Civil Procedure: Module 5 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a pre-trial?

A

a procedural device by which the court is called upon after the filing of the last pleading to compel the parties and their lawyers to appear before the court and negotiate an amicable settlement.

it is a procedural device intended to clarify and limit the basic issues between the parties.

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2
Q

true or false: pre-trial is part of the hearing.

A

true.

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3
Q

when is a pre-trial conducted by the court?

A

a. upon receipt of an Answer to the complaint which is a responsive pleading

b. the pre-trial date should not be more than 60 days from the filing of the last responsive pleading.

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4
Q

what is the purpose of a pre-trial?

A

to simplify the issues and lay down the rules before proceeding to a full-blown trial.

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5
Q

true or false: pre-trial is not mandatory.

A

false. pre-trial is mandatory and should be terminated promptly.

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6
Q

what happens in case there is failure without just cause of a party and counsel to appear during the pre-trial despite notice?

A

this shall result in a waiver of any objections to the faithfulness of the reproductions marked, or their genuineness and due execution.

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7
Q

what happens in case of failure without just cause of a party and/or counsel to bring the evidence required?

A

this shall be deemed a waiver of the presentation of the evidence.

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8
Q

true or false: at the start of the preliminary conference, the judge is mandated to refer to the parties and/or their counsels to the mediation unit of the Philippine Mediation Center for purposes of mediation.

A

true.

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9
Q

what is the nature and purpose of a pre-trial?

A
  1. to discuss the possibility of an amicable settlement or of a submission to alternative modes of dispute resolution.
  2. simplification of the issues
  3. possibility of obtaining stipulations or admission of facts and of documents to avoid unnecessary proof.
  4. limitation of the number and identification of witnesses and setting of trial dates.
  5. advisability of a preliminary reference of issues to a commissioner.
  6. propriety of rendering judgment on the pleadings, or summary judgment, or of dismissing the action should a valid ground therefore exist.
  7. the requirement for the parties to: (a) mark their
    respective evidence if not yet marked in the judicial
    affidavits of their witnesses and (b) examine and
    make comparisons of the adverse parties’ evidence
    vis-à-vis the copies to be marked
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10
Q

where should the parties be referred to after the pre-trial and the issues are joined?

A

the parties will be referred for mandatory court-annexed mediation.

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11
Q

true or false: the parties should always be referred to the judicial dispute resolution after their mandatory court-annexed mediation.

A

false. only if the judge of the court to which the case was originally raffled is convinced that settlement is still possible, the case may be referred to another court for judicial dispute resolution.

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12
Q

true or false: the judge can allow the termination of a pre-trial simply because of a manifestation of the parties that they cannot settle the case.

A

false. the judge should not allow the termination of a pre-trial simply because of a manifestation of the parties that they cannot settle the case.

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13
Q

who could be considered a commissioner?

A

someone who is considered to be an expert.

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14
Q

what is the job of a commissioner?

A

to determine the facts of the case.

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15
Q

what happens when the judge, during the pre-trial, finds out that there is no more valid issue to be resolved?

A

the judge may render judgment on the pleadings or resort to a summary judgment.

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16
Q

what happens when the judge, during the pre-trial conference, finds out that the case filed by the plaintiff has already prescribed?

A

the court may out rightly dismiss the case.

17
Q

true or false: under the rules, a machine copy is still admissible as evidence in court.

A

true.

18
Q

to whom does the sheriff serve the notice of pre-trial?

A

to the lawyer of the plaintiff and the defendant.

19
Q

what is the effect of lack of notice of pre-trial?

A

lack of notice of the pre-trial voids a subsequently issued decision.

20
Q

what should be stated in the notice to pre-trial?

A

a. date

b. time

c. place

21
Q

what are the exceptions to the appearance of parties?

A
  1. Acts of God
  2. force majeure
  3. duly substantiated physical inability
22
Q

a representative may appear on behalf of a party, but must be fully authorized in writing to do what acts?

A
  1. enter into amicable settlement
  2. submit to alternative modes of dispute resolution
  3. to enter into stipulations or admissions of facts and documents.
23
Q

true or false: written authority must be issued together with the party’s reasons for non-appearance to the pre-trial.

A

true.

24
Q

what is the effect of failure to appear for the plaintiff?

A

dismissal with prejudice.

25
Q

what is the effect of failure to appear for the defendant?

A

plaintiff will be allowed to present his evidence ex parte.

26
Q

true or false: an order dismissing an action with prejudice is not appealable.

A

false. an order dismissing an action with prejudice is appealable.

27
Q

what is the general rule on the termination of the pre-trial?

A

a second pre-trial cannot be granted, the remedy is to go to trial.

28
Q

what is the exception on the rule regarding the termination of the pre-trial?

A

a second pre-trial can be authorized only if the parties themselves had voluntarily agreed that the case be set anew for pre-trial.

29
Q

what is an intervention?

A

a legal proceeding by which a third person, who
is not originally impleaded in the action, is permitted by the court
to become a party by intervening in a pending action after
meeting the conditions and requirement set by the Rules of
Court.

30
Q

what are the grounds for intervention?

A

The intervenor has a legal interest on the matter under
litigation.

  1. The intervenor has a legal interest in the success of either
    of the parties.
  2. The intervenor has a legal interest against both.
  3. The intervenor is so situated as to be adversely affected by
    a distribution or other disposition of property in the custody
    of the court or of an officer thereof.
31
Q

what are the exceptions to intervention?

A
  1. allowed on appeal for indispensable parties
  2. when the intervenor is the Republic
  3. allowed after judgment where necessary to protect some interest which cannot otherwise be protected
  4. class suit
32
Q

true or false: intervention is merely collateral or accessory or ancillary to the principal action and not an independent proceeding.

A

true.