Civil Applications Flashcards

1
Q

What is Default Judgment under CPR 12?

A

Procedure: Either by filing request or CPR 23 application, depending on type of claim. Conditions: (a) Failed to file acknowledgment of service or defense to claim or counterclaim (or part), or (b) The relevant time for doing so has expired.

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2
Q

When can judgment in default of acknowledgment be entered?

A

If at the date of judgment, D has not filed an acknowledgment or a defense.

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3
Q

When can judgment in default of defense be entered?

A

If D filed acknowledgment but, at the date of judgment, defense was not filed.

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4
Q

What are the relevant time periods for filing acknowledgment and serving defense?

A

CPR 10 and 15 set out time periods for filing acknowledgment and serving defense.

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5
Q

What CPR rule governs setting aside default judgments?

A

CPR 13 (Procedure: CPR 23 application)

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6
Q

What are grounds where court MUST set aside default judgment (no discretion)?

A

13.2 Grounds: (1) Default judgment improperly entered - Clements v Berrymans: No default judgment where defense filed before judgment, albeit late; (2) D applied for summary judgment or C’s statement of case to be struck out before default judgment; (3) D filed or served an admission of liability to pay all money claimed together with request for time to pay; (4) The whole claim was satisfied before judgment.

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7
Q

What are grounds where the court MAY set aside default judgment (discretionary)?

A

13.3 Grounds: (1) D has a real prospect of successfully defending the claim; (2) Other good reason to set aside/vary judgment, or to allow D to defend claim. Denton 3-stage test for relief from sanctions has considerable relevance to good reason ground.

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8
Q

What case illustrates that breach was not serious to set aside even with no good reason?

A

Workman v Deansgate: Breach was not serious, set aside even though there was no good reason.

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9
Q

What case shows court should consider prejudice/delay/overriding objective?

A

Hussain v Rahman: Court should consider nature of defense/prejudice/delay/overriding objective.

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10
Q

What case involved unreasonable action by C’s solicitor as good reason?

A

Blunden v Frogmore: Unreasonable action by C’s solicitor was a good reason.

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11
Q

What case involved an unwell defendant where seriousness of allegations was a good reason?

A

Yakubu v Georgiades: D was unwell and the seriousness of allegations was a good reason.

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12
Q

What must court discretion under 13.3 have regard to?

A

(1) Whether the application was made promptly; (2) The overriding objective (CPR 1.1); (3) Whether prejudice may be caused to C.

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13
Q

What CPR rule governs summary judgment?

A

CPR 24 (Procedure: CPR 23 application)

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14
Q

What conditions must be satisfied for summary judgment?

A

Only if the court is satisfied that: (1) The respondent has no real prospect of success; (2) No other compelling reason to wait until trial.

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15
Q

What case established ‘not one of probability’ regarding real prospect of success?

A

Three Rivers Council v Bank of England: not one of probability; in absence of reality and not enough merits, the simpler the case, the easier to determine on summary basis.

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16
Q

What standard must prospects meet according to Swain v Hillman?

A

Swain v Hillman: prospect must be realistic as opposed to fanciful. It does not have to be substantial. It must not be ‘mini-trial.’

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17
Q

What case discussed prospects being more than fanciful or merely arguable?

A

Credit Suisse v Ramot Plana: Prospects must be more than fanciful or merely arguable.

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18
Q

What case discussed possibility that further evidence may turn up is not enough?

A

ICI Chemicals v TTE Training: The possibility that further evidence may turn up is not enough.

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19
Q

In what case was it determined a case for investigation wouldn’t be for summary decision?

A

Miles v Bull: If there is a case for investigation, it won’t be for a summary decision. Unsuitable for cases if the facts are subject to serious dispute.

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20
Q

What case required contemporary material must be sufficient?

A

Optaglio v Tethal: Contemporary material must be sufficient to say that the contrary assertion has no real prospect of success. Not a question of ‘weight’ or weighing competing materials.

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21
Q

What case related to expert evidence and liability issues?

