Civil Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

What are the exceptions to diversity jurisdiction?

A

Probate and domestic relations actions

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2
Q

What parties does the Bulge provision apply to?

A
  • Third-party defendant who is joined under Rule 14

- Required party who is joined under Rule 19

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3
Q

When must an appellate court agree to accept an interlocutory appeal?

A

When the trial court issues a certificate for interlocutor appeal stating that it involves 1) a controlling question of law and 2) that the immediate appeal may materially advance termination of the litigation

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4
Q

What is true of service when the US is a defendant in a civil action?

A

Service must be made in the US Attorney General as well as the US attorney for the district in which the action has been filed

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5
Q

When can a motion for judgment on the pleadings be pursued?

A

After the defendant has answered the complaint

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6
Q

What is true when removal is sought solely based on diversity jurisdiction?

A

No defendant can be a citizen of the state in which the action was filed

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7
Q

What are the exceptions to work product privilege?

A

Work product materials contain information not reasonably available by other means
The party would be substantially prejudiced if not allowed to access the materials

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8
Q

Does waiver of service waive objection to personal jurisdiction or venue?

A

No

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9
Q

If an action involves both legal and equitable claims and there are common factual issues, which claim must be heard first?

A

The jury must determine the legal claims first, and the court subsequently determines the equitable claims

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10
Q

What are the three conditions required for federal court to have personal jurisdiction over the defendant under Rule 4(k)(2)?

A
  • The plaintiffs claim must be based on federal law
  • No state court can exercise personal jurisdiction over the defendant
  • The exercise of jurisdiction must be consistent with the US Constitution and laws the defendant must have minimum contacts with the United States
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11
Q

Must an expert employed in anticipation of litigation, who is not expected to be called as a witness at trial be identified?

A

No, absent exceptional circumstances under which it is impracticable for the party to obtain facts or opinions on the same subject by other means

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12
Q

When can a motion for summary judgment be filed?

A

After discovery is complete

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13
Q

Who has the burden of persuasion on a motion for summary judgment?

A

The movant.
Once the movant makes a prima facia showing that summary judgment is appropriate, the burden shifts to the opposing party to set for the specific evidence showing that existence of a genuine issue of fact for trial

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14
Q

Is a party who is asserting a claim required to join other independent or alternative claims against its opposing party?

A

No the party is permitted to join claims but not compelled

However, res judicata concerns will often practically required joinder

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15
Q

Can a court order, on its own initiative, a new trial for any reason that would justify granting a new trial on the motion of a party?

A

Yes, but the court must specify the reasons and its order

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16
Q

Supplemental jurisdiction exists for diversity cases for which types of claims?

A

Cross-claims and compulsory counterclaims, when they arise out of the same common nucleus of facts

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17
Q

In a civil trial, may a verdict be returned by a jury of fewer than six members?

A

Yes, if the parties so stipulate

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18
Q

What is true when a plaintiff is claiming fraud or mistake?

A

The circumstances must be stated with particularity

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19
Q

If a court renders a decision on final judgment with regard to one issue but leaves other issues open has there been a final judgment?

A

No. As a result, the decision is not appealable

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20
Q

When may a plaintiff dismiss an action without court approval or the agreement of other parties?

A

Prior to the service of an answer or a summary judgment motion

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21
Q

When must a party serve an answer or reply?

A

Within 21 days after being served

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22
Q

When must a party make a demand for trial by jury?

A

Within 14 days after service of the last pleading

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23
Q

Where is a partnership considered a citizen for diversity purposes?

A

A partnership is considered a citizen of each state in which each of its partners is domiciled

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24
Q

When may a party appeal based on an order of class action certification?

A

If the party files a petition with the circuit clerk within 14 days after the order is entered
The court has discretion to deny the appeal

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25
Q

Which interlocutory orders are available immediately as a matter of right?

A

An order regarding the injunction
An order and pointing or refusing to appoint a receiver
An order involving a controlling question of law for which there is substantial ground for difference or opinion

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26
Q

What is a declaratory judgment?

A

A ruling in which the court tells the parties to a dispute with the rights, responsibilities, or obligations are, without awarding damages or ordering the parties to do anything.

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27
Q

What are two exceptions to the voluntarily present service rule?

