Civ Pro - Topics with Elements Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Pjx Has Two Tests, what are they?

A

Statute (Long Arm) and Constitutional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do you have to show to meet the Constitutional Test for Pjx

A

 (A) Contact: Purposeful availment and foreseeability;
 (B) Relatedness: “Arise out of and relate to”. determines whether jurisdiction will be based on general PJ or specific general PJ; and
 (C)Fairness (specific PJ only): Burden/convenience, state’s interest, and plaintiff’s interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the Fairness Factors for PJx

A

o Burden on the defendant and witnesses. Due process does not guarantee that suit will be in the most convenient forum for the defendant. So even if it’s hard for the defendant to travel to the forum and to get her witnesses to the forum, the forum is constitutionally OK unless the defendant can show that it puts her at a severe disadvantage in the litigation. This is a very difficult burden to meet because the relative wealth of the parties is not determinative.
o State’s interest. The forum state may want to provide a courtroom for its citizens who are allegedly being harmed by out-of-state defendants. You should mention the state’s interest in an answer to an essay question.
o Plaintiff’s interest. The plaintiff is maybe injured in the forum state and/or wants to sue at home.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What two documents comprise notice?

A

Summons and copy of the complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who can serve process?

A

o Any person who is at least 18 years old and not a party to the action may serve process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long do you have to serve someone?

A

o If the defendant is to be served within the United States, service must take place within 90 days of the filing of the complaint.
o This period may be extended for good cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is service served on an individual?

A

Personal service, leaving at the Ds usual abode with someone of sutiable age who resides there, service on a registered agent, or any state law method where the court sits or service is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is service served on a business or org?

A
  • Delivering to an officer (for example, president, treasurer) or a managing or general agent a copy of the summons and of the complaint, or
  • Using a method permitted by the state: (1) where the federal court sits or (2) where service is to be made.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is service served on a minor or incomp?

A

Methods allowed by state law of the state in which service is to be made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is service made on someone in a foreign country

A

 A method allowed by international agreement (for example, the Hague Convention) may be used.
 Or, if there’s no such agreement on point, the options (subject to the constitutional requirement that the method must be reasonably calculated to give notice) are:
* As directed by the American court; or
* Method allowed by the foreign country’s law; or
* Method directed by foreign official in response to a letter of request (letter rogatory) from the American court; or
* Personal service in the foreign country (unless prohibited by its law); or
* Mail sent by the clerk of the American court, requiring signed receipt (unless prohibited by the foreign country’s law).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long does a D have to waive service of process?

A

3o days, 60 if out of US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cases that state courts cannot hear?

A

patent infringement, bankruptcy, some federal securities, and antitrust claims.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cases that fed courts refuse to hear?

A

Even if the requirements for diversity or alienage jurisdiction are met, federal courts decline to hear actions for divorce, alimony, child custody, and actions to probate an estate. These can be called “excluded” cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does a D remove the case?

A

o The defendant files “notice of removal” in federal court, stating grounds of removal, which means federal SMJ (diversity or FQ).

o The defendant attaches all documents that were served on her in the state action.

o The defendant then “promptly” serves a copy of the “notice of removal” on adverse parties and files a copy of the “notice of removal” in state court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How lond does a D have to remove a case?

A

o The defendant must remove no later than 30 days after service (not filing) of the first paper that shows the case is removable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is removal venue?

A

o The defendant removes to the federal district court “embracing” the state court where the case was filed and that court is now a proper Venue.
o It does not matter if this venue would have been proper under the venue statutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long does P have to file a motion for remand?

A

No later than 30 days after filing of notice of removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Test for Supp Jx?

A
  • Common Nucleus: The claim that we want to get into federal court must share a “common nucleus of operative fact” with the claim that satisfied federal SMJ (the claim that got the case into federal court).
    o When is this test always met? When a claim arises from the same transaction or occurrence (“T/O”) as the underlying case.
    o However, the test is broader than T/O.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Limitation on Supp Jx in diversity cases

A

o In diversity cases, claims by plaintiffs generally cannot invoke supplemental jurisdiction.

o The exception to the limitation applies when there are multiple plaintiffs, and the claim by one of them does not meet the amount in controversy requirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is supp jx discretionary?

A

o Even if we meet the requirements for supplemental jurisdiction, the court has discretion to decline it. It can do so if the state law claim is complex or state law issues would predominate in the case. But the more likely one is this: It can decline supplemental jurisdiction if the claim on which federal SMJ is based is dismissed early in the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Steps for an Erie Question?

