Civ Pro Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

CA subject Matter jurisdiction is split in 3 ways. What are the 3 ways

A

Limited, Unlimited, Small Business claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Limited Civil cases

A

Amount in Controversy (AIC) of $25K or less. Restrictions on equitable, declaratory relief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Unlimited Civil Cases

A

AIC over 25k; no other limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Small Claims Cases

A

10k or less or for a business 5k or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SMJ

A

Federal courts are courts of limited jurisdiction and can only hear cases where it has SMJ. SMJ exists if a) there is a federal question; b) there is diversity of citizenship among the parties; or c) supplemental jurisdiction. Subject matter jurisdiction is not waived if a party fails to raise it at trial - it may be raised at any time, even on appeal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Federal Question

A

A federal question exists if a well-pleaded complaint alleges a claim that arises under federal law, the U.S. Constitution or United States treaties. Raising a federal defense is not sufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diversity JDX

A

Diversity jurisdiction exists when: 1) there is complete diversity of citizenship between plaintiffs and defendants; and 2) the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Citizenship (person, corporation, Executors, Partners)

A

Citizenship for a person depends upon their domicile, (residence with a subjective intent to make the state their permanent home). For a corporation, citizenship is determined by the corporate Principal Place of Business, or nerve center where the company is controlled, or any state in which incorporated. Executors are citizens of the Decedent’s state, and partnerships are citizens of the domicile state of every partner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AIC

A

– In federal courts, the AIC must be greater than $75K and alleged in good faith. A plaintiff can aggregate against one defendant, or all or all defendants if they are joint tortfeasors. If suing for injunctive relief, the AIC is based on the value of the benefit or the cost of compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Supplemental JDX

A

If a federal court has SMJ over a claim, then it may exercise SJX over additional state claims when they arise from a common nucleus of operational facts. SJX cannot be used to circumvent lack of diversity and cannot provide for jurisdiction over third parties. SJX does not require AIC or diversity, and if not used solely to defeat diversity and the common nucleus requirements, then SJX will likely be granted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Denying supplemental JDX

A

A federal court may decline SJX over state claims when: a) it raises a novel or complex issue of State law; b) it substantially predominates over the claim(s) of which the district court had original jurisdiction; c) the court has dismissed all claims of original jurisdiction; or d) in exceptional circumstances. State claims do not substantially predominate over federal claims when the facts needed to prove each claim are identical or similar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Removal to federal court - D can only remove if

A

1) the federal court has SMJ; 2) all defendants agree; 3) no defendant is a resident of the forum state; and 4) removal is sought within 30 days of either service of the summons or receiving the initial pleading (whichever is shorter).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who can never remove and what is the timeline for removal not to be an option

A

P; no more than 1 year after commencement in a diversity JDX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a plaintiff files the case in a state court, a defendant must remove it to

A

federal district court that embraces that state court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When must a fed court remand to state court

A

no federal SMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When MAY a federal court remand a case to State court when the Federal court orginally had SMJ

A

once he federal claims have been decided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A motion to remand must be filed within how many days of a request for removal

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State courts can try a federal question case so long as

A

there is no implied restriction by congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

States cannot do what to a case

A

discriminate based on federal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In personam JDX

A

– IPJ is required for a court to exercise judgment over a specific party, and normally falls into two categories: 1) the traditional bases of jurisdiction; and 2) modern bases of jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Traditional basis of jdx

A

domicile

presence when served

consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Modern basis of jdx

A

long arm statute

consitutionality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Long arm statutes

A

Many states have adopted long-arm statutes which allow personal jurisdiction over non-residents. While long-arm statutes can differ by state, jurisdiction under a long-arm statute must satisfy the constitutional requirements for the exercise of jurisdiction. Many states, like California, have adopted long-arm statutes which extend personal jurisdiction to the limit of the Constitution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Constitutionality - Int. Shoe

A
  • To satisfy the Constitutional requirements for personal jurisdiction, the defendant must have such minimum contacts with the forum state as to not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In determining whether minimum contracts are present, courts will look to 3 things

