CISSP Flash Cards

Question 1

1. What are some examples of detective access controls?

Answer 1

Security guards, supervising users, incident investigations, and intrusion detection systems

Question 2

2. What are some examples of physical access controls?

Answer 2

Guards, fences, motion detectors, locked doors, sealed windows, lights, backups, cable protection, laptop locks, swipe cards, dogs, CCTV, mantraps, and alarms

Question 3

3. What are the three commonly recognized authentication factors?

Answer 3

Something you know, something you have, and something you are

Question 4

4. What is a cognitive password?

Answer 4

A series of questions about facts or predefined responses that only the subject should know (for example, what is your birth date? What is your mother’s maiden name?)

Question 5

5. Name at least eight biometric factors.

Answer 5

Fingerprints, face scans, iris scans, retina scans palm topography, palm geography, heart/pulse pattern, voice patter, signature dynamics, keystroke patterns

Question 6

6. What are the issues related to user acceptance of biometric enrollment and throughput rate?

Answer 6

Enrollment times longer than 2 minutes are unacceptable; subjects will typically accept a throughput rate of about 6 seconds or faster.

Question 7

7. What access control technique employs security labels?

Answer 7

Mandatory access controls. Subjects are labeled as to their level of clearance. Objects are labeled as to their level of classification or sensitivity.

Question 8

8. The Bell-LaPadula, Biba, and Clark-Wilson access control models were all designed to protect a single aspect of security. Name the corresponding aspect for each model.

Answer 8

Bell-Lapadula: Protects confidentiality

Biba and Clark-Wilson: protect integrity

Question 9

Name the three types of subjects and their roles in a security environment.

Answer 9

The user accesses objects on a system to perform a work task; the owner is liable for protection of data; the data custodian is assigned to classify and protect data.

Question 10

10. Explain why the separation of duties and responsibilities is a common security practice.

Answer 10

It prevents any single subject from being able to circumvent or disable security mechanisms.

Question 11

11. What is the principle of least privilege?

Answer 11

Subjects should be granted only the amount of access to objects that is required to accomplish their assigned work tasks.

Question 12

12. Name the four key principles upon which access control relies.

Answer 12

Identification, authentication, authorization, accountability

Question 13

13. How are domains related to decentralized access control?

Answer 13

A domain is a realm of trust that shares a common security policy. This is a form of decentralized access control.

Question 14

14. Why is monitoring an important part of a security policy?

Answer 14

Monitoring is used to watch for security policy violations and to detect unauthorized or abnormal activities.

Question 15

15. What are the functions of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

Answer 15

An IDS automates the inspection of audit logs and real-time system events, detects intrusion attempts, and watched for violations of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Question 16

16. What are the pros and cons of a host-based IDS?

Answer 16

It can pinpoint resources compromised by a malicious user. It can’t detect network-only attacks or attacks on other systems, has difficulty detecting DoS attacks, and can be detected by intruders.

Question 17

17. What are the pros and cons of a network-based IDS?

Answer 17

It can monitor a large network and can be hardened against attack. It may be unable to handle large data flows, requires a central view of traffic, and can’t pinpoint compromised resources.

Question 18

18. What are the differences between knowledge-based and behavior-based detection methods used by IDS?

Answer 18

Knowledge-based uses a signature database and tries to match monitored events to that database. Behavior-based learns about the normal activities on your system through watching and learning.

Question 19

19. What is a honeynet, and what is it used for?

Answer 19

Honeynets are fake networks used to lure intruders in order to create sufficient audit trails for tracking them down and prosecuting. Honeynets contain no real or sensitive data.

Question 20

20. How does penetration testing improve your system’s security?

Answer 20

Penetration testing is a good way to accurately judge the security mechanisms deployed by an organization.

Question 21

21. What is a denial-of-service attack?

Answer 21

An attack that prevents the system from receiving, processing, or responding to legitimate traffic or requests for resources and objects.

Question 22

22. What is a spoofing attack?

Answer 22

The attacker pretends to be someone or something other than whom or what they are. They can spoof identities, IP addresses email addresses, and phone numbers. They often replace the valid source and/or destination IP address and node numbers with false ones.

Question 23

23. What are countermeasures to spoofing attacks?

Answer 23

Countermeasures to spoofing attacks include patching the OS and software, enabling source/destination verification on routers, and employing an IDS to detect and block attacks.

Question 24

24. What is a man-in-the-middle attack?

Answer 24

An attack in which a malicious user is positioned between the two endpoints of a communication’s link

Question 25

25. What is a replay or Playback attack?

Answer 25

A malicious user records the traffic between a client and a server and then retransmits them to the server with slight variations of the timestamp and source IP address. It is similar to hijacking.

Question 26

26. What is a sniffer attack?

Answer 26

Any activity that results in a malicious user obtaining information about a network or the traffic over that network. Data is captured using a sniffer or protocol analyzer.

Question 27

27. What is a spamming attack?

Answer 27

Directing floods of messages to a victim’s email inbox or other messaging system. Such attacks cause DoS issues y filling up storage space and preventing legitimate messages from being delivered.

Question 28

28. What are some countermeasures to common attack methods?

Answer 28

Patching software, reconfiguring security, employing firewalls, updating filters, using IDSs/IPSs, improving security policy, using traffic filters, improving physical access control, using system monitoring/auditing

Question 29

29. Name the seven layers of the OSI model by their layer name and layer number.

Answer 29

7 - Application
6 - Presentation
5 - Session
4 - Transport
3 - Network
2 - Data Link
1 - Physical

Question 30

30. List the security features offered by the Network layer of the OSI model.

Answer 30

The Network layer (layer 3) offers confidentiality, authentication, and integrity.

Question 31

31. What is the maximum throughput rate and maximum usable distance for 10Base2 cable?

Answer 31

10Base2 cable has a throughput of 10 Mbps and can be run up to distances of 185 meters.

Question 32

32. Name the common network topologies.

Answer 32

Ring, bus, star, and mesh

Question 33

33. What are the four layers of the TCP/IP protocols, and how do they relate to the OSI model layers?

Answer 33

The four layers of TCP/IP are Application (layers 5-7 of OSI), Transport (layer 4 of OSI), internet (layer 3 of OSI), and Link (layers 1 and 2 of OSI).

Question 34

34. What are the five generation types of firewalls?

Answer 34

Static packet filtering, application- level gateway, stateful inspection, dynamic packet filtering, and kernel proxy

Question 35

35. Name at least five networking device types other than firewalls

Answer 35

Routers, switches, hubs, repeaters, bridges, gateways, proxies.

Question 36

36. What is a proxy, and what is it used for?

Answer 36

Any system that performs a function or requests a service on behalf of another system. Proxies are most often used to provide clients with Internet access while protecting their identity.

Question 37

37. Name at least 10 network and protocol security mechanisms.

Answer 37

IPsec, SKIP, SWIPE, SSL, S/MIME, SET, PEM, PGP, PPP, SLIP, PPTP, L2TP, CHAP, PAP, RADIUS, TACACS, S-RPC

Question 38

38. Name at least six protocol services used to connect to LAN and WAN communication technologies.

Answer 38

Frame Relay, SMDS, X.25, ATM, HSSI, SDLC, HDLC, ISDN

Question 39

39. How are PVC, SVC, DTE, and DCE used in a Frame Relay network?

Answer 39

Frame Relay requires the use of a DTE and a DCE at each connection point, PVC is always available; SVC is established using the best paths currently available.

