CISSP Practice Test Chapter 3 Security Architecture and Engineering (Sybex)

Question 1

Matthew is the security administrator for a consulting firm and must enforce access controls that restrict users’ access based upon their previous activity. For example, once a consultant accesses data belonging to Acme Cola, a consulting client, they may no longer access data belonging to any of Acme’s competitors. What security model best fits Matthew’s needs?

A. Clark-Wilson
B. Biba
C. Bell-LaPadula
D. Brewer-Nash

Answer 1

D. Brewer-Nash

Explanation:
The Brewer-Nash model allows access controls to change dynamically based upon a user’s actions. It is often used in environments like Matthew’s to implement a “Chinese wall” between data belonging to different clients.

Question 2

Referring to the figure shown here, what is the earliest stage of a fire where it is possible to use detection technology to identify it?

A. Incipient
B. Smoke
C. Flame
D. Heat

Answer 2

A. Incipient

Explanation:
Fires may be detected as early as the incipient stage. During this stage, air ionization takes place, and specialized incipient fire detection systems can identify these changes to provide early warning of a fire.

Question 3

Ralph is designing a physical security infrastructure for a new computing facility that will remain largely unstaffed. He plans to implement motion detectors in the facility but would also like to include a secondary verification control for physical presence. Which one of the following would best meet his needs?

A. CCTV
B. IPS
C. Turnstiles
D. Faraday cages

Answer 3

A. CCTV

Explanation:
A. Closed-circuit television (CCTV) systems act as a secondary verification mechanism for physical presence because they allow security officials to view the interior of the facility when a motion alarm sounds to determine the current occupants and their activities.

Question 4

Harry would like to retrieve a lost encryption key from a database that uses m of n control, with m = 4 and n = 8. What is the minimum number of escrow agents required to retrieve the key?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

Answer 4

B. 4

Explanation:
In an m of n control system, at least m of n possible escrow agents must collaborate to retrieve an encryption key from the escrow database.

Question 5

Fran’s company is considering purchasing a web-based email service from a vendor and eliminating its own email server environment as a cost-saving measure. What type of cloud computing environment is Fran’s company considering?

A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. PaaS

Answer 5

A. SaaS

Explanation:
A. This is an example of a vendor offering a fully functional application as a web-based service. Therefore, it fits under the definition of software as a service (SaaS). In infrastructure as a service (IaaS), compute as a service (CaaS), and platform as a service (PaaS) approaches, the customer provides their own software. In this example, the vendor is providing the email software, so none of those choices is appropriate.

Question 6

Bob is a security administrator with the U.S. federal government and wants to choose a digital signature approach that is an approved part of the federal Digital Signature Standard under FIPS 186-4. Which one of the following encryption algorithms is not an acceptable choice for use in digital signatures?

A. DSA
B. HAVAL
C. RSA
D. ECDSA

Answer 6

B. HAVAL

Explanation:
The Digital Signature Standard approves three encryption algorithms for use in digital signatures: the Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA); the Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA) algorithm; and the Elliptic Curve DSA (ECDSA) algorithm. HAVAL is a hash function, not an encryption algorithm. While hash functions are used as part of the digital signature process, they do not provide encryption.

Question 7

Harry would like to access a document owned by Sally and stored on a file server. Applying the subject/object model to this scenario, who or what is the subject of the resource request?

A. Harry
B. Sally
C. Server
D. Document

Answer 7

A. Harry

Explanation:
In the subject/object model of access control, the user or process making the request for a resource is the subject of that request. In this example, Harry is requesting resource access and is, therefore, the subject.

Question 8

Michael is responsible for forensic investigations and is investigating a medium-severity security incident that involved the defacement of a corporate website. The web server in question ran on a virtualization platform, and the marketing team would like to get the website up and running as quickly as possible. What would be the most reasonable next step for Michael to take?

A. Keep the website offline until the investigation is complete.
B. Take the virtualization platform offline as evidence.
C. Take a snapshot of the compromised system and use that for the investigation.
D. Ignore the incident and focus on quickly restoring the website.

Answer 8

C. Take a snapshot of the compromised system and use that for the investigation.

Explanation:
Michael should conduct his investigation, but there is a pressing business need to bring the website back online. The most reasonable course of action would be to take a snapshot of the compromised system and use the snapshot for the investigation, restoring the website to operation as quickly as possible while using the results of the investigation to improve the security of the site.

Question 9

Helen is a software engineer and is developing code that she would like to restrict to running within an isolated sandbox for security purposes. What software development technique is Helen using?

A. Bounds
B. Input validation
C. Confinement
D. TCB

Answer 9

C. Confinement

Explanation:
C. Using a sandbox is an example of confinement, where the system restricts the access of a particular process to limit its ability to affect other processes running on the same system.

Question 10

What concept describes the degree of confidence that an organization has that its controls satisfy security requirements?

A. Trust
B. Credentialing
C. Verification
D. Assurance

Answer 10

D. Assurance

Explanation:
Assurance is the degree of confidence that an organization has that its security controls are correctly implemented. It must be continually monitored and reverified.

Question 11

What type of security vulnerability are developers most likely to introduce into code when they seek to facilitate their own access, for testing purposes, to software they developed?

A, Maintenance hook
B. Cross-site scripting
C. SQL injection
D. Buffer overflow

Answer 11

A, Maintenance hook

Explanation:
Maintenance hooks, otherwise known as backdoors, provide developers with easy access to a system, bypassing normal security controls. If not removed prior to finalizing code, they pose a significant security vulnerability if an att

Question 12

In the figure shown here, Sally is blocked from reading the file due to the Biba integrity model. Sally has a Secret security clearance, and the file has a Confidential classification. What principle of the Biba model is being enforced?

A. Simple Security Property
B. Simple Integrity Property
C. *-Security Property
D. *-Integrity Property

Answer 12

B. Simple Integrity Property

Explanation:
The Simple Integrity Property states that an individual may not read a file classified at a lower security level than the individual’s security clearance.

Question 13

Tom is responsible for maintaining the security of systems used to control industrial processes located within a power plant. What term is used to describe these systems?

A. POWER
B. SCADA
C. HAVAL
D. COBOL

Answer 13

B. SCADA

Explanation:
Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems are used to control and gather data from industrial processes. They are commonly found in power plants and other industrial environments.