A

1) the level of contacts; 2) relatedness to cause of action; and 3) whether the exercise of jurisdiction would be fair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Minimum Contacts - In determining minimum contacts, the court looks:

A

1) whether the defendant purposefully availed himself of the forum state; and 2) whether the exercise of jurisdiction by the forum state would be foreseeable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Purposeful

A

– The contacts were purposeful if the Defendant availed themselves of the benefits and protections of the forum state’s laws.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is knowledge of your product being sold in another state enough under purposeful

A

Not by itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is needed for products to be considered purposeful

A

you need to advertise, send goods, activate a two-way website, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If you drive another states roads you have

A

availed yourself of the protections of their traffic laws – purposefully availed.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Foreseeable contacts

A

contacts were foreseeable if the defendant could foresee being haled into court based on contacts in the forum state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Relatedness - The relatedness of a contact to the controversy determines if

A

the court will exert General or Special Jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fair Play and Substantial Justice factors

A

Requires courts to consider 1) burden on defendant; 2) the state’s interest; 3) plaintiff’s relief interest; 4) interstate judicial system’s interest in efficiency; and 5) shared social policy interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Judgment on the pleadings standard

A

material facts are not in dispute and the pleadings reveal merit of the claim for either party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When can judgement on the pleadings be filed

A

after an answer has been filed and pleadings are closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Service of process - Process may be served by

A

anyone 18 years of age or older who is not a party to the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

3 methods of federal service upon indiviuals are

A

1) deliver to the defendant personally, leave at defendant’s dwelling with someone of suitable age and discretion who resides there, or deliver to the defendant’s agent; 2) use any service method authorized by state law in the state where the action is pending or in the state where service is taking place; or 3) if the defendant has waived the right to personal service, by sending a copy of the summons and complaint by first-class mail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How can you serve corporation

A

by 1) hand-delivery to an officer or a managing or general agent of the defendant;

2) any service method authorized by state law in the state where the action is pending or in the state where service is taking place; or

3) if the defendant has waived the right to personal service, by sending via first-class mail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Venue is proper in any district where

A

a) any defendant resides (if all defendants are residents of forum state); b) where a substantial portion of the claim occurred; c) where a substantial part of subject/property is located; or d) if none of the above apply, then venue is proper in any judicial district where any defendant is subject to personal jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Proper venue is determined when

A

when the suit is filed; a subsequent change of domicile by a party does not warrant a change in venue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Transfer of venue - if venue is proper, a court may transfer venue if

A

1) needed for convenience of parties and witnesses or interests of justice; and 2) the action could have been brought in the receiving court (proper venue and jurisdiction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If venue was orginally proper, court must apply

A

substantive law of transferor court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If venue is improper when the case is filed the court must either

A

a) dismiss the case or b) transfer to a proper court if the interests of justice require.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If venue was improper the law applied is

A

the one of the transferee court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In CA a venue depends on whether

A

action is local or transitory action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Local action

A

action involving real property, and venue is proper in the county where the real property is located.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Transitory action

A

venue is generally proper in any county where any defendant resides. If no defendant resides in California, then venue is proper in any county where the court has personal jurisdiction over the defendant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Contract actions - CA venue

A

venue is proper in the county where the contract was executed or to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tort actions - CA venue is proper in

A

the county where the act or omission giving rise to the tort occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Forum Non Conveniens

A

Allows a court to decline jurisdiction and dismiss an action if the court where the action was brought would be a seriously inconvenient forum and an adequate alternative forum exists in a foreign country.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Scope of discovery - FRE

A

– Discovery shall include all information: 1) relevant to any party’s claim or defense; 2) that is not privileged; or 3) is proportional to the needs of the case. The evidence sought need not be admissible at trial so long as it appears reasonably likely to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Scope of discovery - CA

A

a party may obtain discovery of all non-privileged information that is relevant to the subject matter involved in the pending action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Limits on scope of discovery – The Judge will determine the

