Civics Exam Review Flashcards

0
Q

Which type of governmental system did the United States have in its earliest days?

A

Confederal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Which system of government is an indirect form of democracy, placing political decision making at least one step away from the people?

A

Republic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The people are the ultimate source of authority in which governmental system?

A

Republic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The form of government in which one person controls most of the governing decisions is a(n)

A

Autocracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The vast majority of the world’s nations have which system of government?

A

Unitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The supreme power of a state to act within its territory and have absolute authority over its internal and external affairs is called

A

Sovereignty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rulers who are seen as right and proper by key segments of their nation’s population have

A

Legitimacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who said that life without government was like a war pitting each individual against the other?

A

Thomas Hobbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Chinese concept of “Mandate of Heaven” is an example of rule by

A

Divine right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which philosopher believed that the formation of societies and government corrupted the human condition and introduced inequality?

A

Jean-Jacques Rousseau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What two ideals of democracy did Alexis de Tocqueville think must be kept in balance in order to prevent democratic despotism?

A

Liberty and equality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Americans believe strongly that a balance should be struck between majority rule and

A

Protecting minority rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Framers relied on the writings of which Enlightenment philosopher as they decided how best to protect economic freedom and rights to property?

A

Adam Smith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Parliament imposed a series of taxes on the colonies beginning in 1764 in order to

A

Help pay Britain’s debts resulting from the French and Indian War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Civic virtue is the idea that people should do which of the following?

A

Place the common good over private interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What document is Patrick Henry talking about?

A

Constitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How did the Northwest Ordinance differ from the Constitution on the issue of slavery?

A

The Northwest Ordinance banned slavery in the territory, while the Constitution temporarily protected the slave trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The New Jersey Plan was designed to stay closer to which document?

A

Articles of Confederation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why was the Great Compromise acceptable to the smaller states?

A

States would be represented equally in the Senate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

According to the Constitution, a State’s electors would be equal to what?

A

Number of its representatives in both houses of Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In which state was the Federalist cause strongest?

A

New Jersey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How did the Framers bypass Congress and state legislatures in the process of ratifying the new Constitution?

A

They called for voters in each state to elect representatives to a state ratifying convention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which phrase in the 1st Amendment specifically relates to an individual’s right to ask the government to correct an injustice?

A

Redress of grievances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why did the Civil War amendments have little effect in South until 1965?

A

Southern states passed Jim Crow laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is an example of legislative action?

A

Congress passes a law to create a new government agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The phrase “We the People” relates to which of the following principles of the Constitution?

A

Popular sovereignty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is one characteristic of a republican form of government?

A

People elect others to represent them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When the president vetoes a law passed by Congress, the president is applying the principle of

A

Checks and balances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What power does the judicial branch of government hold?

A

Interpreting laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is one criticism of the Constitution?

A

Winners of the popular vote may not win the presidency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is a legislative power that is part of the system of checks and balances?

A

Declaring war

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What did the Framers want to achieve by establishing the principle of federalism in the Constitution?

A

Distribution of state and national powers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The duties of governing are divided among 3 branches under the principle of

A

Separation of powers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is the best description of federalism?

A

Different levels of government share authority over the same land and people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The federal government is denied the power to do which of the following?

A

Take away freedom of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The main responsibility for resolving conflicts between the states and the federal government lies with which of the following?

A

U.S. Supreme Court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How was the relationship between the federal and state governments generally understood during the period of dual federalism?

A

Federal and state government were each sovereign in their own sphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The term cooperative federalism refers to

A

Joint federal and state efforts to resolve problems during and after the New Deal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is the main source of income for the federal government today?

A

Income tax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Supporters of devolution would argue that environmental protection is

A

Best handled at the state and local level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following best expresses the federal government’s chief reason for providing grants-in-aid?

A

Aiding and influencing states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many senators are there from each state?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The states and congress share power over which militia?

A

National Guard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which amendment was ratified in 1913 to make direct popular elections of senators part of the constitution?

A

17th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What vote count is required in the Senate for a treaty to become law?

A

Two-thirds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the 3 main types of rules assigned by the Rules of Committee?

A

Open, closed, and modified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the conference committee issue when it reaches an agreement on a bill?

A

Conference report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What can congress try to do if its members disagree with the president’s veto of a bill?

A

Override it

48
Q

When a president dies in office, the vice president

A

Becomes president and serves out the term

49
Q

Which of the following is sometimes considered to be an informal qualification for president?

A

Service in the military

50
Q

What happens if a president becomes disabled?

A

The vice president takes over presidential duties temporarily

51
Q

Which of the following best describes a natural-born American citizen?

A

Was an American at birth

52
Q

In pardoning former President Nixon, President Ford exercised which type of presidential power?

A

Clemency

53
Q

Which did early vice presidents often complained about?

A

Too little to do

54
Q

Which of the following would most likely to have responsibility for responding to a major terrorist incident?

A

National Security Council

55
Q

Under the spoils system, which of the following would be most likely to get a post office job?

A

A major contributor to the president’s campaign

56
Q

What proportion of federal jobs are currently protected by civil service regulations?

A

90%

57
Q

Which of the following choices provides the best justification for using written examinations as part of the process for choosing federal employees?

A

Help ensure that people meet job qualifications

58
Q

Which of the following is a purpose of the Freedom of Information Act of 1966?

A

Restraining the powers of executive agencies

59
Q

The regulations set by an independent regulatory commission

A

Have the force of law

60
Q

Unlike the Budget Committees, the Appropriations Committees

A

Draw up detailed laws for revenue and spending

61
Q

Which term refers to the sole right of a court to hear a case?