Question 14

Sonia recently removed an encrypted hard drive from a laptop and moved it to a new device because of a hardware failure. She is having difficulty accessing encrypted content on the drive despite the fact that she knows the user’s password. What hardware security feature is likely causing this problem?

A. TCB
B. TPM
C. NIACAP
D. RSA

Answer 14

B. TPM

Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware security technique that stores an encryption key on a chip on the motherboard and prevents someone from accessing an encrypted drive by installing it in another computer.

Question 15

Chris wants to verify that a software package that he downloaded matches the original version. What hashing tool should he use if he believes that technically sophisticated attackers may have replaced the software package with a version containing a backdoor?

A. MD5
B. 3DES
C. SHA1
D. SHA 256

Answer 15

D. SHA 256

Explanation:
Intentional collisions have been created with MD5, and a real-world collision attack against SHA 1was announced in early 2017. 3DES is not a hashing tool, leaving SHA 256 (sometimes called SHA 2) as the only real choice that Chris has in this list. C. In an asymmetric

Question 16

For questions 16–19, please refer to the following scenario:

Alice and Bob would like to use an asymmetric cryptosystem to communicate with each other. They are located in different parts of the country but have exchanged encryption keys by using digital certificates signed by a mutually trusted certificate authority.

If Alice wants to send Bob a message that is encrypted for confidentiality, what key does she use to encrypt the message?

A. Alice’s public key
B. Alice’s private key
C. Bob’s public key
D. Bob’s private key

Answer 16

C. Bob’s public key

Explanation:
In an asymmetric cryptosystem, the sender of a message encrypts the message using the recipient’s public key. The recipient may then decrypt that message using their own private key, which only they should possess.

Question 17

When Bob receives the encrypted message from Alice, what key does he use to decrypt the message’s plaintext content?

A. Alice’s public key
B. Alice’s private key
C. Bob’s public key
D. Bob’s private key

Answer 17

D. Bob’s private key

Explanation:
When Bob receives the message, he uses his own private key to decrypt it. Since he is the only one with his private key, he is the only one who should be able to decrypt it, thus preserving confidentiality.

Question 18

Which one of the following keys would Bob not possess in this scenario?

A. Alice’s public key
B. Alice’s private key
C. Bob’s public key
D. Bob’s private key

Answer 18

B. Alice’s private key

Explanation:
Each user retains their private key as secret information. In this scenario, Bob would only have access to his own private key and would not have access to the private key of Alice or any other user.

Question 19

Alice would also like to digitally sign the message that she sends to Bob. What key should she use to create the digital signature?

A. Alice’s public key
B. Alice’s private key
C. Bob’s public key
D. Bob’s private key

Answer 19

B. Alice’s private key

Explanation:
Alice creates the digital signature using her own private key. Then Bob, or any other user, can verify the digital signature using Alice’s public key.

Question 20

What name is given to the random value added to a password in an attempt to defeat rainbow table attacks?

A. Hash
B. Salt
C. Extender
D. Rebar

Answer 20

B. Salt

Explanation:
The salt is a random value added to a password before it is hashed by the operating system. The salt is then stored in a password file with the hashed password. This increases the complexity of cryptanalytic attacks by negating the usefulness of attacks that use precomputed hash values, such as rainbow tables.

Question 21

Which one of the following is not an attribute of a hashing algorithm?

A. They require a cryptographic key.
B. They are irreversible.
C. It is very difficult to find two messages with the same hash value.
D. They take vaiable-length input.

Answer 21

A. They require a cryptographic key.

Explanation:
Hash functions do not include any element of secrecy and, therefore, do not require a cryptographic key.

Question 22

What type of fire suppression system fills with water after a valve opens when the initial stages of a fire are detected and then requires a sprinkler head heat activation before dispensing water?

A. Wet pipe
B. Dry pipe
C. Deluge
D. Preaction

Answer 22

D. Preaction

Explanation:
A preaction fire suppression system activates in two steps. The pipes fill with water once the early signs of a fire are detected. The system does not dispense water until heat sensors on the sprinkler heads trigger the second phase.

Question 23

Susan would like to configure IPsec in a manner that provides confidentiality for the content of packets. What component of IPsec provides this capability?

A. AH
B. ESP
C. IKE
D. ISAKMP

Answer 23

B. ESP

Explanation:
The Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol provides confidentiality and integrity for packet contents. It encrypts packet payloads and provides limited authentication and protection against replay attacks.

Question 24

Which one of the following cryptographic goals protects against the risks posed when a device is lost or stolen?

A. Nonrepudiation
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality

Answer 24

D. Confidentiality

Explanation:
The greatest risk when a device is lost or stolen is that sensitive data contained on the device will fall into the wrong hands. Confidentiality protects against this risk. Nonrepudiation is when the recipient of a message can prove the originator’s identity to a third party. Authentication is a means of proving one’s identity. Integrity demonstrates that information has not been modified since transmission.

Question 25

Joanna wants to review the status of the industrial control systems her organization uses for building control. What type of systems should she inquire about access to?

A. SCADA
B. DSS
C. BAS
D. ICS-CSS

Answer 25

A. SCADA

Explanation:
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems, or SCADA systems, provide a graphical interface to monitor industrial control systems (ICS). Joanna should ask about access to her organization’s SCADA systems.

Question 26

In the figure shown here, Harry’s request to write to the data file is blocked. Harry has a Secret security clearance, and the data file has a Confidential classification. What principle of the Bell-LaPadula model blocked this request?

A. Simple Security Property
B. Simple Integrity Property
C. *-Security Property
D. Discretionary Security Property

Answer 26

C. *-Security Property

Explanation:
The *-Security Property states that an individual may not write to a file at a lower classification level than that of the individual. This is also known as the confinement property.

Question 27

Florian and Tobias would like to begin communicating using a symmetric cryptosystem, but they have no prearranged secret and are not able to meet in person to exchange keys. What algorithm can they use to securely exchange the secret key?

A. IDEA
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. RSA
D. MD5

Answer 27

B. Diffie-Hellman

Explanation:
The Diffie-Hellman algorithm allows for the secure exchange of symmetric encryption keys over a public network. IDEA and RSA are encryption algorithms. MD5 is a hashing function.

