Civil Procedure Flashcards
What is the purpose of the Civil Procedure Act?
Per s1:
- Reform and modernise laws, practice, procedure and processes relating to civil proceedings
- Provide an overarching purpose to facilitate the just, efficient, timely and cost-effective resolution of the real issues in sidpute
- Amend the Act to reflect new procedures
What does the Civil Procedure Act apply to?
All civil proceedings (other than under certain Act): s4
What is the Overarching Purpose?
To facilitate the just, efficient, timely and cost-effective resolution of the real issues in dispute: s7
What gives effect to the Overarching Purpose?
Per s8, in the exercise of its powers the court must seek to give effect to the OP, and have regard to the mandatory and optional factors in s9.
To whom and when do the Overarching Obligations apply?
Per s10, obligations apply to any party, practitioner, practice, or person providing assistance with direct or indirect control, but not witnesses (other than expert witnesses).
Per s11, obligations apply in respect of the conduct of any aspect of a civil proceeding.
To what do the Overarching Obligations prevail over?
Subject to the paramount duty, over any other obligation except a practitioners s15 duty to court and the s13 duty to the client: s12
May a practitioner cause their client to breach the overarching obligations?
No: s14
What are the Overarching Obligations?
- The PARAMOUNT DUTY to the court and to justice: s16
- Honesty: s17
- Proper basis: s18
- Only take steps to resolve: s19
- Cooperate: s20
- Not mislead: s21
- Reasonable endeavours to resolve: s22
- Narrow issues: s23
- Ensure costs reasonable and proportionate: s24
- Act promptly and minimise delay: s25
- Disclose existence of documents: s26
What happens if there’s a breach to the Overarching Obligations, and who can make an application?
Per s28, in exercising any power the Court may take into account any contravention (including for costs orders)
Per s29, court may make any order appropriate (including payment of costs)
Per s30 by any person with sufficient interest prior to finalisation of proceeding (but per s31 may get extension if they were unaware of contravention)
What powers does the court have to case manage?
- s47 general power
- s48 pre-trial power
- s49 trial and hearing power
- s50 power to order parties consult and prepare statement of issues
- s51 power to dismiss/strike/limit claims/defences, disallow/reject evidence, costs
- s52 power to revoke or vary
What are the certification requirements? What if it’s urgent? What if there’s non-compliance?
- Each party must certify read and understood OO and PD filed with first substantive doc: s41
- Practitioner must file PB certification filed with first substantive doc: s42
- If urgent, party file file without complying but must file ASApracticable (s44) and a failure to comply does not prevent commencement of proceedings (s45) but it might have consequences such as costs: s46
How is a proceeding commenced?
Normally by writ, but if no defendant or Act or rule requires them by originating motion, and optionally by originating motion if there us unlikely to be any substantial dispute of fact with no pleadings or discovery: r4.01, r4.05, r4.06
How is an interlocutory application commenced?
By summons: r4.02
What are the names of the parties?
Plaintiff/defendant except in some cases appellant and respondent: r4.03
What happens if a proceeding is wrongly commenced by originating motion?
The court may order it continue as if commenced by writ providing there is a defendant and it is more convenient: r4.07
What power does the court have in urgent cases?
It may make any order as if the applicant had commenced if they so intend and have given an undertaking to do so within such time as directed: r4.08
What is the form of a writ?
In Form 5A, indorsed with a statement re apperance time, with a statement of claim or statement of reasonable particularity, with the remedy sought and the Act (if Any) with any questions to be stated, any representative capacity, with the address of the plaintiff and any defendant (and their solicitors and email addressess if any), the place and mode of trial desired, if for debt only the amount and costs claimed and a statement that if paid the proceeding will end, signed by plaintiff or solicitor: order 5
What commences a proceeding?
The filing of an originating process and the Prothontary receiving it or electronically filing in RedCrest: r5.11
How long is a writ or originating motion valid for after filing?
1 year: r5.12
How does a defendant file a counter-claim?
By filing a defence and counter-claim together (r10.01) containing a second title of the proceedings served on the new defendant within the time fixed for serving the defence, with the defendant to the counterclaim filing a notice of apperance in Form 10B (r10.04), after which the claim and counter-claim will be tried together (r10.05)
What if a counter-claim would embarass or delay the trial or cause prejudice?
