Civil Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

What is the jurisdiction of federal courts?

A

Federal courts have limited jurisdiction and may only hear cases where subject matter jurisdiction is established.

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2
Q

What is required for a federal court to have diversity jurisdiction?

A

Complete diversity of citizenship and amount in controversy exceeding $75,000, exclusive of interest and costs.

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3
Q

Define complete diversity.

A

Complete diversity exists when no plaintiff shares state citizenship with any defendant.

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4
Q

How is an individual’s citizenship determined?

A

By domicile, which requires physical presence in a state and intent to remain indefinitely.

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5
Q

What determines the citizenship of corporations?

A

A corporation is a citizen of its state of incorporation and its principal place of business.

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6
Q

How is the citizenship of partnerships and LLCs determined?

A

They take on the citizenship of each of their members for diversity purposes.

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7
Q

What is the amount in controversy requirement for federal jurisdiction?

A

Must exceed $75,000; the plaintiff’s good faith claim controls unless it is clear to a legal certainty that they cannot recover more.

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8
Q

Can a single plaintiff aggregate claims against multiple defendants?

A

No, multiple plaintiffs cannot aggregate claims unless they have a common, undivided interest.

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9
Q

Does diversity jurisdiction extend to foreign citizens?

A

Yes, unless the foreign citizen has been lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the same state as a U.S. citizen party.

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10
Q

What establishes federal question jurisdiction?

A

A claim arising under the U.S. Constitution, federal statutes, treaties, or other federal law.

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11
Q

What is supplemental jurisdiction?

A

A federal court may exercise supplemental jurisdiction over additional claims arising from a common nucleus of operative fact with the original claim.

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12
Q

What are the limitations on supplemental jurisdiction involving diversity?

A

The court cannot exercise supplemental jurisdiction over claims by plaintiffs that would destroy complete diversity.

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13
Q

Under what circumstances can a federal court decline supplemental jurisdiction?

A

If the claim raises a novel or complex issue of state law, predominates over federal claims, all federal claims are dismissed, or other compelling reasons exist.

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14
Q

What is the time limit for a defendant to file for removal?

A

Within 30 days of receiving the initial pleading that makes the case removable.

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15
Q

What is the home-state defendant rule?

A

Removal based on diversity jurisdiction is barred if any defendant is a citizen of the state where the case was originally filed.

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16
Q

What is personal jurisdiction?

A

Personal jurisdiction is the court’s authority to require a defendant to appear and defend a lawsuit in a particular state. There are two types (1) traditional, and (2) modern basis.

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17
Q

What establishes traditional personal jurisdiction?

A

Defendant is domiciled in the forum state, consents to jurisdiction, or is served with process while physically present in the state.

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18
Q

Modern Basis:

A

Modern basis are (1) Long Arm Statute, and (2) Constitutionality. If PJ exists under the modern test, determine which type of jurisdiction applies, general or specific.

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19
Q

State Long-Arm Statutes

A

A court may exercise jurisdiction under the state’s long-arm statute, which allows jurisdiction over out-of-state defendants to the extent permitted by the U.S. Constitution (FRCP 4(k)).

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20
Q

Constitutionality (Jurisdiction)

A

Under the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, a court may exercise personal jurisdiction over an out-of-state defendant only if the defendant has sufficient minimum contacts with the forum state such that jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice (International Shoe Co. v. Washington).

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21
Q

What are minimum contacts?

A

The defendant must have purposefully availed themselves of the forum state in a way that makes it foreseeable they could be sued there.

In determining whether such minimum contacts are present, courts look to three things: 1) the level of contacts with the forum state, 2) the relatedness of those contacts to the cause of action, and 3) whether the exercise of jurisdiction would be fair.

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22
Q

What is purposeful availment?

A

A defendant purposefully avails themselves of a forum by deliberately engaging in activities directed at the forum state, such as conducting business, signing a contract, or using the state’s roads.

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23
Q

What is general jurisdiction?

A

A court has general jurisdiction over a defendant if their contacts with the forum state are so systematic and continuous that they are essentially at home there.

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24
Q

What is specific jurisdiction?

A

A court has specific jurisdiction over a defendant if (1) the claim arises out of or relates to the defendant’s contacts with the forum state and (2) exercising jurisdiction is reasonable (Bristol-Myers Squibb Co. v. Superior Court).

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25
Q

What fairness factors (5) must be considered for personal jurisdiction?