A

The plaintiff fraudulently bring the defendant into the state for the purpose of serving process
The defendant is merely passing through the state to attend other judiciary proceedings

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28
Q

When must a notice of appeal be filed with a district clerk?

A

Within 30 days after the judgment or order appealed from is entered

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29
Q

What is an exception to the dormant commerce clause?

A

Explicit permission by Congress to regulate through a certain method
When the state is a market participant (buyer or seller), as opposed to a market regulator

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30
Q

May Congress tax goods exported to foreign countries?

A

No, under the Export Taxation Clause, a tax or duty that falls in goods during the course of exportation or on services or activities closely related to the export process is prohibited

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31
Q

Is the court allowed to order a responsive time earlier or later than would typically be required?

A

Yes.

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32
Q

What is true about the date on which the plaintiff files the waiver form with the court, if the defendant waives service?

A

This is the date deemed as the date of service of process

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33
Q

What is required for a motion to compel physical examination?

A

Good cause (satisfied if the plaintiff has put his physical condition in controversy

34
Q

When must a party make a demand for jury trial?

A

Within 14 days after service of the last pleasing directed to the issue that is sought to be tried by a jury

35
Q

What types of claims require special pleading?

A

Fraud or mistake

Special damages

36
Q

Do counterclaims have to meet the amount in controversy requirement?

A

Yes: counterclaim is permissive
No: counterclaim is compulsory
(Supplemental jurisdiction rules)

37
Q

What is the final judgment rule?

A

Resolution of ALL claims against ALL parties on the merits

38
Q

What is required for removal?

A

Filing of notice to remove within 30 days after receipt by or service
All defendants who have been properly joined and served are required to join in and consent
The case could have been originally properly brought in district court
For diversity cases, no defendant can be a citizen of the state in which the action was filed

39
Q

Where is venue proper in an action against an officer or employee of the United States acting in an official capacity or under color of legal authority?

A

Where the defendant in the action resides
Where a substantial part of the event or omissions occurred
Where the plaintiff resides, if no real property is involved in the action

40
Q

When does federal common law apply in diversity cases?

A

When a “uniquely federal interest” is at stake and a significant conflict exists between that interest and operation of state law

41
Q

What laws can service of process follow?

A

The federal Rules of Civil Procedure
State law in the state with the District Court is located
State law where service is made

42
Q

What is true regarding verdicts in error?

A

If a court believes that the jury has returned an erroneous verdict because it did it properly follow its instructions, the court may set aside the verdict and ask the jury to reconsider the issue or alternatively order a new trial

43
Q

What mandatory disclosures must be made before trial?

A

Initial disclosures
Disclosures of expert testimony 90 days before trial
Pre trial disclosures 30 days before trial

44
Q

What review standard are sanctions subject to?

A

Abuse of discretion

45
Q

What is required for pre-judgment attachment of property in a state?

A

That state must have personal jurisdiction (minimum contacts) with the defendant

46
Q

Does TRO require notice provided for the other side?

A

No, but the moving party must establish, under written path, that immediate and irreparable injury will result prior to hearing the adverse party’s opposition
And the movant’s attorney certifies in writing any efforts made to give notice and the reason why notice should not be required

47
Q

What is true regarding affirmative defenses in answers?

A

They must be stated or that defense is waived

48
Q

What suffices as “on the merits” for res judicata purposes?

A

Judgment entered after a full trial, summary judgment, judgment as a matter of law, and default judgment where the booth has jurisdiction over the subject matter and personal jurisdicton over the parties

49
Q

What happens if there is a lack of unanimity when jurors are polled?

A

Court may order the jury to continued deliberations or may order a new trial

50
Q

What standard should be applied for factual findings?

A

Clearly erroneous

51
Q

May a party make a general denial of all allegations in good faith?

A

Yes

52
Q

Does a defendant have to file an answer while another motion is pending?

A

No. The defendant has 14 days after the court’s denial to answer.

53
Q

When is dismissal appropriate as a sanction?

A

When party’s conduct is serious, repeated, extreme, and otherwise inexcusable.

54
Q

Where is venue proper under a federal tort claims act?