A

o (1) Ask: Is there some federal law (like the Constitution, federal statute, Federal Rule of Civil Procedure, or Federal Rule of Evidence) on point that directly conflicts with state law? If so, apply the federal law, as long as it is valid.

o (2) If there is no federal law on point, the federal judge must apply state law if the issue to be decided is “substantive.”

o (3) If there is no federal law on point and the issue is not one of the five just listed above, the federal judge must determine whether the issue is “substantive.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What five issues are always substantive for Erie?

A
  • Conflict (or choice) of law rules;
  • Elements of a claim or defense;
  • Statutes of limitation;
  • Rules for tolling statutes of limitations; and
  • The standard for granting a new trial because the jury’s damages award was excessive or inadequate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What factors will the courts consider in determining if an issue is substantive for purposes of Erie if it is not one of the 5 special ones?

A
  • Outcome determinative: Would applying or ignoring the state rule affect the outcome of the case? If so, it’s probably a substantive rule, so the court should use state law.
  • Balance of interests: Does either the federal or state system have strong interest in having its rule applied? The one with the greater interest should have its law applied.
  • Avoid forum shopping: If the federal court ignores state law on this issue, will it cause parties to flock to federal court? If so, the court should probably apply state law.
24
Q

Where can venue be laid?

A

 All defendants reside (residential venue);
* Venue is proper in any district where a D resides if all Ds reside in the same state.
 A substantial part of the claim arose or a substantial part of the property involved in the lawsuit is located (transactional venue).

Note also the removal venue rule

25
Q

Where do buisnesses/orgs reside for venue purposes?

A

in all districts where it is subject to PJ for the case.

26
Q

What factors are considered for a trasnfer of venue?

A

o Public: The court will consider things like what law applies, what community should be burdened with jury service, the desire to keep a local controversy in a local court.
o Private: The court considers convenience. For example, it will look to where the defendants and evidence are found.

27
Q

What must be included in a complaint?

A

o A statement of grounds of subject matter jurisdiction;
o A short and plain statement of the claim showing that the plaintiff is entitled to relief; and
o A demand for relief sought (for example, damages, injunction, declaratory judgment).

27
Q

Rule 12 defenses that can be waived first time?

A

PJx, Venue, Improper Process, Improper SOP

28
Q

How late can failure to state a claim and failure to join an indespensible party claims under Rule 12 be brought?

A

made as late as at trial.

29
Q

Ammended pleading as of right?

A

One freebie within 21 days

30
Q

What must you show for an ammended pleading to relate back if it is trying to change the D?

A
  • The amendment concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original;
  • The defendant had such knowledge of the case such that she will be able to avoid prejudice; and
  • The defendant knew or should have known that, but for a mistake, she would have been named originally.

o The knowledge referenced in the last two points must have come within the period for service of process (90 days after the filing of the complaint). And, this provision applies when the plaintiff sued the wrong defendant first, but the right defendant knew about it.

31
Q

What does a rule 11 sig certify?

A

 The paper is not for an improper purpose;
 The legal contentions are warranted by law or a nonfrivolous argument for a law change; and
 The factual contentions and denials of factual contentions have evidentiary support or are likely to after further investigation.
 In addition, a party makes this certification every time she “presents” a position to the court (for example, when she later advocates a position taken in the document). It is a “continuing certification.”

32
Q

What is the Rule 11 safe Harbour?

A

If the other party violates Rule 11, the opposing party cannot immediately file a motion for sanctions. Rather, she serves the motion on other parties but does not file it with the court yet. The party in violation has a safe harbor of 21 days in which to fix the problem and avoid sanctions. If she does not do so, then the motion can be filed with the court.

33
Q

What must be shown to join serveal parties?

A

various claims must (1) arise from the same transaction or occurrence (“T/O”); and (2) raise at least one common question of law or fact.

34
Q

What does the court look at to determine if an absentee party is necessary?

A
  • Without the absentee, the court cannot accord complete relief among the existing parties (worried about multiple suits); or
  • The absentee’s interest may be harmed if she is not joined; or
  • The absentee claims an interest that subjects a party (usually the defendant) to a risk of multiple obligations.
  • Note: joint tortfeasors are never necessary.
35
Q

What factors does the court consider when deciding whether a claim can proceed when an indespensible party cannot be joined?

A

o Is there an alternative forum available? (maybe some state court);
o What is the actual likelihood of harm to the absentee?; and
o Can the court shape relief to avoid that harm to the absentee?

36
Q

How long does P have to respond to a counterclaim

A

o After the defendant serves a counterclaim against the plaintiff, the plaintiff must respond under Rule 12 within 21 days of service of the counterclaim.

37
Q

PJx loophole for an absent or impleaded party?

A

served in a district in the United States and not more than 100 miles from the federal court that issued the summons regardless of his contacts with the forum. If more than 100 miles, there must be traditional contacts-based PJ.