A

Hewes v West Hertfordshire Hospital: Where expert evidence is central to issues of liability, summary judgment can rarely be contemplated before the exchange of experts’ reports.

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22
Q

What types of orders can be made in summary judgment applications?

A

Orders can be, for example: judgment on the whole claim or a particular issue, striking out or dismissal of claim, for proceedings to continue on the issue of quantum only, dismissal of application, conditional order.

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23
Q

What CPR rules govern interim payment?

A

CPR 25 and PD 25B (Procedure: CPR 23 application)

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24
Q

What are the grounds for interim payment?

A

(1) If the claim went to trial, C would obtain a judgment against D for a substantial sum of money (other than costs) whether or not D is the only D; (2) D has admitted liability to pay damages or another sum of money to C; (3) C obtained a judgment against D for damages or another sum to be assessed (other than costs)

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25
What test must be satisfied for interim payment?
The court must be satisfied that: (1) The amount does not exceed a reasonable proportion of the likely amount of the final judgment (taking into account any contributory negligence, set-off and/or counterclaim); (2) There's a need to be paid as soon as reasonably possible (e.g., there is urgent need such as medical treatment, provision of care, etc.).
26
What CPR rules govern interim injunction?
CPR 25 and PD 25A (Procedure: CPR 23 application)
27
What American Cyanamid Guidelines establish whether to grant interim injunction?
(1) Is there a sufficiently serious (substantial) issue to be tried? Is there an issue for which there is some supporting material and an outcome which is uncertain; (2) If so, on the 'balance of convenience' of each party, would it be fair and just? Considered in 3 stages: (i) Would damages be an adequate remedy? If so, then interim relief will not normally be granted; (ii) If damages would not be an adequate remedy for applicant, would applicant's cross-undertaking in damages provide adequate protection for respondent if court later found interim relief should not have been granted? (iii) If doubt as to adequacy of damages, court will consider factual circumstances ('special factors'). Where such factors remain evenly balanced, be prudent to preserve the status quo.
28
What is the note about the guidelines for interim injunction?
These Guidelines may need to be modified (or not applied at all) where the type of injunction applied for is subject to a different test.
29
What is required regarding cross-undertaking in damages?
The applicant will almost always be required to provide a cross-undertaking in damages (applicant is ready/has funds in case it was incorrectly granted).
30
What CPR rules govern freezing injunction?
CPR 25 and PD 25A (Procedure: CPR 23 application)
31
When are freezing injunctions granted?
Only granted where the court considers it just and convenient to do so (s.37 SCA). In addition, case law has established specific conditions.
32
What are the conditions for granting a freezing injunction?
(1) Applicant has a cause of action (but note Broad Idea Case stepped away from strict cause of action requirement - mixed jurisdiction); (2) Applicant has a good arguable case; (3) Existence of the assets; (4) Real risk of dissipation of the assets (unjustified) making enforcement even difficult. Note that delay in applying can jeopardize the application and weaken argument that there is a real risk; (5) Applicant must provide undertaking in damages.
33
What duty does an applicant have when applying without notice?
If done without notice, the applicant has an onerous duty of full and frank disclosure of all material facts (even if not in the applicant's favor) and must undertake to serve the respondent.
34
What CPR rules govern relief from sanctions?
CPR 3.8-3.9 (Procedure: CPR 23 application or orally)
35
What test under CPR 3.9 must the court consider for relief from sanctions?
The court to consider the need to: (1) Conduct litigation efficiently at proportionate cost; (2) Enforce compliance with rules, practice directions, and court orders.
36
What is the Denton White Test (three-stage test) for relief from sanctions?
Stage 1: Identify and assess the seriousness of the non-compliance. Is it serious or significant? Persuade the court that the breach or default in question is not serious or significant. Stage 2: If it is, why did the default occur? Persuade the court there was a good reason. Mitchell: Non-completion of deadline or pressure of work is unlikely to constitute a good reason. Stage 3: Consider all the circumstances of the case to deal with the application justly, including the need to: (a) conduct litigation efficiently and at proportionate cost; and (b) to enforce compliance with rules, directions, and orders. Caliendo v Mishcon: Prejudice to the non-defaulting party may be a consideration for stage 3. However, this is only a subsidiary factor.