Question 28

Carl’s organization recently underwent a user access review. At the conclusion of the review, the auditors noted several cases of privilege creep. What security principle was violated?

A. Fail securely
B. Keep it simple
C. Trust but verify
D. Least privilege

Answer 28

D. Least privilege

Explanation:
The principle of least privilege says that an employee should have only the minimum necessary privileges required to perform their jobs. Privilege creep indicates that an employee has accumulated permissions that they no longer require, indicating a violation of the least privilege principle. The trust but verify principle says that organizations should use auditing to ensure that control objectives are met. The fail securely principle says that security controls should default to a secure state in the event of a control failure. The keep it simple principle says that security controls and other technologies should remain as simple as possible while still completing their objectives.

Question 29

Matt’s organization recently adopted a zero-trust network architecture. Under this approach, which one of the following criteria would be LEAST appropriate to use when granting a subject access to resources?

A. Password
B. Two-factor authentication
C. IP address
D. Biometric scan

Answer 29

C. IP address

Explanation:
In a zero-trust network architecture, access control decisions should never be made based upon a system’s location on the network. Therefore, an IP address should never be used and would be the least appropriate of these options. While the other options have differing levels of security (two-factor authentication is clearly stronger than a password or biometrics alone), they do not violate the principles of a zero-trust network architecture.

Question 30

Colin is the chief privacy officer for a non-profit organization and is assisting with the team’s transition to a Privacy by Design approach. Under this approach, which is not one of the Privacy by Design principles that the team should embrace?

A. Proactive, not reactive
B. Privacy as the default setting
C. End-to-end security
D. Defense in depth

Answer 30

D. Defense in depth

Explanation:
While defense in depth is a strong security principle, it is not a component of Privacy by Design. The following are the seven principles of the Privacy by Design model:
1. Proactive, not reactive; preventive, not remedial
2. Privacy as the default setting
3. Privacy embedded into design
4. Full functionality—positive-sum, not zero-sum
5. End-to-end security—full lifecycle protection
6. Visibility and transparency—keep it open
7. Respect for user privacy—keep it user-centric

Question 31

What cryptographic principle stands behind the idea that cryptographic algorithms should be open to public inspection?

A. Security through obscurity
B. Kerckhoffs’ principle
C. Defense in depth
D. Heisenburg principle

Answer 31

B. Kerckhoffs’ principle

Explanation:
Kerckhoffs’ principle says that a cryptographic system should be secure even if everything about the system, except the key, is public knowledge.

Question 32

Ryan is developing a physical access plan for his organization’s data center and wants to implement the security control indicated by the arrow in this diagram. What is the name of this control?

A. Mantrap
B. Turnstile
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. Portal

Answer 32

A. Mantrap

Explanation:
Mantraps use two sets of doors to control access to a facility. This may be used to prevent piggybacking by monitoring use of the mantrap to allow only a single individual to enter a facility at a time. They may also be used to allow manual inspection of individuals or perform other security screening. Mantraps are also commonly known as access control vestibules.

Question 33

Which one of the following does not describe a standard physical security requirement for wiring closets?

A. Place only in areas monitored by security guards.
B. Do not store flammable items in the closet.
C. Use sensors on doors to log entries.
D. Perform regular inspections of the closet.

Answer 33

A. Place only in areas monitored by security guards.

Explanation:
While it would be ideal to have wiring closets in a location where they are monitored by security staff, this is not feasible in most environments. Wiring closets must be distributed geographically in multiple locations across each building used by an organization.

Question 34

In the figure shown here, Sally is blocked from writing to the data file by the Biba integrity model. Sally has a Secret security clearance, and the file is classified Top Secret. What principle is preventing her from writing to the file?

A. Simple Security Property
B. Simple Integrity Property
C. *-Security Property
D. *-Integrity Property

Answer 34

D. *-Integrity Property

Explanation:
The *-Integrity Property states that a subject cannot modify an object at a higher integrity level than that possessed by the subject.

Question 35

Lana recently implemented a new process in her organization where managers who are responsible for granting users access to a system are not permitted to participate in access reviews. What principle is she enforcing?

A. Two-person control
B. Least privilege
C. Privilege creep
D. Separation of duties

Answer 35

D. Separation of duties

Explanation:
The separation of duties principle says that no employee should have permission to perform two tasks that, when combined, would pose a security risk. In this situation, an employee auditing their own work would create a conflict of interest, so Lana has implemented a separation of duties. Two-person control is closely related, but it requires that two different employees approve an action. If she required that two managers approve new accounts, that would be an example of two-person control.

Question 36

Which of the following statements about system development are correct? (Select all that apply.)

A. Systems should be designed to operate in a secure manner if the user performs no other configuration.
B. Systems should be designed to fall back to a secure state if they experience an error.
C. Systems should be designed to incorporate security as a design feature.
D. Systems should be designed in a manner that keeps their functionality as simple as possible.

Answer 36

A. Systems should be designed to operate in a secure manner if the user performs no other configuration.
B. Systems should be designed to fall back to a secure state if they experience an error.
C. Systems should be designed to incorporate security as a design feature.
D. Systems should be designed in a manner that keeps their functionality as simple as possible.

Explanation:
All of these statements are correct. The idea that systems should be designed to operate in a secure manner if the user performs no other configuration is the secure defaults principle. The idea that systems should be designed to fall back to a secure state if they experience an error is the fail securely principle. The idea that systems should be designed to incorporate security as a design feature is the security by design principle. The idea that systems should be designed in a manner that keeps their functionality as simple

Question 37

Alan is reviewing a system that has been assigned the EAL1 evaluation assurance level under the Common Criteria. What is the degree of assurance that he may have about the system?

A. It has been functionally tested.
B. It has been structurally tested.
C. It has been formally verified, designed, and tested.
D. It has been methodically designed, tested, and reviewed.

Answer 37

A. It has been functionally tested.

Explanation:
EAL1 assurance applies when the system in question has been functionally tested. It is the lowest level of assurance under the Common Criteria.

Question 38

Jake works for a research organization that is seeking to deploy a grid computing system that will perform cycle scavenging on user workstations to conduct research tasks that require high-performance computing. What is the most significant risk associated with this operation?

