Civil Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

When are two claims considered related for the purposes of supplemental jurisdiction?

A

When the claims arise out of a common nucleus of operative fact

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2
Q

What are the four requirements for a class action?

A

(1) Numerosity
- the class must be so numerous that joinder of all members is impracticable
(2) Commonality
- there must be questions of law or fact that are common to the class
(3) Typicality
- the claims or defenses of the representatives must be typical of the class
(4) Adequacy
- the representatives must fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class

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3
Q

Due process requirement for in personam jurisdiction

A

Satisfied if the D has sufficient minimum contacts with the forum state such that the maintenance of the action doesn’t offend fair play and substantial justice

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4
Q

Where is venue proper?

A

generally, (1) district where any defendant resides (if they reside in the same state as the district), or (2) judicial district where a “substantial part of the events or omissions” on which the claim is based occurred, or if property, a “substantial part of the property” is located there

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5
Q

Under Erie Doctrine, what law governs in a diversity action

A

in a diversity action, the court is to apply the substantive law of the state where it is located as long as there is no federal law on the point

For procedural law, federal law is applied even if it conflicts with a state rule or statute

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6
Q

Requirements for plaintiff seeking a preliminary injunction

A

Must establish that:
(1) likely to succeed on the merits
(2) likely to suffer irreparable harm in the absence of relief
(3) the balance of equities is in his favor; and
(4) the injunction is in the best interest of the public

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7
Q

What are the required elements for a complaint?

A

Under Rule 8(a), a complaint must include:
(1) a short and plain statement of the grounds that establish the court’s subject matter jurisdiction
(2) a short and plain statement of the claim establishing entitlement to relief; and
(3) a demand for judgement for the relief sought by the pleader

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8
Q

Federal question jurisdiction

A

District courts have original jurisdiction over all actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the US

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9
Q

When can a party amend a pleading?

A

(1) Once as of right within 21 days if no responsive pleading is required; or
(2) if a responsive pleading is required,
- within 21 days of service of the responsive pleading or - within 21 days of being served with a motion under Rule 12(b), whichever is earlier

Court should freely give leave to amend a pleading when justice so requires

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10
Q

When may a plaintiff join as a permissive joinder?

A

Under Rule 20(a)(1), a person may join in one action as plaintiff if:
(1) they assert any right to relief jointly, severally, or in the alternative with respect to or arising out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences; and
(2) any question of law or fact common to all plaintiffs will arise in the action

same circumstances apply to permissive joinder of defendants under Rule 20

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11
Q

Under Rule 20 permissive joinder, does the plaintiff to be joined have to meet the requirements of federal subject matter jurisdiction?

A

If multiple plaintiffs join together, then supplemental jurisdiction can exist for a claim that does not meet the statutory jurisdictional amount, provided the parties still meet the requirements of complete diversity

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12
Q

When must an objection to improper venue be raised?

A

in a pre-answer motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(3) or in the first responsive pleading, if a motion under Rule 12(b)(3) is not filed

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13
Q

5 bases for in personam jurisdiction

A

(1) voluntary presence
(2) domicile
(3) consent
(4) long-arm statutes
(5) attachment

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14
Q

What is a compulsory counterclaim?

A

a pleading is required to state as a counterclaim any claim that, at the time of service, the pleader has against an opposing party if:
(1) the claim arises out of the same transaction or occurrence that is the subject matter of the opposing party’s claim; and
(2) the claim does not require adding another party over whom the court cannot acquire jurisdiction

note: a party who fails to assert a compulsory counterclaim waives the right to sue on the claim and is generally precluded from ever suing on the claim in federal court

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15
Q

What are the three types of personal jurisdiction?

A

(1) in personam jurisdiction
(2) in rem jurisdiction
(3) quasi-in-rem jurisdiction

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16
Q

What are the three types of class actions

A

(1) Risk of Prejudice
- class is maintainable if the prosecution of separate actions would create the risk that the class opponent would become subject to incompatible standards of conduct resulting from inconsistent adjudications, or if prosecution of the claims through separate actions would impair the interests of the class members
(2) Final Equitable Relief
- a class seeking final injunctive or declaratory relief may be certified if the class shares a general claim against the opposing party
(3) Common Legal or Factual Questions
- a class can be certified if questions of law or fact that are common to the class members predominate over any questions affecting only individual members, and a class action is the superior method of bringing about a fair and efficient adjudication of the controversy

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17
Q

Replevin

A

Seizure of personal property in defendant’s possession that is transferred to plaintiff’s possession pending the outcome of suit

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18
Q

Preliminary Injunction

A

Court order commanding or prohibiting specifies action while the case is pending

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19
Q

Temporary restraining order

A

court order commanding or prohibiting specified action for 14 days or until preliminary-injunction hearing can take place (whichever occurs first)

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20
Q

Attachment

A

seizure of person’s property to secure or satisfy future judgment

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21
Q

Garnishment

A

court order directing third party to hold indebted party’s assets (eg wages) until further judicial notice

22
Q

Receivership

A

appointment of neutral third party to manage and administer disputed assets/property

23
Q

When bringing a class action under common legal or factual questions, what 7 pieces of of information must be stated in the notice provided to the members?