A

benefit to the parties, the needs of the case, the amount in controversy, parties respective resources, importance of the issues and importance of the discovery in resolving those issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Physical or mental exams

A

When a person’s condition is in controversy, a physical or mental exam of the person may be requested. Court requires a good cause showing for the exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What discovery tool is the only discovery tool that needs advance court approval

A

physical and mental exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Disclosure of persons with knowledge

A

A party has no obligation to include in their initial disclosures information concerning individuals who have discoverable info but whom the party does not intend to use in its defenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

26F conference & Discovery

A

party may not seek discovery until after a Rule 26(f) discovery conference, unless ordered by the court, stipulated by the parties, or authorized by a specific rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

26F conference

A

A meet and confer to plan discovery, this conference should be as soon as possible, and must take place 21 days prior to Scheduling Conference. Initial disclosures must be exchanged 14 days after the 26(f) conference, unless the court stipulates otherwise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Request for a production of documents

A

allows a party to request and inspect designated documents in another party’s possession, custody, or control. The party to whom the request is directed must respond in writing (1) within 30 days after being served or (2) if the request was served prior to that conference, within 30 days after the parties’ first Rule 26(f) conference—unless a shorter or longer time is stipulated by the parties or ordered by the court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Motion to compel

A

If a party fails to respond to a document request, fails to allow inspection, or objects to a request, then the requesting party may move to compel. However, with a motion to compel, there is a preference that parties first meet to try to resolve the issue before filing the motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Interrogatories

A

A party may request 25 interrogatories, and if more are needed, bring this issue up at the 26(f) conference. Parties have 30 days to respond to interrogatories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Depositions

A

A formal interview under oath. A party is initially limited to 10 depositions, but the parties may stipulate a certain number. Depositions are normally limited to one day, and at the most seven hours on that day.

63
Q

Work product doctrine

A

Material a lawyer prepares for litigation is immune from discovery unless the opposition shows a substantial need and inability to gather the material without undue hardship. A lawyer’s mental impressions or opinions are immune from discovery.

64
Q

Absoulte privillege applies to

A

mental impressions, notes or opinions

65
Q

Qualified Privilege

A

applies to other materials that can be discoverable upon showing of substantial need and inability to acquire the materials elsewhere.

66
Q

Leave of court to amend will be granted when

A

1) justice requires; 2) no undue prejudice will result to defendant; and 3) amendment of the claim is not subject to dismissal.

67
Q

Res Judicata def

A

Precludes parties in an action from re-litigating any claim that was or could have been raised in that action.

68
Q

Res Judicata elements

A

1) parties are identical or in privity; 2) there was a final judgement on the merits; and 3) same claim based on same transaction or occurrence as that previously litigated.

69
Q

CA res judicata

A

all appeals must be exhausted. A dismissal with prejudice equals a final judgment on the merits. If the plaintiff wins, then the new claim is merged, if the defendant wins then the new case is barred.

70
Q

Collateral Estoppel def

A

Precludes a party from attempting to retry an issue if there has been a final judgment on the merits by a court of competent jurisdiction.

71
Q

collateral estoppel elements

A

1) a valid and final judgment was rendered; 2) issue is identical to the issue previously decided; 3) issue was actually litigated and determined essential to the prior action; and 4) party against whom enforcement is sought had full and fair opportunity to litigate the issue in the first action.

72
Q

If one state initally issues a judgement in collateral estoppel

A

state laws determine if it can be used non-mutality in another state

73
Q

Erie doctrine must have a

A

federal case sitting in diversity

74
Q

Erie doctrine def

A

Doctrine - In a federal case under diversity, the court will apply its own federal procedural laws but must apply state substantive law.

75
Q

Procedural laws

A

civil procedure rules, burden of proof, and rebuttable presumptions.

76
Q

Substantive laws

A

choice of law rules, statute of frauds, damages, and the statute of limitations.

77
Q

Valid final judgement

A

court had both personal and subject matter jurisdiction, and the defendant had proper notice and an opportunity to be heard.