A

Even if minimum contacts exist, the court must consider whether jurisdiction would be fair by evaluating:

  • Convenience to the defendant
  • Forum state’s interest
  • Plaintiff’s interest
  • Judicial system’s interest in efficiency
  • Shared interests of states in furthering substantive policies.
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26
Q

What is the timely assertion requirement for personal jurisdiction?

A

A defendant must assert lack of personal jurisdiction in a Rule 12(b)(2) motion before filing an answer or in the answer itself, or it will be waived.

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27
Q

Service

A

Must be made within 90 days but upon showing of good cause, the court must extend an additional appropriate period.

In CA service must be made within 60 days of filing a complaint. Requires summons and complaint. Failure to serve in time results in a dismissal without prejudice.

28
Q

Where is venue proper?

A
  • Any district where a defendant resides
  • Where a substantial portion of the claim occurred, or property is located
  • Where any defendant is subject to personal jurisdiction.
29
Q

Proper Venue in California:

A

In CA venue is proper in:
(1) Local actions (involving real property) → County where the property is located.
(2) Transitory actions (contract/tort claims) → County where any defendant resides.
(3) Contract cases → County where the obligation was to be performed, or contract was made.
(4) Personal injury/wrongful death → County where the injury occurred or where any defendant resides.

30
Q

What are the methods of Service of Process?

A

Process may be served by anyone 18 or older who is not a party to the case. The federal methods of service upon individuals are (1) deliver to the defendant personally, (2) leave at the defendant’s dwelling with someone of suitable age and discretion who lives there (California also requires mailing), or (3) deliver to defendant’s agent.

31
Q

What does the Erie Doctrine require?

A

Under the Erie Doctrine, a federal court sitting in diversity jurisdiction must apply the substantive law of the state where it sits and the procedural law of the federal system.

32
Q

What factors determine whether a rule is substantive or procedural under the Erie Doctrine?

A

Courts determine whether a rule is substantive, or procedural based on whether:

(1) The rule is outcome-determinative,
(2) There is a strong federal interest in applying federal law, and
(3) Applying federal law would lead to forum shopping (Hanna v. Plumer).

33
Q

What must a party seeking a Temporary Restraining Order show?

A
  • Likelihood of success on the merits
  • Irreparable harm absent relief
  • Balance of hardships favors the movant
  • Injunction is in the public interest.
34
Q

When can you motion to dismiss for failure to state a claim?

A

When a complaint does not allege sufficient facts to give the defendant notice of the claim and its basis.

Under Twombly and Iqbal, courts first disregard conclusory allegations, then assess whether the remaining facts, taken as true, plausibly support a claim for relief.

35
Q

What is required for fraud pleadings under federal and California law?

A

Specific facts detailing who, what, when, where, and how the fraud occurred.

36
Q

What is the general rule for amending a complaint?

A

A plaintiff may amend their complaint once as a matter of right before the defendant files a responsive pleading.

After that, amendments require either the opposing party’s consent or leave of court, which should be freely given when justice requires.

37
Q

What does the relation back doctrine state?

A

An amended complaint relates back if the original was timely filed and the new claim arises out of the same transaction.

38
Q

What makes a party necessary under compulsory joinder?

A

When complete relief cannot be granted without them, or their absence exposes existing parties to multiple obligations.

39
Q

What are the requirements for permissive joinder?

A

The claims must arise out of the same transaction ; there there is a common question of law or fact.

40
Q

What is impleader?

A

A defendant may bring in a third party who is or may be liable for all or part of the plaintiff’s claim.

41
Q

What is required for a nonparty to intervene in a lawsuit?

A

They must have a significant interest that may be impaired and not be adequately represented.

42
Q

What is the general rule for the scope of discovery?

A

Parties may obtain discovery of any nonprivileged material that is relevant to any party’s claim or defense and proportional to the needs of the case; it does not have to be admissible at trial.

43
Q

What are automatic disclosures?

A

Parties must automatically disclose certain information, including witnesses, documents, and damages calculations, that they intend to use to support their claims or defenses. Unlike federal courts, California does not require automatic initial disclosures.

44
Q

What is required for a motion to compel?

A

A motion to compel requires a good-faith certification that the moving party has conferred or attempted to confer with the opposing party, but discovery was still refused.

California law additionally requires a separate statement detailing the discovery requests and responses.

45
Q

What is required for disclosure of expert witnesses?

A

A party is required to disclose the names and identities of all expert witnesses who will testify at trial. Disclosure of experts hired simply to prepare for litigation (but who will not testify at trial) is not required.

46
Q

What is a privilege log?