A. Data confidentiality
B. Isolation breach
C. Data integrity
D. Data availability

Answer 38

B. Isolation breach

Explanation:
The system can be designed in a manner that protects the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. The research workstations included in the grid are from internal users, minimizing the risk of distributing the data. However, an isolation breach in the distributed computing client could be catastrophic, allowing someone who compromises the controller to assume control of every device in the organization.

Question 39

Eimear’s software development team uses an approach that creates many discrete software objects and then binds them together using APIs. What term best describes this architecture?

A. Microservices
B. Function-as-a-service
C. Containerization
D. Virtualization

Answer 39

A. Microservices

Explanation:
This is an example of a microservices architecture. Each of the component microservices performs a discrete task and then communicates with other microservices using APIs. This might be accomplished using FaaS cloud computing, containerization, and/or virtualization, but there is no indication whether those services are being used in the scenario.

Question 40

Adam recently configured permissions on an NTFS filesystem to describe the access that different users may have to a file by listing each user individually. What did Adam create?

A. An access control list
B. An access control entry
C. Role-based access control
D. Mandatory access control

Answer 40

A. An access control list

Explanation:
Adam created a list of individual users who may access the file. This is an access control list, which consists of multiple access control entries. It includes the names of users, so it is not role-based, and Adam was able to modify the list, so it is not mandatory access control.

Question 41

Betty is concerned about the use of buffer overflow attacks against a custom application developed for use in her organization. What security control would provide the strongest defense against these attacks?

A. Firewall
B. Intrusion detection system
C. Parameter checking
D. Vulnerability scanning

Answer 41

C. Parameter checking

Explanation:
Parameter checking, or input validation, is used to ensure that input provided by users to an application matches the expected parameters for the application. Developers may use parameter checking to ensure that input does not exceed the expected length, preventing a buffer overflow attack.

Question 42

Which one of the following combinations of controls best embodies the defense in depth principle?

A. Encryption of email and network intrusion detection
B. Cloud access security brokers (CASB) and security awareness training
C. Data loss prevention and multifactor authentication
D. Network firewall and host firewall

Answer 42

D. Network firewall and host firewall

Explanation:
The defense-in-depth principle suggests using multiple overlapping security controls to achieve the same control objective. Network and host firewalls are both designed to limit network traffic and therefore are an example of defense in depth. The encryption of email and network intrusion detection are unrelated controls and do not satisfy the same objective. The same is true for the combination of CASB and security awareness training and the combination of DLP and multifactor authentication.

Question 43

James is working with a Department of Defense system that is authorized to simultaneously handle information classified at the Secret and Top Secret levels. What type of system is he using?

A. Single state
B. Unclassified
C. Compartmented
D. Multistate

Answer 43

D. Multistate

Explanation:
Multistate systems are certified to handle data from different security classifications simultaneously by implementing protection mechanisms that segregate data appropriately.

Question 44

Kyle is being granted access to a military computer system that uses System High mode. What is not true about Kyle’s security clearance requirements?

A. Kyle must have a clearance for the highest level of classification processed by the system, regardless of his access.
B. Kyle must have access approval for all information processed by the system.
C. Kyle must have a valid need to know for all information processed by the system.
D. Kyle must have a valid security clearance.

Answer 44

C. Kyle must have a valid need to know for all information processed by the system.

Explanation:
For systems running in System High mode, the user must have a valid security clearance for all information processed by the system, access approval for all information processed by the system, and a valid need to know for some, but not necessarily all, information processed by the system.

Question 45

Gary intercepts a communication between two individuals and suspects that they are exchanging secret messages. The content of the communication appears to be the image shown here. What type of technique may the individuals use to hide messages inside this image?

A. Visual cryptography
B. Steganography
C. Cryptographic hashing
D. Transport layer security

Answer 45

B. Steganography

Explanation:
Steganography is the art of using cryptographic techniques to embed secret messages within other content. Some steganographic algorithms work by making alterations to the least significant bits of the many bits that make up image files.

Question 46

Philip is developing a new security tool that will be used by individuals in many different subsidiaries of his organization. He chooses to use Docker to deploy the tool to simplify configuration. What term best describes this approach?

A. Virtualization
B. Abstraction
C. Simplification
D. Containerization

Answer 46

D. Containerization

Explanation:
All of these terms accurately describe this use of technology. However, the use of Docker is best described as a containerization technology, so this is the best possible answer choice.

Question 47

In the ring protection model shown here, what ring contains the operating system’s kernel?

A. Ring 0
B. Ring 1
C. Ring 2
D. Ring 3

Answer 47

A. Ring 0

Explanation:
The kernel lies within the central ring, Ring 0. Conceptually, Ring 1 contains other operating system components. Ring 2 is used for drivers and protocols. User-level programs and applications run at Ring 3. Rings 0 through 2 run in privileged mode while Ring 3 runs in user mode. It is important to note that many modern operating systems do not fully implement this model.

Question 48

In an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) environment where a vendor supplies a customer with access to storage services, who is normally responsible for removing sensitive data from drives that are taken out of service?

A. Customer’s security team
B. Customer’s storage team
C. Customer’s vendor management team
D. Vendor

Answer 48

D. Vendor

Explanation:
In an infrastructure as a service environment, security duties follow a shared responsibility model. Since the vendor is responsible for managing the storage hardware, the vendor would retain responsibility for destroying or wiping drives as they are taken out of service. However, it is still the customer’s responsibility to validate that the vendor’s sanitization procedures meet their requirements prior to utilizing the vendor’s storage services.

Question 49

During a system audit, Casey notices that the private key for her organization’s web server has been stored in a public Amazon S3 storage bucket for more than a year. Which one of the following actions should she take first?

A. Remove the key from the bucket.
B. Notify all customers that their data may have been exposed.
C. Request a new certificate using a new key.
D. Nothing, because the private key should be accessible for validation.

Answer 49

C. Request a new certificate using a new key.

Explanation:
The first thing Casey should do is notify her management, but after that, replacing the certificate and using proper key management practices with the new certificate’s key should be at the top of her list.

Question 50

Which one of the following systems assurance processes provides an independent third-party evaluation of a system’s controls that may be trusted by many different organizations?