Question 40

What are three remote access authentication mechanisms?

Answer 40

RADIUS, DIAMETER, and TACACS

Question 41

41. What is tunneling, and why is it used?

Answer 41

A process that protects the contents of packets by encapsulating them in another protocol. This creates the logical illusion of a communications tunnel through an untrusted intermediary network.

Question 42

What is a VPN?

Answer 42

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a communication tunnel that provides point-to-point transmission of both authentication and data traffic over an intermediary network.

Question 43

43. What are the four primary VPN protocols?

Answer 43

PPTP, L2F, L2TP, and IPsec (Note: SSL/TLS is a valid VPN protocol as well, but it’s not necessarily recognized on the exam as such.

Question 44

44. What are the two modes available through IPsec, and what do they do?

Answer 44

In transport mode, the IP packet data is encrypted, but the header is not. In tunnel mode, the entire IP packet is encrypted, and a new header is added to govern transmission through the tunnel.

Question 45

45. What is NAT?

Answer 45

Network Address Translation (NAT) allows the private IP addresses defined in RFC 1918 to be used in a private network while still being able to communicate with the internet.

Question 46

46. What is transparency?

Answer 46

A characteristic of a service, security control, or access mechanism that ensures it is unseen by users

Question 47

47. What are some important aspects to consider when designing email security?

Answer 47

Nonrepudiation, access control, message integrity, source authentication, verified delivery, acceptable use policies, privacy, management, and backup and retention policies.

Question 48

48. What is the most serious threat of email?

Answer 48

Email is a common delivery mechanism for viruses, worms, Trojan horses, documents with destructive macros, and other malicious code.

Question 49

49. What are possible mechanisms for adding security to email?

Answer 49

S/MIME, MOSS, PEM, and PGP

Question 50

50. What are elements of effective user training against social-engineering attacks?

Answer 50

Always error on the side of caution whenever communications are odd or unexpected. Always request proof of identity. Identify what information can be conveyed via voice communications by classifying the information. Never change passwords over the phone.

Question 51

51. What are the most common threats against communication systems?

Answer 51

Denial of service, eavesdropping, impersonation, replay, and modification

Question 52

52. What are some countermeasures to eavesdropping?

Answer 52

Maintaining physical access security, using encryption, employing one-time authentication methods

Question 53

53. What is an ARP attack?

Answer 53

The modification of ARP mappings. When ARP mappings are falsified, packets are not sent to their proper destination. ARP mappings can be attacked through spoofing. Spoofing provides false MAC addresses for requested IP addressed systems to redirect traffic to alternate destinations.

Question 54

54. What is privacy?

Answer 54

Prevention of unauthorized intrusion, knowledge that information deemed personal or confidential won’t be shared with unauthorized entities, freedom from being observed without consent

Question 55

55. What are the requirements for accountability?

Answer 55

Identification, authentication, authorization, and auditing

Question 56

What is nonrepudiation?

Answer 56

Nonrepudiation prevents a subject from claiming not to have sent a message, not to have performed an action, or not to have been the cause of an event.

Question 57

What is layering?

Answer 57

Layering is the use of multiple controls in a series. The use of a multilayered solution allows for numerous controls to be brought to bear against whatever threats occur.

Question 58

58. How is abstraction used?

Answer 58

Abstraction is used to collect similar elements into groups, classes, or roles that are assigned security controls, restrictions, or permissions.

Question 59

59. What is data hiding?

Answer 59

Data hiding is preventing data from being known by a subject. Keeping a database from being accessed by unauthorized visitors is a form of data hiding.

Question 60

60. What is change control or change management?

Answer 60

A mechanism used to systematically manage change. Typically, it involves extensive logging, auditing, and monitoring of activities related to security controls and security solutions.

Question 61

61. What are the goals of change management?

Answer 61

Implementation of changes in an orderly manner, formalized testing, ability to reverse changes, ability to inform users of changes, systematical analysis of changes minimization of negative impact of changes

Question 62

62. What is data classification?

Answer 62

Data classification is the primary means by which data is protected based on categories of secrecy, sensitivity, or confidentiality.

Question 63

63. What criteria are used to classify data?

Answer 63

Usefulness, timeliness, value or cost, maturity or age, lifetime or expiration period, disclosure damage assessment, modification damage assessment, national or business security implications, storage

Question 64

64. What is the government/military data classification scheme?

Answer 64

Top secret, Secret, Confidential, Sensitive, and Unclassified

Question 65

65. What is the commercial business/private sector classification scheme?

Answer 65

Confidential, Private, Sensitive, and Public

Question 66

Name at least seven security management concepts and principles.

Answer 66

CIA Triad, confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, privacy, identification, authentication, authorization, auditing, accountability, and nonrepudiation

Question 67

67. What are the elements of a termination procedure policy?

Answer 67

Have at least one witness; escort terminated employee off the premises immediately; collect identification, access, or security devices; perform exit interview; disable network account.

Question 68

68. What is the function of the data owner security role?

Answer 68

The data owner is responsible for classifying information for protection within the security solution.

Question 69

69. What is the data custodian security role?

Answer 69

The data custodian is assigned the tasks of implementing the prescribed protection defined by the security policy and upper management.

Question 70

70. What is the function of the auditor security role?

Answer 70

The auditor is responsible for testing and verifying that the security policy is properly implemented and the derived security solutions are adequate.

Question 71

71. What should the documents that make up a formalized security structure include?

Answer 71

Policies, standards, baselines, guidelines, and procedures

Question 72

72. What is generally involved in the processes of risk management?

Answer 72

Analyzing an environment for risks, evaluating each risk as to its likelihood and damage, assessing the cost of countermeasures, and creating a cost/benefit report to present to upper management

Question 73

73. What should be considered when establishing the value of an asset?

Answer 73

Cost of purchase, development, maintenance, acquisition, and protection; value to owners/users/competitors; equity value; market valuation; liability of asset loss; and usefulness.

Question 74

74. Name at least five possible threats that should be evaluated when performing a risk analysis.

Answer 74

Viruses; buffer overflows; coding errors; user errors; intruders (physical and logical); natural disasters; equipment failure; misuse of data, resources, or services; loss of data; physical theft; denial of service

Question 75

75. What is single loss expectancy, and how is it calculated?

Answer 75

The cost associated with a single realized risk against a specific asset. SLE = asset value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF). The SLE is expressed in a dollar value.

Question 76

76. What is annualized loss expectancy, and how is it calculated?

Answer 76

The possible yearly cost of all instances of a specific realized threat against a specific asset. ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * annualized rate of occurrence (ARO).

Question 77

77. What are the basic distinctions between qualitative and quantitative risk analysis?

Answer 77

Quantitative risk analysis assigns real dollar figures to the loss of an asset. Qualitative risk analysis assigns subjective and intangible values to the loss of an asset.

Question 78

78. What are the four possible responses by upper/senior management to risk?

Answer 78

Reduce/mitigate, assign/transfer, accept, or reject/deny

Question 79

79. What is residual risk?

Answer 79

Once countermeasures are implemented, the risk that remains is known as residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that management has chosen to accept rather than mitigate.

Question 80

80. What is total risk?

Answer 80

The amount of risk an organization would face if no safeguards were implemented. A formula for total risk is threatsvulnerabilities asset value = total risk.