In California, a judgment is not final until the conclusion of the appeal or, if no appeal is taken, when the time for filing a notice of appeal expires.

78
Q

SOL

A

Limits the amount of time a plaintiff may bring a claim to encourage resolution of claims within a reasonable time before evidence has been lost or facts have become unclear through the passage of time, defect of memory, death or disappearance of witnesses.

79
Q

Relation back

A

An amendment to a pleading overcomes the statute of limitations when 1) claim is of the same transaction or occurrence as the original pleading; 2) the new party received notice of the lawsuit and knew or should have known the action should have been brought against them.

80
Q

Class action certification is when a judge must determine that

A

1) the class must be so large joinder of all parties is impractical; 2) there is a common question of law or fact shared by the class; 3) the claims of named representatives are typical of the class; and 4) the representatives fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class.

81
Q

Certification can be appealed within

A

within 14 days of the certification decision, where the court of appeals has complete, unfettered discretion in deciding to hear the case.

82
Q

CAFA

A

Allows federal courts to preside over class action cases when the amount in controversy exceeds $5M, the class is at least 100 persons, and where minimal diversity exists – at least one plaintiff and one defendant are diverse.

83
Q

Summary judgement

A

Should be granted if the pleadings, discovery, and affidavits viewed in light most favorable to nonmoving party (NMP), the moving party shows that no genuine dispute of material fact exists and the moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law

84
Q

How long do you have to file a summary judgement

A

until 30 days after the close of discovery

85
Q

JMOL

A

Occurs if a party has been fully heard on an issue during a jury trial and the court finds that a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient basis to find for the party on that issue. The movant must make this motion prior to submission of the case to the jury, and if they do, after the verdict against them, they can move for a renewed JMOL.

86
Q

When raising a JMOL, the court may

A

1) resolve the issue against that party; 2) grant a motion for JMOL against the party.

87
Q

Renewed JMOL may be filed no later than

A

than 28 days after entry of the judgment and is limited to those issues raised in the JMOL. If the party did not motion prior to assignment to the jury, they have not preserved the right to file a renewed JMOL.

88
Q

Under the 7th Amendment, if a case contains both legal and equitable claims arising from a common nucleus of operative facts, then the legal claims should be tried by the

A

jury first, and the equitable claims would be tried by the court afterward. This works in the opposite in CA.

89
Q

Motion for a new trial must be filed

A

no later than 28 days from judgement

90
Q

When will a court grant a new trial

A

when there is an error during trial, juror misconduct or if the verdict is against the weight of the evidence.

91
Q

Plain error - WHen will a court consider a plain error in the instructions

A

when the claim was not preserved by proper objection, and only if the error affects substantial rights.

92
Q

In situations where you fail to raise the issue of insufficiency of evidence in a motion for JMOL, RJMOL or a new trial, you have

A

failed to preserve, cant raise this issue on appeal

93
Q

On motion or on its own (sua sponte), a court may relieve a party from a final judgment order if there is

A

1) mistake; 2) new evidence that could not be found with due diligence; 3) fraud; 4) any reason that justifies relief. Reasons 1, 2, and 3 must be raised within a year, and #4 is within reasonable time

94
Q

Judicial order for a new trial

A

– A Judge can order a new trial for any reason that a party could motion for one.

95
Q

Joinder of claims

A

A plaintiff can join any number/type of claims against a defendant; when multiple plaintiffs or defendants are involved, at least one of the claims must arise out of a transaction in which all were involved.

96
Q

Complusory joinder of parties

A

a plaintiff must join all interested parties or face dismissal of the lawsuit.

97
Q

Complusory joinder elements

A

the court must ask: 1) should the absentee be joined; 2) can the absentee be joined; and 3) if the absentee cannot be joined, should the action proceed?

98
Q

Permissive joinder

A

parties may join as plaintiffs or be joined as defendants whenever: 1) some claim is made by each plaintiff and against each defendant relating to or arising out of the same series of occurrences or transactions; and 2) there is a question of fact or law common to all parties.