A. Certification
B. Definition
C. Verification
D. Accreditation

Answer 50

C. Verification

Explanation:
C. The verification process is similar to the certification process in that it validates security controls. Verification may go a step further by involving a third-party testing service and compiling results that may be trusted by many different organizations. Accreditation is the act of management formally accepting an evaluating system, not evaluating the system itself.

Question 51

Darcy’s organization is deploying serverless computing technology to better meet the needs of developers and users. In a serverless model, who is normally responsible for configuring operating system security controls?

A. Software developer
B. Cybersecurity professional
C. Cloud architect
D. Vendor

Answer 51

D. Vendor

Explanation:
In a serverless computing model, the vendor does not expose details of the operating system to its customers. Therefore, the vendor retains full responsibility for configuring it securely under the shared responsibility model of cloud computing.

Question 52

Harold is assessing the susceptibility of his environment to hardware failures and would like to identify the expected lifetime of a piece of hardware. What measure should he use for this?

A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. RTO
D. MTO

Answer 52

B. MTTF

Explanation:
The mean time to failure (MTTF) provides the average amount of time before a device of that particular specification fails.

Question 53

Chris is designing a cryptographic system for use within his company. The company has 1,000 employees, and they plan to use an asymmetric encryption system. They would like the system to be set up so that any pair of arbitrary users may communicate privately. How many total keys will they need?

A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 2,000
D. 4,950

Answer 53

C. 2,000

Explanation:
C. Asymmetric cryptosystems use a pair of keys for each user. In this case, with 1,000 users, the system will require 2,000 keys.

Question 54

Gary is concerned about applying consistent security settings to the many mobile devices used throughout his organization. What technology would best assist with this challenge?

A. MDM
B. IPS
C. IDS
D. SIEM

Answer 54

A. MDM

Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) products provide a consistent, centralized interface for applying security configuration settings to mobile devices.

Question 55

Alice sent a message to Bob. Bob would like to demonstrate to Charlie that the message he received definitely came from Alice. What goal of cryptography is Bob attempting to achieve?

A. Authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Nonrepudiation
D. Integrity

Answer 55

C. Nonrepudiation

Explanation:
C. Nonrepudiation occurs when the recipient of a message is able to demonstrate to a third party that the message came from the purported sender.

Question 56

Rhonda is considering the use of new identification cards for physical access control in her organization. She comes across a military system that uses the card shown here. What type of card is this?

A. Smart card
B. Proximity card
C. Magnetic stripe card
D. Phase three card

Answer 56

A. Smart card

Explanation:
The card shown in the image has a smart chip underneath the American flag. Therefore, it is an example of a smart card. This is the most secure type of identification card technology.

Question 57

Gordon is concerned about the possibility that hackers may be able to use the Van Eck radiation phenomenon to remotely read the contents of computer monitors in a restricted work area within his facility. What technology would protect against this type of attack?

A. TCSEC
B. SCSI
C. GHOST
D. TEMPEST

Answer 57

D. TEMPEST

Explanation:
D. The TEMPEST program creates technology that is not susceptible to Van Eck phreaking attacks because it reduces or suppresses natural electromagnetic emanations.

Question 58

Jorge believes that an attacker has obtained the hash of the Kerberos service account from one of his organization’s Active Directory servers. What type of attack would this enable?

A. Golden ticket
B. Kerberoasting
C. Pass the ticket
D. Brute force

Answer 58

A. Golden ticket

Explanation:
Golden ticket attacks use the hash of the Kerberos service account to create tickets in an Active Directory environment. Kerberoasting attacks rely on collected TGS tickets. Pass the ticket attacks rely on tickets harvested from the lsass process. Brute-force attacks depend on random guessing without any additional information.

Question 59

Sherry conducted an inventory of the cryptographic technologies in use within her organization and found the following algorithms and protocols in use. Which one of these technologies should she replace because it is no longer considered secure?

A. MD5
B. AES
C. PGP
D. WPA3

Answer 59

A. MD5

Explanation:
The MD5hash algorithm has known collisions and, as of 2005, is no longer considered secure for use in modern environments. The AES, PGP, and WPA3 algorithms are all still considered secure.

Question 60

Robert is investigating a security breach and discovers the Mimikatz tool installed on a system in his environment. What type of attack has likely taken place?

A. Password cracking
B. Pass the hash
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP poisoning

Answer 60

B. Pass the hash

Explanation:
The use of the Mimikatz tool is indicative of an attempt to capture user password hashes for use in a pass-the-hash attack against Microsoft Active Directory accounts.

Question 61

Tom is a cryptanalyst and is working on breaking a cryptographic algorithm’s secret key. He has a copy of an intercepted message that is encrypted, and he also has a copy of the decrypted version of that message. He wants to use both the encrypted message and its decrypted plaintext to retrieve the secret key for use in decrypting other messages. What type of attack is Tom engaging in?

A. Chosen ciphertext
B. Chosen plaintext
C. Known plaintext
D. Brute force

Answer 61

C. Known plaintext

Explanation:
In a known plaintext attack, the attacker has a copy of the encrypted message along with the plaintext message used to generate that ciphertext. In a chosen plaintext attack, the attacker has the ability to choose the plaintext to be encrypted. In a chosen ciphertext attack, the attacker can choose the ciphertext output. In a brute-force attack, the attacker simply tries all possible key combinations.

Question 62

A hacker recently violated the integrity of data in James’s company by modifying a file using a precise timing attack. The attacker waited until James verified the integrity of a file’s contents using a hash value and then modified the file between the time that James verified the integrity and read the contents of the file. What type of attack took place?

A. Social engineering
B. TOCTOU
C. Data diddling
D. Parameter checking

Answer 62

B. TOCTOU

Explanation:
In a time of check to time of use (TOCTOU) attack, the attacker exploits the difference in time between when a security control is verified and the data protected by the control is actually used.

Question 63

Carl is deploying a set of video sensors that will be placed in remote locations as part of a research project. Due to connectivity limitations, he would like to perform as much image processing and computation as possible on the device itself before sending results back to the cloud for further analysis. What computing model would best meet his needs?

A. Serverless computing
B. Edge computing
C. IaaS computing
D. SaaS computing

Answer 63

B. Edge computing

Explanation:
B. In this case, most cloud service models (including IaaS, SaaS, and serverless/FaaS) would require transmitting most information back to the cloud. The edge computing service model would be far more appropriate, as it places computing power at the sensor, minimizing the data that must be sent back to the cloud over limited connectivity network links.