Question 81

81. What is the controls gap?

Answer 81

The difference between total risk and residual risk. The controls gap is the amount of risk that is reduced by implementing safeguards.

Question 82

82. What are the three learning levels of security?

Answer 82

Awareness, training, and education

Question 83

83. What are the three types of plans employed in security management planning?

Answer 83

A strategic plan is a long-term plan that is fairly stable. The tactical plan is a midterm plan that provides more details. Operational plans are short term and highly detailed.

Question 84

84. How many primary keys may each dataase table have?

Answer 84

One

Question 85

85. What type of malicious code spreads through the sharing of infected media?

Answer 85

Viruses

Question 86

86. What term is used to describe intelligent code objects that perform actions on behalf of a user?

Answer 86

Agent

Question 87

87. What term is used to describe code sent by a server to a client for execution on the client machine?

Answer 87

Applet

Question 88

88. What language developed by Sun Microsystems, owned by Oracle, is often used for applet programming and development?

Answer 88

Java

Question 89

89. What type of database key enforces relationships between tables?

Answer 89

Foreign key

Question 90

90. What security principle ensures that multiple records are created in a database table for viewing at different security levels?

Answer 90

Polyinstantiation

Question 91

91. What process evaluates the technical and nontechnical security features of an IT system?

Answer 91

Certification and accreditation

Question 92

92. What type of accreditation evaluates the systems and applications at a specific, self-contained location?

Answer 92

Site accreditation

Question 93

93. In which phase of the Software Capability Maturity Model do you often find hardworking people charging ahead in a disorganized fashion?

Answer 93

Initial

Question 94

94. In which layer of the ring protection scheme do user applications reside?

Answer 94

Layer 3

Question 95

95. What system mode requires that the system process only one classification level at a time and all system users have a clearance and need to know that information?

Answer 95

Dedicated security mode

Question 96

96. What is another term for the Master boot record?

Answer 96

Boot sector

Question 97

97. What type of virus embeds itself in application documents?

Answer 97

Macro virus

Question 98

98. What can antivirus programs do when they encounter a virus infection?

Answer 98

Delete the file, disinfect the file, or quarantine the file.

Question 99

99. What type of virus modifies itself each time it infects a new system in an attempt to avoid detection?

Answer 99

Polymorphic virus

Question 100

100. What type of malicious code launches itself when certain conditions (such as a specific date) are met?

Answer 100

Logic bomb

Question 101

101. What were the mechanisms of action used by Robert T. Morris’s Internet worm of 1988?

Answer 101

The worm exploited vulnerabilities in the Sendmail debug mode and finger daemon, launched password attacks, and exploited trust relationships between systems.

Question 102

102. Where are passwords stored in a Unix system?

Answer 102

In the /etc/passwd or /etc/shadow file.

Question 103

103. What term is used to describe hackers rooting through trash looking for useful information?

Answer 103

Dumpster diving

Question 104

104. What is the cornerstone of computer security?

Answer 104

Education

Question 105

105. What are the three phases of the three-way handshake used by TCP/IP?

Answer 105

SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

Question 106

106. How does the teardrop attack operate?

Answer 106

It sends overlapping packet fragments to the victim machine.

Question 107

107. What is the term used to describe a secret method used by a programmer to gain access to the system?

Answer 107

Trap door (or back door)

Question 108

108. When is the XOR function true?

Answer 108

When only one of the input bits is true

Question 109

109. What term describes a mathematical function that easily produces output values for each possible combination of inputs but makes it impossible to retrieve the input values?

Answer 109

One-way function

Question 110

110. True or false? All ciphers are meant to obscure the meaning of a message.

Answer 110

True

Question 111

111. True or false? All codes are meant to obscure the meaning of a message.

Answer 111

False

Question 112

112. What occurs when a change in the plain text results in multiple changes spread through the cipher text?

Answer 112

Diffusion

Question 113

113. What type of cipher is the Caesar cipher?

Answer 113

Simple substitution

Question 114

114. True or false? Modern cryptosystems rely on the secrecy of the encryption algorithm.

Answer 114

False

Question 115

115. What is the length of the key used by the standard DES algorithm?

Answer 115

56 bits

Question 116

116. How many rounds of encryption does DES utilize

Answer 116

16

Question 117

117. True or false? The IDEA algorithm is available free for noncommercial use.

Answer 117

True

Question 118

118. What encryption algorithm was selected for the advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?

Answer 118

Rijndael

Question 119

119. What is the Diffie-Hellman algorithm most commonly used for?

Answer 119

Key exchange

Question 120

120. True or false? The Hashed Message Authentication Code (HMAC) provides nonrepudiation.

Answer 120

False

Question 121

121. What are the three encryption algorithms supported by the Digital Signature Standard?

Answer 121

DSA, RSA, and ECDSA

Question 122

122. What ITU standard describes the contents of a digital certificate?

Answer 122

X.509

Question 123

123. What is the process by which you are issued a digital certificate?

Answer 123

Enrollment

Question 124

124. Who issues digital certificates?

Answer 124

Certificate authorities (CAs)

Question 125

125. True or false? PEM provides protection against replay attacks.

Answer 125

False

Question 126

126. What protocol uses the RSA encryption algorithm to provide encrypted mail support for a number of common commercial email packages?

Answer 126

S/MIME

Question 127

127. True or false? S-HTTP secures individual messages between a client and a server

Answer 127

True

Question 128

128. What cryptographic methods are used by the Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) protocol

Answer 128

RSA Public key cryptography and DES private key cryptography in connection with digital certificates.

Question 129

129. What are the four components of IPSec?

Answer 129

Authentication Header (AH), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP), IP Payload Compression Protocol (IPComp), and Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

Question 130

130. What type of cryptographic attack is used against algorithms that don’t incorporate temporal protections?

Answer 130

Replay attack

Question 131

131. What are some common reasons a certificate might need to be revoked?

Answer 131

The certificate was compromised, the certificate was erroneously issued, the certificate details changed, the private key was exposed, or there was a change of security association.

Question 132

132. What type of cryptography relies on the use of public and private keys?

Answer 132

Asymmetric

Question 133

133. What technology allows multiple users to make use of the same process without interfering with each other?

Answer 133

Multithreading

Question 134

134. What are some of the terms used to describe the CPU mode that gives access to the full range of supported instructions?

Answer 134

System mode, privileged mode, supervisory mode, and kernel mode

Question 135

135. What is the greatest security risk to RAM modules?

Answer 135

Theft

Question 136

136. What addressing scheme supplies the CPU with the actual address of the memory location to be accessed?

Answer 136

Direct addressing

Question 137

137. Magnetic/optical media devices are classified as what type of memory?

Answer 137

Secondary

Question 138

138. Memory devices designed to retain their data when power is removed are known as ___________.

Answer 138

nonvolatile

Question 139

139. What two ways can storage devices be accessed?

Answer 139

Randomly and sequentially

Question 140

140. What is the greatest security risk to computer monitors?

Answer 140

TEMPEST technology

Question 141

141. What is another term often used for firmware?

Answer 141

Microcode

Question 142

142. Where are the operating system-independent primitive instructions that a computer needs to start and load the operating system stored?

Answer 142

BIOS

Question 143

143. What concept ensures that data existing at one level of security is not visible to processes running at different security levels?