A

When a party withholds documents or information based on privilege or work product protection, it must provide a privilege log identifying the withheld material and the basis for the privilege (FRCP 26(b)(5)). Failure to timely produce a privilege log or sufficiently describe withheld materials may result in waiver of the privilege.

47
Q

What does the work product doctrine protect?

A

Materials prepared in anticipation of litigation by or for a party or their representative.

48
Q

What is the standard for absolute or qualified protection of opinion work product?

A

Attorney mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, and legal theories are absolutely protected and never discoverable.

Fact-based work product is discoverable if the requesting party shows (1) substantial need and (2) undue hardship in obtaining the equivalent. California standard is lower, requiring only a showing of unfair prejudice or injustice.

49
Q

What does attorney-client privilege protect?

A

Confidential communications between an attorney and client made for legal advice.

50
Q

Under what conditions can a court order a physical or mental examination?

A

A court may order a physical or mental examination of a party if (1) their condition is in controversy and (2) good cause is shown.

The moving party must provide specific facts demonstrating necessity for the examination. Mere allegations are insufficient.

51
Q

What is required for a motion for summary judgment?

A

No issue of material fact exists, and a party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.

52
Q

When can a motion to dismiss for lack of subject matter jurisdiction be filed?

A

At any time, even on appeal.

53
Q

When is a Motion to Dismiss for Lack of PJ appropriate?

A

When viewing the facts in the most favorable light to the defendant, the plaintiff has failed to satisfy the elements of personal jurisdiction. Failure to object to personal jurisdiction before answering or in a party’s first 12(b)(6) motion waives the issue.

54
Q

What is a General Demurrer and Special Demurrer in CA?

A

A general demurrer is for failure to state a legal claim.

A special demurrer is for ambiguity, uncertainty, lack of capacity, or misjoinder.

55
Q

What amendment guarantees the right to a jury trial?

A

The Seventh Amendment in suits at common law exceeding $20.

56
Q

What is the time frame for demanding a jury trial?

A

A party must demand a jury trial within 14 days of the last pleading, or the right is waived.

In CA, a party must post jury fees before the first case management conference or waive the right to a jury trial.

57
Q

What happens when a complaint alleges both legal and equitable remedies?

A

The court should separate questions and hold a jury trial on the legal question first and a bench trial on the equitable issue. In CA it’s the opposite.

58
Q

What is the time frame for demanding a jury trial?

A

A party must demand a jury trial within 14 days of the last pleading, or the right is waived.
In CA, a party must post jury fees before the first case management conference or waive the right to a jury trial.

59
Q

What should the court do when a complaint alleges both legal and equitable remedies and demands a jury trial?

A

When a complaint alleges both legal and equitable remedies and demands a jury trial, the court should separate the questions and hold a jury trial on the legal question first. It can then move to a bench trial on the equitable question. It is the opposite in CA.

60
Q

What is a Judgment on the Pleadings?

A

Can be motioned for when material facts are not in dispute and the pleadings reveal merits of the claim for either party. Filed only after an answer has been filed and pleadings are closed.

61
Q

What does a JMOL motion request?

A

A JMOL motion asks the court to enter judgment without jury consideration.

The court must view all evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmoving party, without weighing evidence or assessing credibility.

JMOL is granted only if no reasonable jury could find for the nonmoving party based on the evidence presented.

62
Q

What is Claim Preclusion (Res Judicata)?

A

Bars relitigating of a claim if (1) the same claim was fully litigated on the merits, (2) there was a final judgment by a court with jurisdiction, and (3) the parties are the same.

63
Q

What test do federal courts use for Claim Preclusion?

A

Federal courts use the “transactional test”, barring all claims arising from the same transaction. California follows the “primary rights theory,” allowing separate lawsuits for distinct injuries.

64
Q

What is Issue Preclusion (Collateral Estoppel)?

A

Bars relitigating of an issue if:

(1) the same issue was actually litigated and decided,
(2) there was a final judgment on the merits,
(3) the issue was essential to the judgment, and
(4) in cases of non-mutual issue preclusion, applying it would be fair.

65
Q

What is the Final Judgment Rule (28 U.S.C. § 1291)?

A

An appeal is permitted only from a final judgment, which resolves all claims and all parties in the case.

66
Q

What does the Collateral Order Doctrine allow?

A

Immediate appeal of certain non-final district court orders if they (1) conclusively determine a disputed issue, (2) resolve an important issue separate from the merits, and (3) are effectively unreviewable after final judgment.

67
Q

What orders are immediately appealable as a matter of right under 28 U.S.C. § 1292(a)(1)?

A

Orders granting, modifying, or dissolving an injunction.