99
Q

What does not deem a party necessary

A

being jointly and severly liable

100
Q

Common law right to jury

A

guarnteed only in federal courts not state

101
Q

7A right to jury

A

A jury demand must be made within 14 days of the last pleading. Facts that apply to both legal and equitable claims will be tried by a jury if requested.

102
Q

Crim cases - 7A right to jury

A

the right to a jury applies to serious cases only, with penalties of at least 6 months incarceration.

103
Q

– If an action is not one where a jury might be demanded, a court

A

can’t grant a jury without both parties’ consent.

104
Q

Court may try with a jury trial for a case that would not get one if

A

they both consent and that effect is binding

105
Q

1791

A

If a party would have been entitled to a jury in 1791, before the common law/equity split, then that party is entitled to a jury trial today.

106
Q

Right to jury - civil case

A

trial in civil cases is only guaranteed in federal courts – state laws determine jury rights in state courts.

107
Q

M2 dismiss a civil claim

A

A court may dismiss a civil claim without legal merit by determining if sufficient facts are pled to sustain a prima facie case for the alleged cause of action. If not, the court will not evaluate the merits of the case.

108
Q

timing of a 12B motion

A

A 12(b) motion to dismiss for lack must be raised by the defendant in its first response.

109
Q

If m2 dismiss is based on insufficent process, proper procedure is to

A

to file a motion to dismiss, not with an answer stating affirmative defense per FRCP 12(b).

110
Q

Can a motion for a new trial be filed with a JMOl

A

yes

111
Q

If the JMOL is approved what would happen to the M2 a new trial

A

conditionally rule on a motion for a new trial

112
Q

Grounds for juror misconduct

A

– Testimony that a juror used extraneous, prejudicial information or improper outside influences is grounds for a new trial.

113
Q

Not grounds for juror misconduct

A

Misunderstanding of the standard of proof, mental states and relying on evidence that was directed to be disregarded are not grounds for a new trial.

114
Q

Final Judgement exception

A

A claim or issue may be immediately appealable (interlocutory) if it is too important to wait

115
Q

what must you show to get a final judgement exception

A

1) the lower court must have conclusively determined the disputed questions;

2) the issue must be separate from and collateral to the merits of the main issue of the case; and

3) the issue must be effectively unreviewable on appeal from the final judgment.

116
Q

Appeal must be made within 30 days unless the

A

US Goverment is a party then its 60 days

117
Q

Interlocutory appeals requires

A

1) the judge certifies the interlocutory order involves a controlling question of law; 2) this question involves a substantial ground for difference of opinion and immediate appeal may terminate the need for a trial, and 3) the court of appeals agrees to take the case.

118
Q

Issues Eligible for review on appeal

A

Requires 1) the loser must preserve the issue during trial, typically by making an objection, then raise the issue on appeal, 2) if issue is of fact, the appellate court will give great deference to the trial court’s handling, and 3) the appellate court will not reverse if they find the error was harmless.

119
Q

Harmless Error

A

Error does not affect substanital rights of party

120
Q

– If a party has made an appearance yet later defaults, they must be given

A

a 7 day notice of the default entry hearing

121
Q

If a party never apears

A

they are not afforded a 7-day notice and go straight to default.

122
Q

Serrvice must be made within

A

90 days but upon a showing og good cause, court may extend

123
Q

What does service require

A

summons and compliant

124
Q

Failure to serve in time results

A

in dismissal without prejudice

125
Q

Waiver of service

A

Provides a defendant additional time to respond to the complaint. This waiver must be returned within 30 days in the continental United States, or 60 outside the U.S., then the person served need not reply to the complaint until 60 days after service, or 90 outside the U.S.

126
Q

A pleading may be amended

A

1) once within 21 days of serving; 2) 21 days after services of a responsive pleading or pre-answer if it requires a response; or 3) after seeking leave of the court or written consent of the adverse party.

127
Q

If a partty moves to dismiss a claim twice without leave of court it acts as a

A

adjuication on the merits w/ prejuice

128
Q

For SOL purposes an amendment to a pleading that arises from the same transaction or occurrence set forth in the original pleading is generally deemed

A

filed on the date the original pleading was filed.