Answer 143

Data hiding

Question 144

144. What are the important factors in personnel management?

Answer 144

Hiring practices, ongoing job performance reviews, and termination procedures

Question 145

145. What security mechanisms are countermeasures to collusion?

Answer 145

Job rotation, separation of duties, mandatory vacations, workstation change

Question 146

146. Why is antivirus protection important?

Answer 146

Viruses are the most common form of security breach in the IT world. Any communications pathway can and is being exploited as a delivery mechanism for a virus or other malicious code.

Question 147

147. What is need to know?

Answer 147

Need to know is the requirement to have access to, knowledge of, or possession of data or a resource in order to perform specific work tasks.

Question 148

148. What principle states that users should be granted the minimum amount of access to the secure environment as possible for them to be able to complete their work tasks?

Answer 148

Principle of least privilege

Question 149

149. What are due care and due diligence?

Answer 149

Due care is using reasonable care to protect the interest of an organization. Due diligence is practicing the activities that maintain the due care effort.

Question 150

150. How are security and illegal activities related?

Answer 150

A secure environment should provide mechanisms to prevent the committal of illegal activities, which are actions that violate a legal restriction, regulation, or requirement.

Question 151

151. With what level of security precautions should backup media be treated?

Answer 151

Backup media should be handled with the same security precautions as any other asset with the same data classification.

Question 152

152. What are the goals of managing backup media?

Answer 152

Preventing disclosure, destruction, or alteration of data

Question 153

153. What are the processes that can be applied to used media in order to prepare the media for reuse in various environments?

Answer 153

Erasing, clearing, and overwriting media that will be used in the same classification environments; purging, sanitizing, and degaussing if media is used in different classification environments

Question 154

154. What are the classifications of security control types?

Answer 154

Preventive, deterrent, detective, corrective, recovery, compensation, directive

Question 155

155. What is the purpose of auditing?

Answer 155

To ensure compliance with security policy and to detect abnormalities, unauthorized occurrences, or outright crimes.

Question 156

156. What types of activities are labeled as auditing?

Answer 156

Recording of event/occurrence data, examination of data, data reduction, use of event/occurrence alarm triggers, log analysis, logging, monitoring, using alerts, intrusion detection

Question 157

157. What is the purpose of compliance testing?

Answer 157

To ensure that all of the necessary and required elements of a security solution are properly deployed and functioning as expected

Question 158

158. How are audit trails used?

Answer 158

To reconstruct an event, to extract information about an incident, to prove or disprove culpability

Question 159

159. What types of activities can be used as penetration tests?

Answer 159

War dialing, sniffing, eavesdropping, radiation monitoring, dumpster diving, social engineering, port scanning, ping scanning, vulnerability scanning, and actual compromise activities

Question 160

160. What are some ways to keep inappropriate content to a minimum?

Answer 160

Address the issue in the security policy, perform awareness training, use content filtering tools to filter source or word content.

Question 161

161. Why is it important to protect against resource waste?

Answer 161

If the storage space, computing power, or networking bandwidth capacity is consumed y inappropriate or non-work-related (non-profit-producing) data, the organization loses money.

Question 162

162. Why is it important to protect against privilege abuse?

Answer 162

It can cause the disclosure of sensitive information, violating the principle of confidentiality.

Question 163

163. What countermeasures are moderately effective against errors and omissions?

Answer 163

Input validators and user training

Question 164

164. How can you protect data against fraud and theft?

Answer 164

The use of access controls (auditing and monitoring, for example) reduce fraud and theft.

Question 165

165. What are some safeguards against sabotage?

Answer 165

Intensive auditing, monitoring for abnormal or unauthorized activity, keeping lines of communication open between employees and managers, and compensating and recognizing employees for excellence

Question 166

166. Why isn’t there an effective direct countermeasure against the threat of malicious hackers or crackers?

Answer 166

Most safeguards and countermeasures protect against one specific threat or another, but it is not possible to protect against all possible threats that a cracker represents.

Question 167

167. What is malicious code?

Answer 167

Malicious code is any script or program that performs an unwanted, unauthorized, or unknown activity on a computer system.

Question 168

168. True or false? Senior management should be included in the BCP process from the beginning.

Answer 168

True

Question 169

What resource is in greatest demand during the BCP testing, training, and maintenance process?

Answer 169

Manpower

Question 170

170. What type of decision making is mainly concerned with metrics such as dollar values and downtime?

Answer 170

Quantitative

Question 171

171. What Business Impact Analysis/Assessment variable is used to describe the longest period of time a resource can be unavailable without causing irreparable harm to the business?

Answer 171

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

Question 172

172. What is the formula for computing single loss expectancy?

Answer 172

SLE= AV*EF [Single Loss Expectancy = Asset Value * Exposure Factor]

Question 173

173. What is the formula for computing annualized loss expectancy?

Answer 173

ALE = SLE*ARO [Annualized Loss Expectancy = Single Loss Expectancy * Annual Rate of Occurrence]

Question 174

174. What are some of the qualitative factors that must e taken into account when assessing the cost of a disaster?

Answer 174

Loss of goodwill among client base, loss of employees after prolonged downtime, social/ethical responsibilities to the community, and negative publicity

Question 175

175. What is the first thing you should do when a disaster strikes?

Answer 175

Ensure that people are safe.

Question 176

176. What are the two possible responses to a risk?

Answer 176

Acceptance and mitigation

Question 177

177. Provide two examples of devices that might be used to harden a system.

Answer 177

Computer-safe fire suppression systems and uninterruptible power supplies

Question 178

178. What is the goal of business continuity planning (BCP)?

Answer 178

To ensure the continuous operation of a business in the face of an emergency situation

Question 179

179. What are some of the elements that should be included in emergency response guidelines?

Answer 179

Immediate response procedures, notification procedures, and secondary response procedures

Question 180

180. What are the five steps of the business impact assessment process?

Answer 180

Identification of priorities, risk identification, likelihood assessment, impact assessment, and resource prioritization

Question 181

181. What process brings order to the chaotic events surrounding the interruption of an organization’s normal activities by an emergency?

Answer 181

Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP)

Question 182

182. Name some common natural disasters.

Answer 182

Earthquakes, floods, storms, tornadoes, and fires

Question 183

183. What organization sponsors the National Flood Insurance Program and is a good source of historical flood information?

Answer 183

Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

Question 184

184. What disaster recovery system is often highly dependent on the public water supply?

Answer 184

Fire suppression system

Question 185

185. What type of disaster recover separates recovery sites by business teams?

Answer 185

Workgroup recovery

Question 186

186. What are the three major options for alternative processing sites?

Answer 186

Hot sites, warm sites, and cold sites

Question 187

187. What type of recovery site is particularly suited to workgroup recovery options?

Answer 187

Mobile site

Question 188

188. True or false? Organizations participating in a mutual assistance agreement are typically located in the same geographic region.

Answer 188

True

Question 189

189. True or false? There is an accepted standards document defining the requirements for an electronic vaulting solution.

Answer 189

False

Question 190

190. What is the most common document type used for emergency response plans?

Answer 190

Checklists

Question 191

191. What are the three major types of filesystem backups?

Answer 191

Full backups, Incremental backups, and Differential backups

Question 192

192. What can be used to protect a company against the failure of a developer to provide adequate support?

Answer 192

Software escrow agreements

Question 193

193. It is sometimes useful to separate disaster _____________tasks from disaster_____________tasks.

Answer 193

Recovery, restoration (in either order)

Question 194

194. True or false? In most circumstances, it is illegal for an employer to monitor an employee’s email.

Answer 194

False

Question 195

195. If a witness is not able to uniquely identify an object, how else may it be authenticated in court?

Answer 195

By establishing a chain of evidence

Question 196

196. What type of evidence is an authenticated computer log?

Answer 196

Documentary evidence

Question 197

197. What are the three major evidence admissibility requirements?

Answer 197

Evidence must be relevant, material, and competent.

