CIVIL PRO Flashcards

1
Q

SJQ

A

When a federal court has jurisdiction over a claim arising under federal law, the court may exercise supplemental jurisdiction over an additional state law claim that arises out of a “common nucleus of operative fact.”

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2
Q

Pj

A

Answer choice A is correct. Rule 4(k)(2) is generally used for non-U.S. residents who have contacts with the Unites States generally, but not with any one state in particular. Under this Rule, a federal court may exercise personal jurisdiction over a foreign defendant, even though the court would not otherwise have personal jurisdiction over the defendant due to the application of the “minimum contacts” test to the defendant’s contacts with the forum state. In order for this rule to apply, the plaintiff’s claims must be based on federal law. In addition, the exercise of personal jurisdiction over the defendant must be consistent with the United States Constitution and the laws of the United States. In other words, the defendant must have sufficient contacts with the United States as a whole to justify the exercise of personal jurisdiction over the defendant

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3
Q

SERVICE OF PROCESS

A

Each state has their own permissible methods. If the court is a federal court and the defendant is an individual, then anyone who is at least 18 years old and not a party can serve the individual using one of the following four methods (remember the mnemonic “SAID”):

(1) state law methods: use the state law methods where the court sits or where the defendant is served,
(2) agent: serve an agent of the individual,
(3) individual: serve the individual directly, and
(4) dwelling: leave the summons at the individual’s dwelling with someone of suitable age and discretion who lives there.
If the court is a federal court and the defendant is a corporation, then the same state method rules apply, with the additional option of serving an officer or managing agent authorized to receive service.

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4
Q

SERVING ANSWER

A

A defendant has 21 days after being served with the complaint and summons to serve an answer unless the defendant responds by filing a pre-answer motion under Rule 12. An answer generally must be served on plaintiff’s attorney if the plaintiff has an attorney. Service of an answer may be made by leaving it with a person in charge at the attorney’s office. The answer must also be filed with the court clerk within a reasonable time after service. Here, the next day would clearly fall within a reasonable time.

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5
Q

standard of review by the appellate court

A
  • A trial judge’s decision to grant a summary judgment motion is a legal ruling.
    As a legal ruling, the appropriate standard of review by the appellate court is DE NOVO
  • The abuse of discretion standard for appellate court review of a trial judge’s ruling is appropriate when the ruling is a matter over which the trial judge has discretion, such as whether evidence is admissible or sanctions should be imposed.
  • A trial court’s findings of fact, including a master’s findings that have been adopted by the court, are subject to review under the “clearly erroneous” standard.

When a trial judge gives an erroneous jury instruction to which the adversely affected party failed to make a timely objection, the appellate court may nevertheless consider the matter if the mistake constitutes a plain error that affects the party’s substantial rights;

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6
Q

appeal - interlocutory order

A

In general, a federal court of appeals has jurisdiction over appeals from the final judgments of the district courts. Most interlocutory orders, such as the denial of a summary judgment motion, a motion to dismiss, or the granting of a new trial motion, are not immediately appealable because such an order is not a final judgment. Court’s denial of - dismiss for lack of subject matter jurisdiction is such an interlocutory order

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7
Q

waiver

A

The federal rules specifically provide that waiver of service does not waive any objection to personal jurisdiction or to venue.

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8
Q

7th Amendment - right to jury trial

A
  • is only applicable to federal courts and not to state courts. State law determines whether parties have a right to a jury in state court.
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9
Q

Venue rule and exception

A

In general, venue in a federal civil action is proper in (i) a judicial district in which any defendant resides, if all defendants reside in the same state in which the district is located; or (ii) a judicial district in which a “substantial part of the events or omissions” on which the claim is based occurred, or where a “substantial part of the property” that is the subject of the action is located.

—- A defendant that is an entity with the capacity to sue and be sued, regardless of whether incorporated, is deemed to reside in any judicial district in which the entity is subject to personal jurisdiction with respect to the civil action in question.

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10
Q

the key issue for a voluntary dismissal without court approval

A

A plaintiff may dismiss an action without court approval or the agreement of the other parties prior to the service of an answer or summary judgment motion.

A motion to dismiss for lack of personal jurisdiction is not a summary judgment motion

the key issue for a voluntary dismissal without court approval or the other parties’ consent is whether the other parties have filed a responsive pleading or a summary judgment motion. The filing by another party of a motion to dismiss, unless the motion is treated as a summary judgment motion, does not prevent the plaintiff from dismissing the action. This is the case regardless of whether the other party’s motion is likely to be successful.

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11
Q

joinder

A

Tortfeasors facing joint and several liability are not considered necessary parties.