The court may order separate trials, exclude any claim, strike counter-claim without prejudice, and exclude any party that was joined: r10.06
What happens if a counterclaimant admits everything in the primary proceeding?
The Court may stay the original proceeding until the counterclaim is disposed of: r10.07
What happens to a counterclaim if the original proceeding reaches judgment, is stayed, discountined or dismissed?
Nothing, the dismissal of the original claim does not prevent the counterclaim being prosecuted: r10.08
What happens if both the plaintiff and the counterclaiming defendant win?
The court may give judgment for the balance: r10.09
Can the defendant of the counter claim file and serve a third party notice?
Yes: r11.17
What happens if a defendant to a proceeding wants to make a claim against a third party, e.g. for indemnity?
Once the defence is served (r11.05) they can join the new party a a third party and making their claim by filing and serving a third party notice (r11.01) within 60 days (r11.15) in Form 11A and indorsed with a statement of claim (r11.02), upon filing the 3P becomes a party with the 3P notice to be filed and served as if it was an originating process (r11.04) to be served within 60 days (r11.15)
What are the service requirements for a third party notice?
Served 60 days within filing unless the court orders otherwise (failure to comply may lead to separate trials), served with copies of relevant orders, consents, writs, pleadings and affidavits, copy to plaintiff and any other appeared party: r11.07
What happens if a party is served a third party notice?
They must file and serve an appearance within 10 days (r11.03) then the new defendant must serve a defence within 30 days (r11.09)
What does a pleading need to have?
A description, date, numbered paras per allegation, and be signed by counsel/solicitor/party (r13.01) with a summary of material facts, provisions in acts, and remedy (r13.02), with the effect of any document or purpose of conversation pleaded as briefly as possible without precise words (r13.03), necessary particulars of any fact or matter including alleged wrongdoing, bodily injury, etc (r13.10)
What does a defence needs to contain if the defendant believes a fact or matter makes an allegation in the SoC that is not maintainable?
it must be plead specifically: r13.07
Can pleadings of fact be pleaded in alternative?
Yes: r13.09
What happens if the particulars are not enough?
Once asked for by letter, the court can order further and better particulars: r13.11
What should a defence contain?
Unless each allegation of fact is denied or not admitted, it will be taken to be admitted: r13.12
What if a writ or originating process requires amendment before anything is served?
With leave of the Prothonotary or court a party may emend if an affidavit is filed stating nothing has been served and all sealed copies are returned to the Court, then any amendments are to be distinguished: r36.03
What if a pleading needs to be amended before (or after) pleadings have closed?
A party has the right to make the amendment (but if pleadings have closed requires consent or leave of the court under r36.01): r36.04
Once a pleading is amended, how long does a party have after service to reply?
30 days: r36.06
What is the form of evidence for a trial of a proceeding commenced by originating motion?
By affidavit unless parties agree: r45.02
What happens in an originating motion if a defendant fails to file an appearance?
Default judgment: r45.03
In a proceeding by originating motion, how does a party obtain an interlocutory order once an appearance has been filed?
By making an application under r45.04
What if an interlocutory order in a proceeding commenced by originating motion is required urgently?
Use the special procedure outlined in r45.05
If a party serves an offer of compromise in writing on terms specified, in writing and containing a statement to the effect that it is served in accordance with THIS order, and the offer is inclusive of costs or that costs are to be paid or received in addition, what order is that?
Order 26
What is the minimum time that an Order 26 must be left open?
14 days: r26.03
Can multiple Order 26 offers be made?
Yes: r26.03(2)
What is the default payment period for an Order 26 offer?
28 days: r26.03.1
Are Offer 26 offers by default without prejudice?
Yes: r26.04
What happens if a party who accepted an Order 26 offer doesn’t pay within the time limit?
The non-defaulting party may withdraw the offer if the Court grants leave, and seek orders to restore the parties to their position as of the time of acceptance: r26.07.1
What happens if a party who has accepted an Order 26 offer fails to comply with the terms?
The non-defaulting party may apply to the court to give effect to the offer, stay or dismiss proceedings, strike defences or order the claim shall proceed: r26.07.1
What rule applies re costs if an Order 26 offer is not accepted?
Rule 26.08
What is the court’s power to order discovery?
Per s55 a court may make any order or direction in relation to discovery.
When can the court order a without prejudice provision of documents?
Per s55A if the parties consent and satisfied not likely to give rise to substantial prejudice, without unreasonable cost, and are able to be identified by description or category