A

(1) the nature of the action
(2) the definition of the class
(3) the class claims, issues, or defenses
(4) that a class member may enter an appearance through an attorney if the member so desired
(5) that the court will exclude from the class any member who requests exclusion
(6) the time and manner for requesting exclusion; and
(7) the binding effect of a class judgement on members

24
Q

3 types of mandatory disclosures?

A

(1) initial disclosures
(2) disclosures of expert testimony 90 days before trial
(3) pretrial disclosures 30 days before trial

25
When assessing if a case can be filed in federal court, when is diversity determined?
diversity is determined at the time the case is filed note: no requirement that diversity exist at the time the cause of action arose note: a change in citizenship or amount in controversy after the filing of the case will not affect diversity jurisdiction that that existed at the time of filing note: change of parties as a result of substitution or intervention will not affect diversity jurisdiction
26
How does a party make a demand for a trial by jury?
any party may make a written demand for a trial by jury demand may be made separately or in a pleading- must be served within 14 days after service of the last pleading directed to the issue that is sought to be tried by a jury, and filed with the court within a reasonable time after service
27
How many interrogatories may a party serve on another party?
Any party may serve no more than 25 written interrogatories on any other party
28
How long may a temporary restraining order remain in effect?
no longer than 14 days unless good cause exists or the adversary consents
29
How much time does a party have to respond to interrogatories?
responding party must serve its answer and any objections within 30 days after being served note: court may order, or the parties may stipulate, to a shorter or longer time
30
What 3 factors will a court consider when deciding to set aside a default judgement?
(1) whether the defendant's failure to act was willful (2) whether setting the default aside would prejudice the plaintiff; and (3) whether the defendant has presented a meritorious claim
31
How long does a defendant have to respond to a complaint?
within 21 days of service of process must respond either by answer or by a pre-answer motion
32
Who is responsible for serving the summons and complaint and when must it be served?
Plaintiff must serve it within 90 days of filing the complaint
33
How many peremptory challenges and challenges for cause does a party have?
Preemptory: 3 For cause: unlimited
34
What is the rule for removal when there are multiple defendants?
generally, all defendants who have been properly joined and served are required to join in or consent to the removal if severed at different times and the later-severed defendant files a notice of removal, earlier severed defendants may join in on the removal
35
What 7 defenses may be raised for a motion filed under Rule 12(b)?
(1) lack of subject matter jurisdiction (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) improper venue (4) insufficient process (5) insufficient service of process (6) failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted (7) failure to join a necessary or indispensable party under Rule 19
36
What defenses must be raised in a pre-answer motion or waived?
lack of personal jurisdiction improper venue insufficient process insufficient service of process
37
What is removal jurisdiction
any civil action commenced in a state court that is within the original jurisdiction of a US district court may generally be removed to the district court for the district and division in which the state court action is pending generally, right of removal is a right of a defendant
38
6 grounds for a court to grant a motion for a new trial
(1) error at trial that renders the judgement unfair (2) newly discovered evidence that existed at the time of the trial, was excusably overlooked, and would likely have altered the outcome of the trial (3) prejudicial misconduct of counsel, a party, the judge, or a juror (4) verdict that is against the clear weight of the evidence (5) verdict that is based on false evidence (6) verdict is excessive or inadequate
39
2 ways a defendant may consent to personal jurisdiction
Express: defendant agrees in advance to submit to jurisdiction of the court if a lawsuit is brought by the plaintiff, or stipulates to personal jurisdiction once an action is brought implied: through conduct like filing a counterclaim or driving a vehicle in the state
40
Requirements of claim preclusion
(1) valid final judgment on the merits (2) sufficiently identical causes of action (3) sufficiently identical parties
41
"Well-pleaded complaint rule"
determination of federal question jurisdiction made by considering only the necessary elements of the plaintiff's cause of action, not anticipated defenses, answers, or counterclaims
42
Domicile and when it changes
state where the individual is present and intends to reside for an indefinite period domicile changes when individual: - established presence in a new place - manifests intent to remain there for an indefinite period
43
"principal place of buisness"
"nerve center" of the corporation generally the location high-level officers direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the corporation typically the nerve center is the corporate headquarters
44
Home Court Advantage Rule
Prohibits the removal from a state to a federal court when: 1. SMJ arises under diversity 2. D is a state resident
45
Personal jurisdiction can be waived when
it is not raised in a pre-answer motion or in the answer, whichever comes first
46
Summary judgement standard
(1) no genuine dispute as to any material fact (2) movant is entitled to judgement as a matter of law
47
Standard of review for evidentiary rulings
abuse of discretion
48
Collateral estoppel
can be used offensively in a second action to show a fact a plaintiff does not need to have been a party in the first action
49
What is the test for when information is discoverable?
Information need not be admissible to be discoverable. The test is whether the information sought is relevant to any party's claim or defenses. Party may not discover documents and tangible things that are prepared in anticipation of litigation or for trial by or for another party or its representative ( unless the party shows that it has substantial need for the materials to prepare its case and cannot, without undue hardship, obtain their substantial equivalent by other means)
50
Spoilation of evidence
negligent or intentional destruction or significant alteration of evidence required for discovery