Question 198

198. What law created the category of mission-critical computer systems?

Answer 198

Government Information Security Reform Act

Question 199

199. What are the two requirements for acceptance of a trademark application?

Answer 199

The trademark must not be confusingly similar to another trademark, and it must not be descriptive.

Question 200

200. What are the three requirements for acceptance of a patent application?

Answer 200

The invention must be new, useful, and nonobvious.

Question 201

201. How long does trade secret protection last?

Answer 201

Indefinitely

Question 202

202. What type of license agreements are written on the outside of software packaging and require no action from the user other than opening the package?

Answer 202

Shrink-wrap

Question 203

203. What amendment to the US Constitution forms the basis for privacy rights?

Answer 203

Fourth Amendment

Question 204

204. What law requires that websites provide parents with the opportunity to review any information collected from their children?

Answer 204

Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act

Question 205

205. What law grants privacy rights to students enrolled in educational institutions that accept government funding?

Answer 205

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

Question 206

206. Which type of computer crime attacks an organization’s computer system to extract confidential information?

Answer 206

Business attack

Question 207

207. Which type of computer crime would likely be timed to occur simultaneously with a physical attack to reduce the ability to effectively respond to the physical attack?

Answer 207

Terrorist attack

Question 208

208. What term refers to any hardware, software, or data that can be used to prove the identity and actions of an attacker?

Answer 208

Evidence

Question 209

209. What term describes any violation or threatened violation of a security policy?

Answer 209

Incident

Question 210

210. Which type of incident generally does not cause direct damage to the victim?

Answer 210

Scanning. The purpose of a scanning attack is to collect information. The real damage to the system occurs in later attacks.

Question 211

211. How do you protect your system from a malicious code incident?

Answer 211

Make sure your security policy restricts the introduction of untested files to your computer system. Have a good scanner with an up-to-date signature database. Frequently scan all files. Implement whitelisting of applications.

Question 212

212. Which two types of incidents are the easiest to stop by dynamically altering filtering rules?

Answer 212

Scanning and denial of service. They can both potentially be stopped by filtering out the offending packets.

Question 213

213. What must you do to make sure evidence is kept viable for use in a trial?

Answer 213

You must ensure that the evidence has not changed, and you must be able to validate its integrity.

Question 214

214. Where should you begin looking to find information about an incident that occurred in the recent past?

Answer 214

The first place to look is in the system and network log files.

Question 215

215. If an incident has occurred that has violated no laws or regulations, how do you determine whether to report it?

Answer 215

The incident reporting guidelines should be in your security policy.

Question 216

216. Is adherence to the (ISC)2 Code of Ethics recommended, mandatory, or optional for CISSPs?

Answer 216

Adherence to the (ISC)2 Code of Ethics is mandatory, and acceptance of the Code of Ethics is a condition of certification.

Question 217

217. What is the leading reason many incidents are not reported?

Answer 217

Because they are not recognized as incidents

Question 218

218. What are the three main types of physical security controls?

Answer 218

Administrative physical security controls, technical physical security controls, physical controls for physical security.

Question 219

219. What is the primary purpose of lighting as a physical security device?

Answer 219

To discourage casual intruders, trespassers, prowlers, and would-be thieves.

Question 220

220. What are the benefits of security guards?

Answer 220

They are able to adapt and react to any condition or situation, are able to learn and recognize attack patterns, can adjust to a changing environment, and are able to make decisions and judgment calls.

Question 221

221. What are the disadvantages of security guards?

Answer 221

Not all environments support them; prescreening, bonding, and training is not always effective; they are expensive, subject to illness, take vacations, and are vulnerable to social engineering.

Question 222

222. What are the benefits and disadvantages of guard dogs?

Answer 222

They can be deployed as a perimeter security control and as detection and deterrent agents, they are costly and require high maintenance, and their use involves insurance and liability issues.

Question 223

223. What are the 11 electrical terms and definitions you should be aware of?

Answer 223

Fault, blackout, sag, brownout, spike, surge, inrush, noise, transient, clean, ground

Question 224

224. What are the types of noise or interference and their sources?

Answer 224

Common mode noise is generated by the difference in power between the hot and ground wires. Traverse mode noise is generated by the difference in power between the hot and neutral wires.

Question 225

225. What are the typical HVAC requirements for a computer room?

Answer 225

A computer room should be kept at 60 to 75 degrees Fahrenheit (15 to 23 degrees Celsius). Humidity in a computer room should be maintained at between 40 and 60 percent.

Question 226

226. What type of damage occurs when static electricity discharges exceed 40 volts?

Answer 226

Destruction of sensitive circuits

Question 227

227. What is a Type C fire extinguisher used for, and what is it made of?

Answer 227

A Type C fire extinguisher is for use on electrical devices thus the extinguishing agent is non-conductive, so the devices might use CO2, halon, or various alternatives.

Question 228

228. What are the four types of water-based fire suppression systems?

Answer 228

Wet pipe system, dry pipe system, deluge system, preaction system

Question 229

229. What are the alternatives for halon?

Answer 229

FM-200 (HFC-227ea), CEA-410 or CEA 308, NAF-S-III (HCFC Blend A), FE-13 (HCFC-23), Aragon (IG55) or Argonite (IG01), Intergen (IG541), and low-pressure water mists

Question 230

230. Which security vulnerability conveys information by altering the performance of a system component or modifying as resource’s timing in a predictable manner?

Answer 230

Covert timing channel

Question 231

231. What is a separate object that is associated with a resource and describes its security attributes?

Answer 231

Security token

Question 232

232. In the Clark-Wilson security model, what is a procedure that scans data items and confirms their integrity

Answer 232

Integrity verification procedure (IVP)

Question 233

233. In the Biba integrity model, what is the Simple Integrity Axiom, which states that a subject cannot read an object of a lower integrity, also called?

Answer 233

No read down

Question 234

234. Which organization developed the Bell-LaPadula security model?

Answer 234

The US Department of Defense

Question 235

235. What is the collection of TCB components that work together to implement the reference monitor functions?

Answer 235

Security kernel

Question 236

236. What does ITSEC call the system that is being evaluated?

Answer 236

the Target Of Evaluation (TOE)

Question 237

237. What TCSEC category is reserved for systems that have been evaluated but do not meet the requirements of any other category?

Answer 237

Category D (minimal protection)

Question 238

238. Which IPsec protocol provides integrity, authentication, and nonrepudiation to the secure message exchange?

Answer 238

Authentication Header (AH)

Question 239

239. Which type of controls considers static attributes of the subject and the object to determine the permissibility of an access?

Answer 239

Mandatory access controls

Question 240

240. What term is used to refer to the user or process that makes a request to access a resource?

Answer 240

Subject

Question 241

241. What is the imaginary boundary that separates the TCB from the rest of the system?

Answer 241

Security perimeter

Question 242

242. What term describes the technical evaluation of each part of a computer system to assess its concordance with security standards?

Answer 242

Certification

Question 243

243. What is the difference between analog and digital signals?

Answer 243

Analog communications occur with a continuous signal that varies in frequency, amplitude, and so on. Digital communications occur through the use of a state change of on-off pulses.