37
What CPR rule governs track allocation?
CPR 26.8
38
What matters are relevant to allocation to a track?
(1) Financial value (if any) - used to assess which track is generally appropriate; will disregard any amount not in dispute, claim for interest, costs and contributory negligence. If case involves more than one money claim, the court will generally regard the largest of them as determining the value (will not generally aggregate claims); (2) Nature of the remedy sought (e.g., injunction, declaration, law or evidence); (3) Likely complexity of the facts, law or evidence; (4) Number of parties or likely parties; (5) Value of counterclaim or other additional claim and complexity of any matters relating to it; (6) Amount of oral evidence which may be required; (7) Importance of the claim to persons who are not parties; (8) Views expressed by the parties; (9) Circumstances of the parties.
39
What procedure is used for permission for late evidence?
Procedure: CPR 23 application
40
What CPR rule gives courts power to extend or shorten time compliance?
CPR 3.1(2)(a): The court has the power to extend or shorten the time for compliance with any rule, direction or order (even if an application for extension is made after the time for compliance has expired).
41
What rules apply when a witness statement or summary is not served on time?
CPR 32.10: If witness statement or summary is not served within time, the witness may not be able to give oral evidence unless the court gives permission.
42
What rule applies when a party fails to disclose an expert's report?
CPR 35.13: A party who fails to disclose an expert's report may not use it at the trial or call the expert to give oral evidence unless the court gives permission.
43
What rule applies to reliance on documents not disclosed?
CPR 31.21: A party may not rely on any document which it fails to disclose or permit inspection unless the court gives permission.
44
What must be shown for late evidence?
There must be compelling grounds as to the pertinence and indeed the necessity of that evidence, and exceptional circumstances which justify the failure to appreciate the need for it earlier.
45
How are in-time applications for extension treated vs. after deadline?
Test: Courts are likely to consider it in the context of the overriding objective rather than relief from sanctions. Kaneria v Kaneria: The test for relief from sanctions should not be applied retrospectively where the deadline has expired, either directly or in a slightly watered-down version. In-time applications should be considered in the context of the overriding objective. Application for retrospective extension after deadline are commonly apply the relief from sanctions test (see Denton and CPR 3.9 rules above).
46
What case established principles for applications after time limit expires?
Greg v Stiring: The court held that, where an application to extend time is made after the time limit has expired, it would address the principles in CPR 3.9.
47
What cases illustrate assessment of breach seriousness in relief applications?
Al Hamad v Al Khafaf: Court applied relief from sanctions test for deadline. Applying Denton test, court held that failure to comply was serious and significant. However, the orderly and proportionate process of litigation was not threatened. The claim was granted. Coal Harbour v Regular: Applying Denton test, judge found breach was serious or significant and the default occurred without good reason. However, in a substantial claim, in all probability, just determination of case required the evidence. Currie v Thornley: Court allowed two letters that had been served after trial but before judgment to be admitted as evidence, allowing disposal of all relevant issues in interests of finality and avoid uncertainty, time and expense of re-litigation/unresolved aspects. Judge satisfied it was fair to admit them.
48
What did Jones v Pegg establish about filing time being 'late'?
Jones v Pegg: If the new document has become available, it is not 'late'. The deadline has not yet finally passed, so it is not a relief from sanction argument. Simply put, you cannot disclose what is not available. Instead, it is a question of permission.
49
What CPR rule governs security for costs?
CPR 25 (Procedure: Request by letter. Then if unsuccessful, use CPR 23 application)
50
What are the grounds for security for costs?