Question 64

What action can you take to prevent accidental data disclosure due to wear leveling on an SSD device before reusing the drive?

A. Reformatting
B. Disk encryption
C. Degaussing
D. Physical destruction

Answer 64

B. Disk encryption

Explanation:
B. Encrypting data on SSD drives does protect against wear leveling. Disk formatting does not effectively remove data from any device. Degaussing is only effective for magnetic media. Physically destroying the drive would not permit reuse.

Question 65

Johnson Widgets strictly limits access to total sales volume information, classifying it as a competitive secret. However, shipping clerks have unrestricted access to order records to facilitate transaction completion. A shipping clerk recently pulled all of the individual sales records for a quarter from the database and totaled them up to determine the total sales volume. What type of attack occurred?

A. Social engineering
B. Inference
C. Aggregation
D. Data diddling

Answer 65

C. Aggregation

Explanation:
In an aggregation attack, individual(s) use their access to specific pieces of information to piece together a larger picture that they are not authorized to access.

Question 66

What physical security control broadcasts false emanations constantly to mask the presence of true electromagnetic emanations from computing equipment?

A. Faraday cage
B. Copper-infused windows
C. Shielded cabling
D. White noise

Answer 66

D. White noise

Explanation:
While all of the controls mentioned protect against unwanted electromagnetic emanations, only white noise is an active control. White noise generates false emanations that effectively “jam” the true emanations from electronic equipment.

Question 67

In a software as a service cloud computing environment, who is normally responsible for ensuring that appropriate firewall controls are in place to protect the application?

A. Customer’s security team
B. Vendor
C. Customer’s networking team
D. Customer’s infrastructure management team

Answer 67

B. Vendor

Explanation:
In a software as a service environment, the customer has no access to any underlying infrastructure, so firewall management is a vendor responsibility under the cloud computing shared responsibility model.

Question 68

Alice has read permissions on an object, and she would like Bob to have those same rights. Which one of the rules in the Take-Grant protection model would allow her to complete this operation?

A. Create rule
B. Remove rule
C. Grant rule
D. Take rule

Question 69

As part of his incident response process, Charles securely wipes the drive of a compromised machine and reinstalls the operating system (OS) from original media. Once he is done, he patches the machine fully and applies his organization’s security templates before reconnecting the system to the network. Almost immediately after the system is returned to service, he discovers that it has reconnected to the same botnet it was part of before. Where should Charles look for the malware that is causing this behavior?

A. The operating system partition
B. The system BIOS or firmware
C. The system memory
D. The installation media

Answer 69

B. The system BIOS or firmware

Explanation:
The system Charles is remediating may have a firmware or BIOS infection, with malware resident on the system board. While uncommon, this type of malware can be difficult to find and remove. Since he used original media, it is unlikely that the malware came from the software vendor. Charles wiped the system partition, and the system would have been rebooted before being rebuilt, thus clearing system memory.

Question 70

Lauren implements ASLR to help prevent system compromises. What technique has she used to protect her system?

A. Encryption
B. Mandatory access control
C. Memory address randomization
D> Discretionary access control

Answer 70

C. Memory address randomization

Explanation:
Lauren has implemented address space layout randomization, a memory protection methodology that randomizes memory locations, which prevents attackers from using known address spaces and contiguous memory regions to execute code via overflow or stack smashing attacks.

Question 71

Alan intercepts an encrypted message and wants to determine what type of algorithm was used to create the message. He first performs a frequency analysis and notes that the frequency of letters in the message closely matches the distribution of letters in the English language. What type of cipher was most likely used to create this message?

A. Substitution cipher
B. AES
C. Transposition cipher
D. 3DES

Answer 71

C. Transposition cipher

Explanation:
This message was most likely encrypted with a transposition cipher. The use of a substitution cipher, a category that includes AES and 3DES, would change the frequency distribution so that it did not mirror that of the English language. This type of attack, where the attacker only has access to an encrypted message, is also known as a ciphertext-only attack.

Question 72

The Double DES (2DES) encryption algorithm was never used as a viable alternative to the original DES algorithm. What implementation attack is 2DES vulnerable to that does not exist for the DES or 3DES approach?

A. Chosen ciphertext
B. Brute force
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Meet-in-the-middle

Answer 72

D. Meet-in-the-middle

Explanation:
The meet-in-the-middle attack uses a known plaintext message and uses both encryption of the plaintext and decryption of the ciphertext simultaneously in a brute-force manner to identify the encryption key in approximately double the time of a brute-force attack against the basic DES algorithm.

Question 73

Grace would like to implement application control technology in her organization. Users often need to install new applications for research and testing purposes, and she does not want to interfere with that process. At the same time, she would like to block the use of known malicious software. What type of application control would be appropriate in this situation?

A. Blacklisting
B. Graylisting
C. Whitelisting
D. Bluelisting

Answer 73

A. Blacklisting

Explanation:
The blacklisting approach to application control allows users to install any software they wish except for packages specifically identified by the administrator as prohibited. This would be an appropriate approach in a scenario where users should be able to install any nonmalicious software they wish to use.

Question 74

Warren is designing a physical intrusion detection system for use in a sensitive media storage facility and wants to include technology that issues an alert if the communications lines for the alarm system are unexpectedly cut. What technology would meet this requirement? \

A. Heartbeat sensor
B. Emanation security
C. Motion detector
D. Faraday cage

Answer 74

A. Heartbeat sensor

Explanation:
Heartbeat sensors send periodic status messages from the alarm system to the monitoring center. The monitoring center triggers an alarm if it does not receive a status message for a prolonged period of time, indicating that communications were disrupted.

Question 75

John and Gary are negotiating a business transaction, and John must demonstrate to Gary that he has access to a system. He engages in an electronic version of the “magic door” scenario shown here. What technique is John using?

A. Split-knowledge proof
B. Zero-knowledge proof
C. Logical proof
D. Mathematical proof

Question 76

After scanning all of the systems on his wireless network, Mike notices that one system is identified as an iOS device running a massively out-of-date version of Apple’s mobile operating system. When he investigates further, he discovers that the device is an original iPad and that it cannot be updated to a current secure version of the operating system. What would be the best option for handling this device?