Question 244

244. What is the difference between synchronous and asynchronous communications?

Answer 244

Synchronous communications rely on a timing or clocking mechanism. Asynchronous communications rely on a stop and start delimiter bit to manage transmission of data.

Question 245

245. What is the difference between baseband and broadband communications?

Answer 245

Baseband technology uses a direct current to support a single communication channel. Broadband technology uses frequency modulation to support multiple simultaneous signals.

Question 246

246. Describe broadcast, multicast, and unicast communications

Answer 246

A broadcast supports communications to all possible recipients. A multicast supports communications to multiple specific recipients. A unicast supports only a single communication to one recipient.

Question 247

247. What is the difference between packet switching and circuit switching?

Answer 247

In circuit switching, a dedicated physical pathway is created between the two parties. Packet switching occurs when the message is broken up into segments and sent across the intermediary network.

Question 248

248. What are the characteristics of PPP?

Answer 248

The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is an encapsulation protocol designed to support the transmission of IP traffic over dial-up or point-to-point links. PPP supports CHAP and PAP for authentication.

Question 249

249. What are the characteristics of SLIP?

Answer 249

Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) offers no authentication, supports only half-duplex communications, has no error-detection capabilities, and requires manual link establishment and teardown.

Question 250

250. What is CORBA?

Answer 250

Common Object Request Broker Architecture (CORBA) is an international standard (sanctioned by the International Organization for Standardization [ISO]) for distributed computing.

Question 251

251. What’s the most desirable default setting for access control?

Answer 251

Denial. When access is not specifically granted, it should be denied by default. This is also known as implicit deny.

Question 252

252. What type of approach to security is considered better than a fortress mentality approach?

Answer 252

Defense in depth, multiple layers of security, concentric circles of security.

Question 253

253. What form of password attack consists first of a dictionary attack and then a bruteforce attack based on the dictionary list?

Answer 253

A hybrid attack. Sometimes called a one-upped password attack.

Question 254

254. What is the most acceptable form of biometrics to end users?

Answer 254

Iris scans

Question 255

255. What is the most unacceptable form of biometric control to end users?

Answer 255

Retina scans

Question 256

256. What is the stored sample of a biometric factor called?

Answer 256

A reference profile or a reference template

Question 257

257. With what other forms of single sign-on can Kerberos be combined?

Answer 257

Any or all of them, including SESAME, KryptoKnight, NetSP, thin clients, directory services, and scripted access.

Question 258

258. How is the ticket-granting ticket used by Kerberos generated?

Answer 258

The user’s password is hashed, and a timestamp is added.

Question 259

259. What is a centralized database of resources available to the network?

Answer 259

A directory service

Question 260

260. What are examples of rule-based access control?

Answer 260

MAC, RBAC, TBAC

Question 261

261. What form of access control can combine levels of security domains with compartments of additional control and isolation?

Answer 261

MAC (Specifically, a hybrid MAC environment

Question 262

262. What form of access control is best suited to those organizations with a high rate of employee turnover?

Answer 262

RBAC

Question 263

263. When an intrusion is detected, what should be the first response?

Answer 263

Contain or constrain the intrusion.

Question 264

264. Once an intrusion has occurred, what is the most secure process for restoring the environment?

Answer 264

Format and reinstall from scratch.

Question 265

265. What form of IDS is easier for an intruder to discover and disable?

Answer 265

Host-based IDS

Question 266

266. What network device works primarily at the Application layer?

Answer 266

Gateway

Question 267

267. What are the most common causes of network failure?

Answer 267

Cable failures and misconfigurations

Question 268

268. What type of cabling must be used to comply with building code safety requirements?

Answer 268

Plenum-rated cable

Question 269

269. How many sockets does TCP have?

Answer 269

65,536 (2^16) sockets (aka ports), numbered from 0 to 65,535

Question 270

270. What is the IP header protocol field value for TCP? UDP? ICMP? IGMP?

Answer 270

TCP: 6
UDP: 17
ICMP: 1
IGMP: 2

Question 271

271. What protocol is used by ping, pathping, and traceroute?

Answer 271

ICMP

Question 272

272. What is the APIPA range?

Answer 272

169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 along with the default Class B subnet mas of 255.255.0.0

Question 273

273. What port is used by IMAP

Answer 273

143

Question 274

274. What port is used by DHCP?

Answer 274

Port 68 for client request broadcast and port 67 for server point-to-point response

Question 275

275. Network devices at what layer and above separate collision domains?

Answer 275

Layer 2

Question 276

276. Network devices at what layer and above separate broadcast domains?

Answer 276

Layer 3

Question 277

277. Which VPN protocol supports multiple simultaneous connections?

Answer 277

IPSec

Question 278

278. What is the primary weakness of satellite communications?

Answer 278

Large terrestrial footprint

Question 279

279. What makes the usable throughput of ISDN less than the stated bandwidth?

Answer 279

The D channel is used only for call management, not data.

Question 280

280. What type of system is a common target of attackers who want to disseminate email spam?

Answer 280

Open relay SMTP servers

Question 281

281. What is the primary method to improve fax security?

Answer 281

Disable automatic printing of received faxes.

Question 282

282. What is the form of new system deployment testing called when the new system and the old system are run simultaneously?

Answer 282

Parallel run

Question 283

283. When an asset no longer needs or warrants a high security sensitivity label, what should occur?

Answer 283

Declassification

Question 284

284. What is the name of the security management approach in which senior management calls the shots?

Answer 284

Top-down approach

Question 285

285. What is the cost/benefit analysis equation for countermeasures?

Answer 285

(ALE before safeguard - ALE after implementing the safeguard) - annual cost of safeguard = value of the safeguard to the company

Question 286

286. What type of relationships can be established with relational databases? With hierarchical databases? With distributed databases?

Answer 286

One-to-one, on-to=many, and many-to-many

Question 287

287. What are the six basic SQL commands?

Answer 287

Select, Update, Delete, Insert, Grant, and Revoke

Question 288

288. What is a placeholder for SGL literal values such as numbers or character strings?

Answer 288

Bind variable

Question 289

289. What database security feature uses locking to prevent simultaneous write access to cells?

Answer 289

Concurrency

Question 290

290. What database security feature can be used to subvert aggregation, inferencing, and contamination vulnerabilities?

Answer 290

Database partitioning

Question 291

291. What feature of databases allows two or more rows in the same table to appear to have identical primary key elements but contain different data for use at differing classification levels?

Answer 291

Polyinstantiation

Question 292

292. What acts as an interface between back-end database systems and user applications?

Answer 292

ODBC

Question 293

293. What attack collects numerous low-level security items or low-value items and combines them to create something of a higher security level or value?

Answer 293

Aggregation

Question 294

294. What is more secure than a data warehouse and designed to store metadata?

Answer 294

Data mart

Question 295

295. What type of application analyzes business data and presents it in such a way as to make business decisions easier for users?

Answer 295

Decision support system

Question 296

296. What security problem cannot be prevented or compensated for by environmental controls or hardware devices?

Answer 296

Bad coding

Question 297

297. What is a valid security response when an application violates OS-imposed security, such as interfering with other processes or accessing hardware directly?

Answer 297

Stopping the environment, a STOP error, a BSOD

Question 298

298. What is it called when programmers decompile vendor code in order to understand the intricate details of its functionality?