(1) Reasons to believe that C will be unable to pay D's costs if ordered to do so; (2) C has taken steps to put assets out of reach that would make it difficult to enforce any costs order (e.g., transfer to another or abroad); (3) C is resident abroad; (4) Changed address, failed to give the address, or gave an incorrect address; (5) C has changed address with a view to evading the
51
What are the grounds for security for costs?
(1) Reasons to believe that C will be unable to pay D's costs if ordered to do so; (2) C has taken steps to put assets out of reach that would make it difficult to enforce any costs order (e.g., transfer to another or abroad); (3) C is resident abroad; (4) Changed address, failed to give the address, or gave an incorrect address; (5) C has changed address with a view to evading the consequences of litigation or has failed to give a correct address or any address.
52
What test applies to security for costs applications?
The court retains a wide discretion and must be satisfied that (Sir Lindsay Parkinson v Triplan): (1) Whether it is just and fair in all the circumstances. Olataiwola v Abioye: A poor C means that D is more likely to need security but granting it might effectively affect C's right to access to court or otherwise affect C's right to a fair trial; (2) Whether the respondent's lack of money was brought about by the applicant's conduct; (3) Whether the application is bona fide, not a sham. Has reasonably good prospects for success. Not made to oppress or stifle a genuine claim. (Applying can result in no security being granted); (4) Whether there was a delay in applying, such as the hearing being very close, what the respondent is likely to be able to pay, and what the applicant reasonably expects to recover at trial, Stephenson time, type of security (payment into court, payment to applicant's solicitor, bank guarantee or undertaking to pay), and what happens if security is not given.
53
What forms of security are available?
Forms of security: Only available pre-action / Not available for Small Claims / It cannot be solely in relation to a costs application by the other party.
54
What CPR rule governs permission to appeal?
CPR 52
55
What are the grounds for permission to appeal?
The decision of the lower court was either: (1) Wrong (i.e., error of law, of fact, or in the exercise of the court's discretion); or (2) Unjust due to serious procedural/other irregularity.
56
What criteria must be satisfied for permission to appeal?
One of the conditions below must be satisfied: (1) The appeal has a real prospect of success; or (2) There is some other compelling reason for the appeal to be heard (e.g., whether the question is of general principle decided for the first time). The court will also consider the overriding objective.
57
What CPR rules govern specific disclosure?
CPR 31 and PD 31A (Procedure: Make a written request. If unsuccessful, use CPR 23 application)
58
What are the grounds for specific disclosure?
(1) Inadequacy of the disclosure by disclosing party; (2) Search scope carried out was unreasonably limited; (3) Concerns about the extent to which documents have been redacted.
59
What conditions must be met for specific disclosure?
(1) Must affect or support own or other party's case; (2) Will enable to resolve, save costs of proceedings; (3) Reasonable, proportionate and just to allow it.
60
What applies if application is pre-action?
If the application is pre-action, then it is an urgent one, and the respondent and applicant are likely to be parties in a proceeding.
61
What CPR rule governs non-party disclosure?
CPR 31.17 (Procedure: CPR 23 application)
62
What is the jurisdictional test for non-party disclosure?
(1) Likely to support the case of the applicant or adversely affect the case of another parties. Three Rivers v HM Treasury - The threshold condition is lowered by the qualification 'likely to'. It is not necessary that the documents will support; only necessary to show that they are likely to do so. The test is one of probability. Black v Sumitomo - 'likely' has the meaning 'may well' and not as high as 'more probable than not'. American Home v Novartis - The criteria must be satisfied for each of the documents where a party is seeking the disclosure of a class of documents.
63
What is the discretionary test for non-party disclosure?
(2) Disclosure is necessary in order to dispose fairly of the claim or save costs.
64
What are example grounds to challenge admissibility of evidence?
(1) Evidence is not relevant; (2) Should be excluded under CPR 32.1 to deal with case justly and at proportionate cost (overriding objective CPR 1.1); (3) Credibility and reliability (e.g., biased, contradicting, suffering from a physical or mental infirmity or lack of understanding, etc.); (4) Documents are privileged; (5) Opinion evidence provided by witness of facts; (6) Expert lacks expertise, biased, contradicting, not qualified, etc.; (7) One of the exclusionary rules applies.