A

Either the judicial district where the plaintiff resides or in the judicial district where the act or omission occurred

55
Q

If a judgment has been issued by federal court, which state’s law should a future court consider in deciding claim preclusion

A

The court in the state where the federal court is located would have given the judgment

56
Q

Can parties waive subject matter jurisdiction?

A

No.

57
Q

When must initial disclosures be made?

A

Within 14 days after the parties’ discovery conference

58
Q

What must be made before requesting court sanctions for failure to disclose?

A

Requesting party must make a motion to compel

59
Q

When can the plaintiff request the court clerk to enter a default judgment (without applying to the court)?

A

When it is for a sum certain

60
Q

Who has the burden regarding the existence of jurisdiction?

A

Plaintiff has the burden of proving jurisdiction

61
Q

How long may an interlocutory injunction remain in effect?

A

14 days, unless good cause exists or by consent of the adversary

62
Q

What must be raised in a pre-answer motion or it’s waived?

A

Lack of personal jurisdiction, improper venue, insufficient process, insufficient service of process

63
Q

What is required for 23(b)(3) certification?

A

Questions of law or fact common to the class members predominate over any questions affecting only individual members, and a class action is the superior method in bringing about fair adjudication

64
Q

Is additur allowed in federal court cases?

A

No. The court only has the option of ordering a new trial. If the court determines that a verdict is excessive, it may offer a reduction of the verdict called remittitur

65
Q

What is guaranteed by the privileges and immunities clause of the 14th amendment?

A

The right to travel freely among states

66
Q

Who must service be completed by?

A

Any nonparty who is at least 18 years old.

67
Q

What is a Rule 23(b)(1) class certification?

A

Class is certified because prosecution of separate actions would create the risk that the class opponent would become subject to incompatible standards of conduct resulting from inconsistent adjudications, or impair interests of class members

68
Q

What is Rule 23(b)(2) certification?

A

Class is certified is the class shares a general claim of equitable relief against opposing party?

69
Q

What are the requirements for class actions under CAFA?

A

Class action involves at least 100 members
Primary defendants are not government entities
Not securities cases
Amount in controversy exceeds $5 million
Minimum diversity exists: any plaintiff is from different state as any defendant

70
Q

When must pretrial disclosures happen?

A

At least 30 days before trial, unless the court orders otherwise

71
Q

Can a case that originated in federal court be remanded?

A

No

72
Q

For depositions, leave of court must be obtained to:

A

Exceed the 10-deposition limitation
Depose a witness a second time
Depose a person before the deposing party has complied with its initial disclosure requirements under 26(a)

73
Q

Is a defendant constitutionally entitled to be represented at trial by a qualifier attorney of the defendant’s choice, where that attorney is not provided by the state?

A

Yes.

74
Q

What is a compulsory counterclaim?

A

A claim arising out of the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff’s claim

75
Q

What is required for a trial to be on the merits?

A

The decision must have been made in consideration of the merits of the claim or defense. This includes judgments entered after a full trial, summary judgment, judgment as a matter of law, and default judgment where the court has jurisdiction over the subject matter and personal jurisdiction over the parties

76
Q

What is the process for determining whether an issue involves substance or procedure?

A
  1. Determine whether conflict exists before state and federal law
  2. Ask if whether a valid federal statute exists. If so, apply it.
  3. If not, ask whether failure to apply state law will lead to different outcomes. If yes, apply state law, unless affirmative countervailing federal interests are at stake that warrant application of federal law.
77
Q

Does a federal district court have an inherent power to assess attorney’s fees as a sanction?

A

Yes, for defendant’s bad behavior. This is allowed even if the law of the forum state provides that attorney’s fees may not be awarded to a successful party

78
Q

How many days does a party have to correct Rule 11 sanctions?

A

21 days

79
Q

What is an involuntary dismissal presumed to be?

A

With prejudice and operates as an adjudication on the merits. (The dismissal based on lack of jurisdiction, improper venue, or failure to join an indispensable party, however, does not operate as an adjudication on the merits)

80
Q

When can a defendant move to dismiss an action by a plaintiff?

A

If the plaintiff fails to prosecute or to comply with the rules or a court order

81
Q

What types of involuntary dismissal are without prejudice?

A

Lack of jurisdiction, improper venue, failure to join a necessary party