A

Exclusive jurisdiction

62
Q

Who provides security at federal courthouses?

A

U.S. marshals

63
Q

The written arguments of each side to an appeal are called

A

Briefs

64
Q

If members of the military violate the Uniform Code of Military Justice, they are subject to prosecution in a

A

Court-martial

65
Q

What significant power did Hamilton foresee for the federal courts?

A

Judicial review

66
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court declare that congress lacked the power to outlaw slavery in the territories?

A

Dred Scott v. Sandford

67
Q

Who served as chief justice when the Supreme Court reached the height of its liberal era?

A

Earl Warren

68
Q

Which Supreme Court ruling held that schools could not prevent students from protesting the Vietnam War?

A

Tinker v. Ohio

69
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be a result of political socialization?

A

Joan becomes a Democrat like her father

70
Q

Which of the following is a type of group that promotes the interests of a group businesses?

A

Trade association

71
Q

Which of the following was a goal of Congress’s 2007 legislation aimed at checking the influence of powerful interest groups?

A

Limiting some activities of lobbyists

72
Q

What is the origin of the today’s 2 major U.S. political parties?

A

A party split

73
Q

What party system is the most common party system?

A

Multiparty

74
Q

In the 2000 presidential election, Ralph Nader ran as the candidate of the Green Party. Which of the following best describes the role he took?

A

3rd party candidate

75
Q

In the 2000 presidential election, which party was hurt more by Ralph Nader’s candidacy?

A

Democratic Party

76
Q

In our 2 party system, each major party tries to

A

Appeal to as broad a base as possible

77
Q

In local election that uses nomination by petition, a candidate would be required to

A

Collect the signatures of a certain number of qualified voters

78
Q

The main task of a national nominating convention is to

A

Choose a party’s candidate for president

79
Q

What is a symbolic speech?

A

Communication of ideas through symbols and actions

80
Q

Which of the following was one reason that the 2nd Amendment was included in the Bill of Rights?

A

To protect the right of states to form militias

81
Q

What is a probable cause?

A

Reasonable grounds for a search

82
Q

A search warrant gives police

A

Legal authority to search private property

83
Q

What is the source of due process protection from the actions of state officials

A

14th Amendment

84
Q

What event would most likely lead to a criminal law court case?

A

Arrest

85
Q

In the mid-1800s the U.S. government began a policy of

A

Relocating Native Americans onto reservastions

86
Q

Which of the following might a court apply in deciding whether a law treating women differently from men was constitutional?

A

Intermediate scrutiny

87
Q

Which of the following is an example of a suspect classification?

A

Treating African Americans differently from Hispanic Americans

88
Q

Which of the following is an example of de facto segregation?

A

Whites and African Americans go to separate schools because they live in different parts of town

89
Q

Which of the following situations is a direct result of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?

A

Ramps and elevators make public buildings accessible to people in wheelchairs

90
Q

In the years around 1900, where did most immigrants to the United States come from?

A

Southern and eastern Europe

91
Q

Which of the following is a violation of federal campaign laws?

A

Accepting campaign contributions from corporations

92
Q

What may be the most basic means of political participation in a republic?

A

Voting

93
Q

According to the graph, approximately what percent of eligible voters aged 18-24 voted in 2004?

A

45%

94
Q

Which of the following campaign jobs is most likely to be handled by a volunteer?

A

Putting up yard signs

95
Q

The Voting Act limits the power of states to

A

Reduce the voting strength of minorities

96
Q

In a presidential elections, a swing state is a state

A

Where either candidate has a chance to win

97
Q

What is one result of reapportionment?

A

Seats in the House are reassigned

98
Q

In a parliamentary system, a prime minister must resign immediately if he or she loses the support of the majority party in parliament

A

True

99
Q

Competition is a central feature of free enterprise

A

True

100
Q

The 1st Amendment protects specific individual freedoms and restricts the government’s powers to interfere

A

True

101
Q

A federal grant to help a state build a specific dam would be a categorical grant

A

True

102
Q

Members of congress represent the people living in a particular geographic area

A

True

103
Q

The civil service is composed of the civilians who carry out the work of the federal government

A

True

104
Q

Originally, the constitution gave the federal government the power to collect only 1 kind of taxes– excise taxes

A

True

105
Q

A federal district court judge’s main job is to preside over trials

A

True

106
Q

The Supreme Court’s liberal era reached its peak during the chief justiceship of Earl Warren

A

True

107
Q

Joining a march or demonstration is a responsible way for citizens to try to influence public policy

A

True

108
Q

A commodity group might represent tomato farmers but not farm laborers

A

True

109
Q

In a multiparty system, if one party leaves a coalition, new elections may be needed

A

True

110
Q

The same 2 political parties have dominated American politics for more than 150yrs

A

True

111
Q

Miranda warnings are a list of certain constitutional rights possessed by those accused of crimes

A

True

112
Q

Due process requires that government act fairly and reasonably in accordance with established laws

A

True

113
Q

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibited discrimination based not only race but also on sex

A

True

114
Q

Voting qualifications vary from state to state

A

True

115
Q

The federal government sets a yearly limit on the amount of money that an individual can contribute to a national political action committee, or PAC

A

True

116
Q

Which of the following best illustrates an act of civil disobedience?

A

Sitting at a segregated lunch counter and refusing to move until served

117
Q

The civil service is composer of the civilians who carry out the work of the federal government

A

True