Answer 298

Reverse engineering

Question 299

299. What is the communication to or input of an object?

Answer 299

Message

Question 300

300. What is the internal code that defines the actions an object performs in response to a message?

Answer 300

Method

Question 301

301. What are the results or output exhibited by an object based on processing a message through a method?

Answer 301

Behavior

Question 302

302. What is the collection of the common methods from a set of objects that is used to define the behavior of those objects?

Answer 302

Class

Question 303

303. What is it called when an object is an example of a class because the object contains a method from that class?

Answer 303

Instance

Question 304

304. What characteristic describes an object that exhibits different behaviors based on the same message and methods because of variances in external conditions?

Answer 304

Polymorphism

Question 305

305. Highly_______objects are not as dependent on other objects.

Answer 305

cohesive

Question 306

306. Lower _________provides better software design because objects are more independent.

Answer 306

coupling

Question 307

307. What is a type of bar chart that shows the interrelationships over time between projects and schedules?

Answer 307

Gantt chart

Question 308

308. What is a project-scheduling tool that is used to judge the size of a software product in development and calculate the standard deviation for risk assessment?

Answer 308

Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)

Question 309

309. What form of testing examines the internal logical structures of a program?

Answer 309

White-box testing

Question 310

310. What form of testing examines the input and output of a program without focusing on the internal logical structures?

Answer 310

Black-box testing

Question 311

311. What form of testing examines the extent of the system testing in order to locate untested program logic?

Answer 311

Test data method

Question 312

312. Which form of antivirus response not only removes the virus from the system but also repairs any related damage?

Answer 312

Cleaning

Question 313

313. What is the name of the assumption that all algorithms should be public but all keys should remain private?

Answer 313

Kerchoff principle

Question 314

314. What is the range of valid values of keys for an algorithm called?

Answer 314

Key space

Question 315

315. What defines the hardware and software requirements of cryptographic modules in use by the federal government?

Answer 315

Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS-140)

Question 316

316. What acts as a placeholder variable in mathematical functions and is used in random number generation?

Answer 316

Nonce

Question 317

317. What is a random bit string (a nonce) that is the same length as the block size that is XORed with the message and adds strength to cryptography systems?

Answer 317

Initialization Vector (IV)

Question 318

318. What is the most significant bit in a string?

Answer 318

The leftmost bit

Question 319

319. What is it called when a plain-text message generates identical cipher-text messages using the same algorithm but different keys?

Answer 319

Clustering or key clustering

Question 320

320. What is a concept of communication whereby a specific type of information is exchanged but no real data is exchanged?

Answer 320

Zero-knowledge proof

Question 321

321. What is the basic idea that the information or privilege required to perform an operation is divided among multiple users (it is an application of separation of duties)?

Answer 321

Split knowledge

Question 322

322. What is an example of split knowledge employed to protect key escrow?

Answer 322

M of N control

Question 323

323. What is a way of measuring the strength of a cryptography system by measuring the effort in terms of cost and/or time?

Answer 323

Work function or work factor

Question 324

324. What is an example of a polyalphabetic substitution cipher?

Answer 324

Vigenere cipher

Question 325

325. What attack is often successful against substitution ciphers?

Answer 325

Frequency analysis

Question 326

326. What attack is often successful against polyalphabetic substitution ciphers?

Answer 326

Period analysis

Question 327

327. What form of encryption is used to protect communications that occur in real time?

Answer 327

Stream ciphers

Question 328

328. What form of encryption can provide secure communications between two parties when they have no prior method of communicating securely?

Answer 328

Asymmetric cryptography

Question 329

329. What modes of DES employ an IV?

Answer 329

CBC, CFB, OFB

Question 330

330. What are the valid key sizes for RC5?

Answer 330

0 to 2,048 bits

Question 331

331. If a message is signed and encrypted, what security services are you providing?

Answer 331

Confidentiality, integrity, authenticity/access control, and nonrepudiation

Question 332

332. Who has the responsibility to ensure that communications are secured?

Answer 332

The sender

Question 333

333. Historically, what custom protocol was used to provide cryptographically secure wireless network access for mobile devices?

Answer 333

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

Question 334

334. What is the standard that wireless networking technology is based on?

Answer 334

802.11

Question 335

335. What cryptographic attack attempts to find a weakness in the algorithm?

Answer 335

Analytic attack

Question 336

336. What cryptographic attack attempts to find a weakness in the software code?

Answer 336

Implementation attack

Question 337

337. What cryptographic attack attempts to exploit weaknesses in the computer hardware or operating system?

Answer 337

Statistical attack

Question 338

338. A_________ system is one in which all protection mechanisms work together to process sensitive data for many types of users while maintaining a stable and secure computing environment.

Answer 338

trusted

Question 339

339. ________ is simply defined as the degree of confidence in satisfaction of security needs.

Answer 339

Assurance

Question 340

340. What are the security requests of a client called under Common Criteria?

Answer 340

Protection profile

Question 341

341. What are the security features of a designed system called under Common Criteria?

Answer 341

Security target

Question 342

342. What method of verifying or establishing a trusted label of system security requires a DAA.

Answer 342

Accreditation

Question 343

343. What is the name of the accreditation process of the Department of Defense?

Answer 343

Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP) / DoD Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) / Risk Management Framework (RMF)

Question 344

344. What are the three forms of accreditation offered y National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP)?

Answer 344

Site, type, system

Question 345

345. What are often added to passwords under Linux to make their resultant hash even more secure?

Answer 345

Salts

Question 346

346. When a disaster strikes but your ability to perform work tasks is only threatened, not actually interrupted, what response should be used?

Answer 346

BCP

Question 347

347. What is always your top priority when dealing with a disaster of any type or significance?

Answer 347

Safety of personnel

Question 348

348. What feature of insurance can improve your ability to replace lost or damaged assets?

Answer 348

Actual Cost Value (ACV)

Question 349

349. What is the most common cause of unplanned downtime?

Answer 349

Hardware failures

Question 350

350. What are some examples of alternate processing facilities that should be considered when designing a DRP?

Answer 350

Hot, warm, and cold sites; mobile sites; service bureaus; multiple sites; and reciprocal agreements

Question 351

351. What forms of backup always set the archive bit to 0?

Answer 351

Full and incremental

Question 352

352. What backup media may be appropriate for personal backups but not for network backups?

Answer 352

Writable CDs and DVDs

Question 353

353. What form of backup, when used to restore data, will always result in some amount of data loss?

Answer 353

Periodic backups

Question 354

354. What law requires all communications carriers to make wiretaps possible for law enforcement with an appropriate court order regardless of the technology in use?

Answer 354

Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act (CALEA) of 1994.

Question 355

355. What law extends the definition of property to include proprietary economic information so that the theft of this information can be considered industrial or corporate espionage?

Answer 355

Economic and Protection of Proprietary Information Act of 1996.

Question 356

356. ________ controls are your first line of defense, while ________ are your last line of defense.