129
Q

In cases where jury awards are deemed insufficient, a court may invoke

A

Additur or Remittitur

130
Q

Additur

A

providing the losing party the option of adding to their judgement or facing a new trial

131
Q

Remitter

A

when excessie; (offering the winning party the option of lowering their award or facing a new trial).

132
Q

Federal courts do not permmit

A

additur

133
Q

Clearly erroneous

A

bad fact finding

134
Q

De novo review

A

pure matter of law

135
Q

Abuse of disrection

A

court makes a bad decision that is plainly wrong or without appropriate basis

136
Q

Mixed questions of law and fact are

A

de novo

137
Q

Implied consent

A

If a defendant brings allegations during trial, and the plaintiff does not object, the plaintiff thereby implies consent to admit the claim to the current trial. This filing occurs without a need to file a counterclaim.

138
Q

Sanctions

A

The Court has discretion to impose sanctions sufficient to deter repetition of conduct. The court will not fine the party because of lawyer’s misconduct, nor will they dismiss a case with prejudice.

139
Q

Rule 11 Sanctions -

A
  • Every pleading, written motion, or other paper filed with the court must be signed by the attorney of record, certifying that to the best of the attorney’s knowledge, information, and belief formed after a reasonable inquiry 1) the document is not being presented for an improper purpose; 2) the legal contentions are warranted by existing law; and 3) factual contentions and denial have evidentiary support.
140
Q

Can the court order sanctions on its own

A

yes

141
Q

Opposing parties process for sanctions

A

they must give notice of their intention to do so to the opposing counsel and allow them 21 days to withdraw or correct the matter before the opposing party may file the motion.

142
Q

Sanctions may be for

A

money or non-monetary directives

143
Q

Notice pleading

A

A claim must be stated in general terms and must contain sufficient factual allegations to allow a district court to find that the claim is plausible. In cases where fraud is asserted, specificity is required.

144
Q

Writ of Mandamus

A

An order directing a judge to act/enjoin when it’s been determined that an appeal would be insufficient to correct the problem at hand, and that the trial court’s actions constitute a serious abuse of power in need of immediate rectification.

145
Q

Findings and conslusion

A

Required to be provided by a court when there is no jury and the case is tried solely on facts. This can be done when there is no need to assess the credibility of the witnesses.

146
Q

Failure to prosecute

A

court dismisses your case due to a failure to prosecute, it is with prejudice, may not be filed at a later date.

147
Q

Interpleader

A

a type of suit between two or more parties to determine the claim to property held by a third party. Can be statutory or rule based.

148
Q

Statuory

A

minimal diversity and 500 dollars AIC

149
Q

Rule

A

rules are the same as diversity jurisdiction. Binding only on those who are a party to the claim.

150
Q

Impleader

A

Before a trial begins, one party may join a third party when the third party is liable to the original defendant.

151
Q

Judgement on the merits

A

decision was made in consideration of the merits of the claim or defense, rather than on technical grounds (e.g., lack of jurisdiction, improper venue). A judgment on the merits includes judgment entered after a full trial, summary judgment, judgment as a matter of law, and default judgment when the court has SMJ and personal jurisdiction over the parties.

152
Q

Federal law transactional approach for sufficently identifical claims barred by res judicata

A

all or any part of the transaction, or series of connected transactions, out of which the action arose. Factors that are considered in determining what constitutes a transaction or series of transactions include: (1) whether the facts are related in time, space, origin, or motivation, (2) whether the facts form a convenient trial unit, and (3) whether treating the facts as a unit conforms to the parties’ expectations.

153
Q

Same parties - res judicata

A

defendant must be the same (and in the same roles) in both the original action and the subsequently filed action.

154
Q

Initial disclosures

A

Parties are required within 14 days of discovery to make the inital disclosures as to the names of any witnesses they will retain and any qualifications (as expert witnesses) and insurance liability policy held.