A. Retire or replace the device.
B. Isolate the device on a dedicated wireless network.
C. Install a firewall on the tablet.
D. Reinstall the OS.

Question 77

Tonya believes that an attacker was able to eavesdrop on legitimate HTTPS communications between her users and remote web servers by engaging in a DNS poisoning attack. After conducting DNS poisoning, what technique would an attacker likely use to conduct this eavesdropping?

A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Brute-force
C. Timing
D. Meet-in-the-middle

Answer 77

A. Man-in-the-middle

Explanation:
In a man-in-the-middle attack, the attacker tricks the user into establishing a connection with the attacker. The attacker then establishes a connection to the legitimate server and relays communications between the two, eavesdropping on the contents. A meet-in-the-middle attack is an attack against cryptographic algorithms that use multiple rounds of encryption. There is no indication in the scenario that the attacker used an exhaustive brute-force attack or a specialized timing attack to achieve their goals.

Question 78

Howard is choosing a cryptographic algorithm for his organization, and he would like to choose an algorithm that supports the creation of digital signatures. Which one of the following algorithms would meet his requirement?

A. RSA
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. Blowfish

Answer 78

A. RSA

Explanation:
Digital signatures are possible only when using an asymmetric encryption algorithm. Of the algorithms listed, only RSA is asymmetric and supports digital signature capabilities.

Question 79

Laura is responsible for securing her company’s web-based applications and wants to conduct an educational program for developers on common web application security vulnerabilities. Where can she turn for a concise listing of the most common web application issues?

A. CVE
B. NSA
C. OWASP
D. CSA

Answer 79

C. OWASP

Explanation:
The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) produces an annual list of the top ten web application security issues that developers and security professionals around the world rely upon for education and training purposes. The OWASP vulnerabilities form the basis for many web application security testing products.

Question 80

The Bell-LaPadula and Biba models implement state machines in a fashion that uses what specific state machine model?

A. Information flow
B. Noninterference
C. Cascading
D. Feedback

Answer 80

A. Information flow

Explanation:
The information flow model applies state machines to the flow of information. The Bell-LaPadula model applies the information flow model to confidentiality while the Biba model applies it to integrity.

Question 81

During a third-party vulnerability scan and security test, Danielle’s employer recently discovered that the embedded systems that were installed to manage her company’s new buildings have a severe remote access vulnerability. The manufacturer has gone out of business, and there is no patch or update for the devices. What should Danielle recommend that her employer do about the hundreds of devices that are vulnerable?

A. Identify a replacement device model and replace every device.
B. Turn off all of the devices.
C. Move the devices to a secure and isolated network segment.
D. Reverse engineer the devices and build an in-house patch.

Answer 81

C. Move the devices to a secure and isolated network segment.

Explanation:
The most reasonable choice presented is to move the devices to a secure and isolated network segment. This will allow the devices to continue to serve their intended function while preventing them from being compromised. All of the other scenarios either create major new costs or deprive her organization of the functionality that the devices were purchased to provide.

Question 82

What type of motion detector senses changes in the electromagnetic fields in monitored areas?

A. Infrared
B. Wave pattern
C. Capacitance
D. Photoelectric

Question 83

Mike has been tasked with preventing an outbreak of malware like Mirai, a botnet that targeted IP-based cameras and routers. What type of systems should be protected in his organization?

A. Servers
B. SCADA
C. Mobile devices
D. Internet of Things (IoT) devices

Answer 83

D. Internet of Things (IoT) devices

Explanation:
D. Mirai targeted “Internet of Things” devices, including routers, cameras, and DVRs. As organizations bring an increasing number of devices like these into their corporate networks, protecting both internal and external targets from insecure, infrequently updated, and often vulnerable IoT devices is increasingly important.

Question 84

Which one of the following statements is correct about the Biba model of access control?

A. It addresses confidentiality and integrity.
B. It addresses integrity and availability.
C. It prevents covert channel attacks.
D. It focuses on protecting objects from integrity threats.

Answer 84

D. It focuses on protecting objects from integrity threats.

Explanation:
The Biba model focuses only on protecting integrity and does not provide protection against confidentiality or availability threats. It also does not provide protection against covert channel attacks. The Biba model focuses on external threats and assumes that internal threats are addressed programmatically.

Question 85

In Transport Layer Security, what type of key is used to encrypt the actual content of communications between a web server and a client?

A. Ephemeral session key
B. Client’s public key
C. Server’s public key
D. Server’s private key

Answer 85

A. Ephemeral session key

Explanation:
In TLS, both the server and the client communicate using an ephemeral symmetric session key. They exchange this key using asymmetric cryptography, but all encrypted content is protected using symmetric cryptography.

Question 86

Beth would like to include technology in a secure area of her data center to protect against unwanted electromagnetic emanations. What technology would assist her with this goal?

A. Heartbeat sensor
B. Faraday cage
C. Piggybacking
D. WPA2

Answer 86

B. Faraday cage

Explanation:
A Faraday cage is a metal skin that prevents electromagnetic emanations from exiting. It is a rarely used technology because it is unwieldy and expensive, but it is quite effective at blocking unwanted radiation.

Question 87

In a virtualized computing environment, what component is responsible for enforcing separation between guest machines?

A. Guest operating system
B. Hypervisor
C. Kernel
D. Protection manager

Answer 87

B. Hypervisor

Explanation:
The hypervisor is responsible for coordinating access to physical hardware and enforcing isolation between different virtual machines running on the same physical platform.

Question 88

Rick is an application developer who works primarily in Python. He recently decided to evaluate a new service where he provides his Python code to a vendor who then executes it on their server environment. What type of cloud computing environment is this service?

A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. CaaS

Answer 88

B. PaaS

Explanation:
Cloud computing systems where the customer only provides application code for execution on a vendor-supplied computing platform are examples of platform as a service (PaaS) computing.

Question 89

A component failure in the primary HVAC system leads to a high temperature alarm in the data center that Kim manages. After resolving the issue, what should Kim consider to prevent future issues like this?

A. A closed loop chiller
B. Redundant cooling systems
C. Swamp coolers
D. Relocating the data center to a colder climate

Answer 89

B. Redundant cooling systems

Explanation:
A well-designed data center should have redundant systems and capabilities for each critical part of its infrastructure. That means that power, cooling, and network connectivity should all be redundant. Kim should determine how to ensure that a single system failure cannot take her data center offline.