38
Q

Certification Requirements for a class

A

 Numerosity - Numerosity means that there are too many class members for practicable joinder. There is no magic number.
 Commonality - There must be some issue in common to all class members, so resolution of that issue will generate answers for everybody in one stroke.
 Typicality - The class rep’s claims are typical of the claims of the class
 Adequate Representation - The class rep will fairly and adequately represent the class

39
Q

What are the mandatory required Disclosures?

A

Infor on parties with discoverable info you may use to help case;
ESI you may use to help case;
Computation of damages;
Infor on insurance that may cover damages

40
Q

What are required pretrial disclosures?

A

o No later than 30 days before trial, the parties must give detailed information about their trial evidence, including identity of witnesses who will testify live or by deposition and documents, ESI, and other things that they intend to introduce at trial.

41
Q

List of Merits Sanctions

A
  • Establishment order (establishes facts as true);
  • Strike pleadings of the disobedient party (as to issues re the discovery);
  • Disallow evidence from the disobedient party (as to issues re the discovery);
  • Dismiss plaintiff’s case (if bad faith shown);
  • Enter default judgment against defendant (if bad faith shown)
42
Q

What must be shown for a TRO to be issues ex parte

A
  • The applicant files a paper under oath clearly showing that if the TRO is not issued, she will “suffer immediate and irreparable harm” if she must wait until the other side is heard.
  • The applicant’s lawyer certifies in writing her efforts to give oral or written notice to the defendant or the defendant’s lawyer (or why such notice should not be required in this case).
     Bond - If the court issues the TRO, the applicant must post a bond to cover the other side’s costs and damages caused if it turns out the restraint is wrongful.
43
Q

Elements for a preliminary injunction

A
  • She is likely to suffer irreparable harm if the injunction is not issued;
  • She is likely to win on the merits of the underlying case;
  • The balance of hardship favors her (threatened harm to applicant outweighs harm to other party if the injunction is issued); and
  • The injunction is in the public interest.
44
Q

When can default judgment be entered by a clerk?

A
  • The defendant has made no response at all (that is, she has not “appeared”);
  • The claim itself is for a sum certain in money;
  • The plaintiff gives an affidavit (sworn statement) of the sum owed; and
  • The defendant is not a minor or incompetent.
45
Q

Timing for moving for summary judgment

A

Any party can move for summary judgment no later than 30 days after close of discovery.

46
Q

What is a Rule 26(f) conference?

A

o Unless the court order says otherwise, at least 21 days before the court’s scheduling order, the parties “meet and confer” to discuss production of required initial disclosures, claims, defenses, settlement, and preservation of discoverable information. They must present to the court a detailed discovery plan no later than 14 days after the Rule 26(f) conference.
o Contents - The plan must include views and proposals on timing, issues about discovery of ESI, including how it will be produced and any problems retrieving it (for example, deleted files), etc.

47
Q

Timing for jury demand

A

A party must demand the jury in writing no later than 14 days after service of the last pleading addressing a jury triable issue.

48
Q

Timing/Prequisites for a RJMOL?

A

o Timing - The RJMOL must be made within 28 days after entry of judgment.
o Prerequisite - The party must have moved for JMOL at the proper time at trial. Failure to do so waives RJMOL. Not only that, the RJMOL motion must be based upon the same grounds as the JMOL motion.

49
Q

Reasons a motion for new trial may be issued?

A

 The judge gave an erroneous jury instruction;
 New evidence was discovered that could not have been discovered before with due diligence;
 Misconduct was committed by a juror, party, or lawyer, etc.;
 The judgment is against weight of the evidence (serious error of judgment); and
 Damages are inadequate or excessive.

50
Q

Timing for filing a notice of appeal?

A

The notice of appeal must be filed with the district court within 30 days after entry of the judgment that is being appealed.

51
Q

Elements of claim preclusion

A

Same claimant against same defendant;
Final, valid judgment on the merits;
Case 1 and Case 2 are same

Same claim usually means just that it arose from the same transaction or occurence; a minority of states do not follow this rule.

52
Q

When is a judgment on the merits?

A

 Unless the court said the judgment was “without prejudice” when entered, any judgment is “on the merits” unless it was based on a lack of jurisdiction (both personal and subject matter), improper venue, or a failure to join an indispensable party.

53
Q
  • In determining whether nonmutual offensive issue preclusion is fair, the court will consider whether:
A

o The party to be bound had a full and fair opportunity to litigate in Case 1;
o The party to be bound had a strong incentive to litigate Case 1.
o The party asserting issue preclusion could have easily joined to Case 1.
o There have been no inconsistent findings on the issue.

54
Q

Elements of Issue Preclusion

A

Final judgment on merits;
Issue was actually litigated;
Issue was necessary to the judgment;
Used against someone that was a party or in privity from case 1
Weird one

55
Q
A