechanism

60
Q

Which indications tell the pilot there is an aileron power control unit (PCU) dual control valve jam?

A

AILERON PCU CAS message and

an amber “half-moon” symbol on the affected aileron on the FLIGHT CONTROLS synoptic page

61
Q

What are the five sources of AC power for the Challenger 650?

A

GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN, ADG, EXT Power

62
Q

What actions must be taken immediately after the EMER PWR ONLY message displays?

A

(1) Pull the ADG manual deploy handle for at least one second then stow
(2) Check AC ESS BUS is powered
(3) Engage STAB TRIM CH 2
(4) Verify engine instruments (N1, N2, ITT)

63
Q

What is the bus priority logic for a main AC bus?

A

On-side GEN, APU GEN, Cross-side GEN, EXT AC

64
Q

Which buses are powered before/after the BATT MASTER switch on the ELECTRICAL POWER panel has been turned on?

A

APU BATT DIR BUS, MAIN BATT DIR BUS, EMER BUS APU BATT DIR BUS, MAIN BATT DIR BUS, EMER BUS and BATT BUS

65
Q

What are the load limits on the main generators and the APU generator?

A

30 KVA to 35,000’ then 25 KVA

APU GEN: 30 KVA

66
Q

In flight, with battery power only which bus(ses) will be powered?

A

DC ESS, EMER, BATT, APU BATT DIR, MAIN BATT DIR

67
Q

What happens when EMER (on the EMER/NORM switch) on the audio control panel is selected?

A

Each pilot’s microphone, headset and speaker is connected to the onside radio bypassing the Audio Control Panel

68
Q

What is the function of the R/T I/C switch on the audio control panel?

A

I/C position—Selects hot mike for intercom

R/T position—Transmits out on selected radio

69
Q

What are the maximum altitudes for APU bleed air extraction/APU start?

A

15,000 feet/20,000 feet

70
Q

Using the APU Battery, how many APU starts are permissible? What are the limitations when starting the APU with the APU battery?

A

3
Each of 30 seconds continuous cranking. Followed by a 20-minute wait. Followed by 2 further attempts each of 30 seconds continuous cranking.
If still unsuccessful start, no further attempt within 35 minutes.

71
Q

What indications alert you that an APU overtemperature has occurred?

A

The APU OVERTEMP warning message displays.

72
Q

What conditions cause an automatic disengagement of the autothrottle system (ATS)?

A

N1 split of 13% or greater Either thrust reverser unlocks

N1 speed > 98.4%detected

73
Q

While climbing, what is the difference between the flight level change (FLC) mode and the vertical speed (VS) mode if the autothrottle system (ATS) is engaged?

A

FLC: ATS will go into N1 mode
VS: ATS will go into SPEED mode

74
Q

What does it mean when a flashing amber AOALIMIT message displays on the mode status display
(MSD)?

A

Indicated airspeed is below 1.2 VS for the selected flap configuration

75
Q

What happens when you press the XFR button on the FCP?

A

It couples the autopilot to the copilot side flight director

76
Q

Name the three modes in which the flight directors (FDs) operate independently.

A

TO GA APPR

77
Q

Which AFCS operates on emergency power only?

A

AFCS 1 (FCC 1A and 2A)

78
Q

What happens if you engage A/P without first selecting a lateral and vertical mode?

A

A/P engages in PITCH and ROLL modes

79
Q

How many yaw dampers and inertial reference systems (IRSs) are needed for autopilot engagement?

A

At least one yaw damper/ 2 IRS

80
Q

In what color order do EICAS messages display?

A

RED/AMBER/GREEN/WHITE The last system to fail is at the top of the stack

81
Q

What immediate actions must be taken when an L JETPIPE OVHT message displays on the EICAS and a “JETPIPE OVERHEAT” aural warning sounds?

A

(1) Disconnect the ATS

(2) Confirm and retard L thrust lever slowly until message goes out

82
Q

Which conditions are required for data concentrator units (DCUs) to inhibit noncritical EICAS caution messages during takeoff?

A

A/C on ground; both N1 > 79%; airspeed > 80 knots

83
Q

What does the “CAVALRY CHARGE” aural tone indicate?

A

Autopilot disconnect

84
Q

What is disabled when the DCU 1 (2) switch/light on the AUDIO WARNING panel is pressed and the DISABLE light comes on?

A

Aural warnings from the selected DCU only

85
Q

How many cabin pressure acquisition modules (CPAMs) are on the Challenger 650? Which indication displays on the EICAS when there is a single CPAM failure? Dual failure?

A

Two
Single failure: white CPAM FAULT
Dual failure: Amber CPAM FAIL

86
Q

Which functions/indications are lost when the CPAM FAIL caution message displays on the EICAS?

A 
Auto mode for the SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING signs 
All indications of cabin altitude, delta P, cabin rate 
CABIN ALT (caution and warning) and CABIN PRESSURE warning
87
Q

Does a CPAM FAIL caution message indicate a loss of automatic pressure control?

A

No; the CPC is independent of the CPAM(s)

88
Q

When does the “CABIN PRESSURE” aural warning sound?

A

When the cabin altitude is greater than 10,000 ft.

14,500 ft. in high alt airfield ops

89
Q

Which bleed air manifold supplies air to operate the packs?

A

10th stage

90
Q

What percentage of conditioned air is distributed to the cabin and cockpit from the left and right packs?

A

Left pack: 60%cockpit/40% cabin Right pack: 100% cabin

91
Q

In which mode do the packs normally operate in flight?

A

Low

92
Q

In flight, under which conditions do the packs automatically operate in high mode?

A

Overpressure or Overtemperature

93
Q

Under which conditions would ram air be used?

A

Smoke clearing or unpressurized flight

94
Q

How is cabin pressure in the aircraft normally controlled?

A

Automatically through the cabin pressure controller (CPC) that electrically controls the primary and secondary outflow valves

95
Q

In flight, at what differential pressure will the outflow valves automatically open?

A
  • 0.5 psid or 9.1+/-0.1psid
96
Q

If you have to return to the
departure field after
takeoff, must you reset the A knob?

A

No. If aircraft stops climbing within 6000’ and within 10 minutes after takeoff, the CPC will switch into Flight Abort Mode and drives the cabin altitude down to the takeoff field elevation.

97
Q

When the EMER DEPRESS switch is pressed, what prevents the cabin altitude from reaching an excessive value?

A

Cabin altitude limiters calibrated at 14,500 +/-500 ft

98
Q

What are the respective maximum ramp and takeoff weights of the Challenger 650?

A

48,300 lb/48,200 lb

99
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the Challenger 650?

A

38,000 lb

100
Q

Which publications are required onboard during flight?

A 
AFM 
FCOM 1 & 2 
Flight Planning and Cruise Control Manual W & B Manual 
Collins FMS 6200 Pilot Guide 
QRH 1&2 
MEL (if applicable)
101
Q

List the possible entry and exit points in the aircraft

A

Passenger door, Emergency exit, Cargo/Baggage door

CL650 Flashcards GM (1 decks)

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