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12
Q

instructions - jury trial

A

Before the parties’ closing arguments, the court must inform the parties of the jury instructions it proposes to give and provide the parties with the opportunity to object to such instructions on the record and out of the presence of the jury. When a party has submitted proposed jury instructions, the court must also inform the party of the court’s actions with regard to such instructions.

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13
Q

Both alternative and inconsistent defenses may be alleged in an answer

A

Both alternative and inconsistent defenses may be alleged in an answer

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14
Q

TRO

A

A TRO may issue without notice to the adverse party if (i) the moving party can establish, under written oath, that immediate and irreparable injury will result prior to hearing the adverse party’s opposition; and (ii) the movant’s attorney certifies in writing any efforts made to give notice and the reason why notice should not be required.

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15
Q

Discovery- insurance agreement

A

Unless otherwise agreed by stipulation or ordered by the court, each party must provide to the other parties for inspection and copying, any insurance agreement under which an insurance business may be liable to satisfy all or part of a possible judgment in the action or to indemnify or reimburse for payments made to satisfy the judgment. Accordingly, the defendant is required to make the insurance agreement available to the plaintiff even if the plaintiff does not ask for it.

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16
Q

claim pre vs. issue

A

Unlike claim preclusion, issue preclusion does not require strict mutuality of parties. Instead, only the party against whom the issue is to be precluded (or one in privity with that party) must have been a party to the original action

17
Q

DEPOSITIONS

A

Nonparties may be compelled to produce documents pursuant to a subpoena.

DEPOSITIONS

  • limited to 10 Depositions unless the court allows more
  • each is limited to one day of 7 hours, unless the court allows more
  • any kind of notice is sufficient if it is a party, but subpoena is required for a non-party
  • can be any time after mandatory disclosures

• Documents: subpoena duces tecum used to compel a deponent to bring documents to deposition.

18
Q

INTERROGATORIES

A
  • 25 interrogatories as of right (Deadline to response is 30 days)
  • may only used against a party
  • party may not serve interrogatories before the parties have held a Rule 26(f) discovery conference
19
Q

Rule 11 Sanctions

A
  • All papers must be signed by an attorney, and certify
    that:
    1) not being presented for any improper purpose;
    2) legal contentions are warranted and non-frivolous;
    3) factual contentions have evidentiary support or will
    after discovery; AND
    4) denials of factual contentions are warranted or
    reasonably based on lack of information.
  • The court may issue sanctions (by motion or on its own)
    for failure to comply with Rule 11.
  • Nature of sanctions imposed are within the discretion of
    the court, and can be: (a) non-monetary directives; (b) pay
    penalty; or (c) pay reasonable attorney’s fees/expenses
    resulting from violation.
  • A party CANNOT file Rule 11 motion with the court
    without first: (1) serving motion on offending party; AND
    (2) giving opponent 21 days to withdraw or correct
    paper/pleading.
  • May be issued if a party: (a) fails to appear; (b) is
    substantially unprepared; (c) does not participate in good
    faith; OR (d) fails to obey a scheduling order or pretrial
    order.
  • Sanctions may include: (a) a prohibition
    supporting/opposing designated claims or defenses; (b)
    striking the pleading; (c) dismissing
20
Q

Pretrial Conference Sanctions

A

Pretrial Conference Sanctions
- May be issued if a party: (a) fails to appear; (b) is
substantially unprepared; (c) does not participate in good
faith; OR (d) fails to obey a scheduling order or pretrial
order.
- Sanctions may include: (a) a prohibition
supporting/opposing designated claims or defenses; (b)
striking the pleading; (c) dismissing the action; OR (d) a
default judgment.

21
Q

Failure to Preserve Electronically Stored Info (ESI)

A

The court may sanction a party for failure to preserve ESI
only if:

1) ESI should have been preserved;
2) The party failed to take reasonable steps to
preserve; AND
3) ESI cannot be replaced/restored though additional
discovery.
If the above test is satisfied, the court may:
a) Order measures to cure any prejudice; OR
b) If failure to preserve was intentional,

i. order an adverse inference instruction to the
jury to presume or infer that the lost info was
unfavorable;
ii. dismiss the action; or
iii. enter a default judgement

22
Q

Modifying an order issued after a finall pre trial.

A

The court may modify the order issued after a final pre-trial conference only to prevent manifest injustice

23
Q

Appeal - class actions

A

A court of appeals has DISCRETION to permit an appeal from a district court order granting or denying class action certification. The petition for permission to appeal must be filed with the circuit clerk within 14 days after the order is entered

24
Q

Only plaintiff’s can demand a jury

A

Only plaintiff’s can demand a jury