Question 90

Tommy is planning to implement a power conditioning UPS for a rack of servers in his data center. Which one of the following conditions will the UPS be unable to protect against if it persists for an extended period of time?

A. Fault
B. Blackout
C. Sag
D. Noise

Question 91

Which one of the following humidity values is within the acceptable range for a data center operation?

A. 0 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 40 percent

Question 92

Kristen’s organization suffered a ransomware infection and has lost access to critical business data. She is considering paying the ransom to regain access to her data. Which of the following statements about this payment are correct? (Select all that apply.)

A. Payment of the ransom may be illegal.
B. Payment of the ransom may result in further demands for payments.
C. Payment of the ransom guarantees access to the decryption key.
D. Payment of the ransom may cause a data breach.

Question 93

Alex’s employer creates most of their work output as PDF files. Alex is concerned about limiting the audience for the PDF files to those individuals who have paid for them. What technology can he use to most effectively control the access to and distribution of these files?

A. EDM
B. Encryption
C. Digital signatures
D. DRM

Answer 93

D. DRM

Explanation:
D. Alex can use digital rights management technology to limit use of the PDFs to paying customers. While DRM is rarely a perfect solution, in this case, it may fit his organization’s needs. EDM is electronic dance music, which his customers may appreciate but which won’t solve the problem. Encryption and digital signatures can help to keep the files secure and to prove who they came from but won’t solve the rights management issue Alex is tackling.

Question 94

As part of his team’s forensic investigation process, Matt signs out drives and other evidence from an evidence storage facility before working with them. What type of documentation is he creating?

A. Criminal
B. Chain of custody
C. Civil
D. CYA

Answer 94

B. Chain of custody

Explanation:
Matt is helping to maintain the chain of custody documentation for his electronic evidence. This can be important if his organization needs to prove that the digital evidence they handled has not been tampered with. A better process would involve more than one person to ensure that no tampering was possible.

Question 95

Todd believes that a digital certificate used by his organization has been compromised and he wants to add it to the certificate revocation list (CRL). What element of the certificate goes on the CRL?

A. Serial number
B. Public key
C. Digital signature
D. Private key

Answer 95

A. Serial number

Explanation:
A. Serial number

Question 96

Alison is examining a digital certificate presented to her by her bank’s website. Which one of the following requirements is not necessary for her to trust the digital certificate?

A. She knows that the server belongs to the bank.
B. She trusts the certificate authority.
C. She verifies that the certificate is not listed on a CRL.
D. She verifies the digital signature on the certificate.

Answer 96

A. She knows that the server belongs to the bank.

Explanation:
The point of the digital certificate is to prove to Alison that the server belongs to the bank, so she does not need to have this trust in advance. To trust the certificate, she must verify the CA’s digital signature on the certificate, trust the CA, verify that the certificate is not listed on a CRL, and verify that the certificate contains the name of the bank.

Question 97

Which one of the following is an example of a covert timing channel when used to exfiltrate information from an organization?

A. Sending an electronic mail message
B. Posting a file on a peer-to-peer file sharing service
C. Typing with the rhythm of Morse code
D. Writing data to a shared memory space

Answer 97

C. Typing with the rhythm of Morse code |

Explanation:
Covert channels use surreptitious communications’ paths. Covert timing channels alter the use of a resource in a measurable fashion to exfiltrate information. If a user types using a specific rhythm of Morse code, this is an example of a covert timing channel. Someone watching or listening to the keystrokes could receive a secret message with no trace of the message left in logs.

Question 98

Which one of the following would be a reasonable application for the use of self-signed digital certificates?

A. Digital commerce website
B. Banking application
C. Internal scheduling application
D. Customer portal

Answer 98

C. Internal scheduling application

Explanation:
Self-signed digital certificates should be used only for internal-facing applications, where the user base trusts the internally generated digital certificate.

Question 99

Ron is investigating a security incident that took place at a highly secure government facility. He believes that encryption keys were stolen during the attack and finds evidence that the attackers used dry ice to freeze an encryption component. What type of attack was likely attempted?

A. Side channel attack
B. Brute-force attack
C. Timing attack
D. Fault injection attack

Question 100

Match the following numbered security models with the appropriate lettered security descriptions: Security models

1. Clark-Wilson
2. Graham-Denning
3. Bell-LaPadula
4. Biba

Descriptions

A. This model blocks lower-classified objects from accessing higher-classified objects, thus ensuring confidentiality.
B. The * property of this model can be summarized as “no write-up.”
C. This model uses security labels to grant access to objects via transformation procedures and a restricted interface model.
D. This model focuses on the secure creation and deletion of subjects and objects using eight primary protection rules or actions.

Answer 100

The security models match with the descriptions as follows:

1. Clark-Wilson: C. This model uses security labels to grant access to objects via transformation procedures and a restricted interface model.
2. Graham-Denning: D. This model focuses on the secure creation and deletion of subjects and objects using eight primary protection rules or actions.
3. Bell-LaPadula: A. This model blocks lower-classified objects from accessing higher-classified objects, thus ensuring confidentiality.
4. Biba: B. The * property of this model can be summarized as “no write-up.”

Question 101

Match each of these following numbered architecture security concepts with the appropriate lettered description:

Architectural security concepts

1. Time of check
2. Covert channel
3. Time of use
4. Maintenance hooks
5. Parameter checking
6. Race condition

Descriptions

A. A method used to pass information over a path not normally used for communication
B. The exploitation of the reliance of a system’s behavior on the sequence of events that occur externally
C. The time at which the subject checks whether an object is available
D. The time at which a subject can access an object
E. An access method known only to the developer of the system
F. A method that can help prevent buffer overflow attacks

Answer 101

The architecture security concepts match with the descriptions as follows:

1. Time of check: C. The time at which the subject checks whether an object is available
2. Covert channel: A. A method used to pass information over a path not normally used for communication
3. Time of use: D. The time at which a subject can access an object
4. Maintenance hooks: E. An access method known only to the developer of the system
5. Parameter checking: F. A method that can help prevent buffer overflow attacks
6. Race condition: B. The exploitation of the reliance of a system’s behavior on the sequence of events that occur externally