Answer 356

Physical, People

Question 357

357. What is the functional order of controls when deployed for physical security?

Answer 357

Deterrence, then denial, then detection, then delay

Question 358

358. What type of lock consists of three elements: an electromagnet, a credential reader, and a door-closed sensor?

Answer 358

Electronic access control (EAC)

Question 359

359. Reviewing the recorded images from CCTV is what type of security control?

Answer 359

Detective

Question 360

360. What is the primary difference between memory cards and smart cards?

Answer 360

Processing capability

Question 361

361. At what stage of a fire is flame visible?

Answer 361

Stage 3: Flame

Question 362

362. What is the most common cause of fires in a data center?

Answer 362

Overloaded electrical distribution outlets

Question 363

363. Where should fire detectors be placed?

Answer 363

In dropped ceilings, raised floors, server rooms, private offices and public areas, HVAC vents, elevator shafts, the basement, and so on

Question 364

364. What is the most common cause of failure of water-based suppression system?

Answer 364

Human error

Question 365

365. Name one or more examples of vector routing protocol

Answer 365

RIP, IGRP, BGP

Question 366

366. Name an example of a link state routing protocol.

Answer 366

OSPF

Question 367

367. At what layer does SSL and TLS function?

Answer 367

Transport layer (OSI layer 4)

Question 368

368. Name at least four technologies commonly called wireless.

Answer 368

802.11 networking, Bluetooth (802.15), mobile phones, and cordless phones

Question 369

369. What are the three unlicensed frequencies (at least in the United States as designated by the FCC)?

Answer 369

900 MHz, 2.4 GHz, and 5 GHz

Question 370

370. Name three wireless frequency access technologies.

Answer 370

FHSS, DSSS, and OFDM

Question 371

371. What protocol can be used to enable mobile phone access to Internet resources?

Answer 371

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

Question 372

372. What is the IEEE standard for Bluetooth?

Answer 372

802.15

Question 373

373. What is the IEEE standard for WiMax

Answer 373

802.16

Question 374

374. What is another name for the area of Bluetooth connectivity?

Answer 374

Personal area network (PAN)

Question 375

What is the primary security feature of Bluetooth pairing?

Answer 375

A four-digit PIN

Question 376

376. What two items are required for infrastructure mode wireless networking?

Answer 376

Wireless access points and wireless clients

Question 377

377. What mode is used when a wireless network link is established without the use of an access point?

Answer 377

Ad hoc or peer-to-peer

Question 378

378. What is the minimum amount of information needed by a wireless client to connect to a network hosted by a wireless access point?

Answer 378

SSID

Question 379

379. Name four examples of infrastructure mode wireless networking.

Answer 379

Stand-alone, wired extension, enterprise extended, and bridge

Question 380

380. How many wireless networking channels exist on devices in the United States? In Europe? in Japan?

Answer 380

United States: 11
Europe: 13
Japan: 17

Question 381

381. What is the native authentication and encryption scheme of 802.11

Answer 381

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

Question 382

382. Name two alternatives to WEP for 802.11.

Answer 382

WPA and WPA-2 (802.11i)

Question 383

383. What two forms of authentication are supported by 902.11?

Answer 383

Open System Authentication (OSA) and Shared Key Authentication (SKA)

Question 384

384. What is the minimum length of a TCP header?

Answer 384

20 bytes

Question 385

385. How long is a UDP header?

Answer 385

8 bytes

Question 386

386. What are the four TCP header flags that are used in virtual circuit setup and teardown?

Answer 386

SYN, ACK, FIN, and RES (or RST)

Question 387

387. What two ICMP type field values are employed in a successful ping activity?

Answer 387

8: echo request, 0: echo reply

Question 388

388. What is Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)?

Answer 388

A security concept infrastructure used to organize the complex security solution of companies.

Question 389

389. What form of testing examines the internal logical structures of a program from a developer’s perspective?

Answer 389

White-box testing

Question 390

390. What form of testing examines the input and output of a program without access to the internal logical structures?

Answer 390

Black-box testing

Question 391

391. What form of testing examines the input and output of a program with access to the internal logical structures?

Answer 391

Gray-box testing

Question 392

392. What kinds of items qualify as access controls?

Answer 392

Any hardware, software, or organizational administrative policy or procedure that maintains confidentiality, integrity, and/or accountability also counts as an access control.

Question 393

393. What is the proper term for ensuring that information is accessible only to authorized parties?

Answer 393

Confidentiality

Question 394

394. What is the proper term for the assurance that information and security controls used to protect information are accessible and usable when needed?

Answer 394

Availability

Question 395

395. What is it called when an authorized party indicates its intention to fulfill some contractual obligation and forgoes its right to dispute that fulfillment after the fact?

Answer 395

Nonrepudiation

Question 396

396. Items of information used to establish or prove authorized identities are known as what kind of factors?

Answer 396

Authentication

Question 397

397. What kind of access control enforces access policy determined by the owner of the object to which the control applies?

Answer 397

Discretionary access control (DAC)

Question 398

398. What kind of access control is determined by the system in which the object resides rather than its owner?

Answer 398

Mandatory access control (MAC)

Question 399

399. Which access control scheme requires organizational roles to be defined along with various task requirements and applicable object permissions?

Answer 399

Role-based access control (RBAC)

Question 400

400. Which access control scheme requires administrative rules to be defined along with the various conditions under which they apply as well as applicable object permissions?

Answer 400

Rule-based access control

Question 401

401.What is the practice of defense in depth called when it involves a multilayered security infrastructure that includes multiple combined individual applications and processes?

Answer 401

Concentric circle strategy

Question 402

402. What is the term for exercising reasonable care in protecting organizational assets and interests, including development of a formalized security structure consisting of policies procedures, and protocols?

Answer 402

Due care

Question 403

403. When users are granted only the minimum access necessary to complete some task or process, what principle is involved?

Answer 403

The principle of Least Privilege

Question 404

404. What kinds of processes must be applied when confidential storage media is prepared for reuse in questionably secure environments?

Answer 404

Declassification

Question 405

405. What is the name for the demagnetization process used to erase disk drives or tapes to wipe out all previously stored data?

Answer 405

Degaussing

Question 406

406. What kind of control does any security tool provide when it’s used to guide the security implementation within an organization?

Answer 406

Directive control

Question 407

407. What kind of control does any mechanism, tool, or practice provide if it deters or mitigates undesirable actions or events?

Answer 407

Preventive control

Question 408

408. What kind of control should be used to verify the effectiveness of other security controls?

Answer 408

Detective control

Question 409

409. What kind of check should be applied to ensure that all necessary elements of a security solution are properly deployed and functioning as expected?

Answer 409

Compliance checking

Question 410

410. What do you call a person who is trained in responsible network security methods, who employs a philosophy of nondestructive and nonintrusive penetration testing, but who may also use underground or “black-hat” tools?

Answer 410

Ethical hacker

Question 411

411. What is the proper name for a criminal act committed against an organization by a current or former employee who exploits knowledge gained on the job in its perpetration?

Answer 411

Sabotage

Question 412

412. What is the proper name for the illegal intent behind obtaining and profiting from sensitive information that belongs to some third party (government, corporation, individual, and so on)?

Answer 412

Espionage

Question 413

413. When a person attempts to deceive an insider within an organization to divulge sensitive information or to perform sensitive actions on their behalf, what might this be called?

Answer 413

Social engineering

Question 414

414. When a penetration test team is privy to detailed information about organizational assets, including hardware and software inventory, but not to other information accounts, users, naming conventions, an so on), how might this team be described?

Answer 414

Partial-knowledge team

Question 415

415. When a penetration test team is privy only to what it itself can learn about the target organizations for the test, how might this team be described?

Answer 415

Zero-knowledge team (performs black-box testing)

Question 416

416. What term identifies the data extraction technique whereby elements of data are extracted from a much larger body of data to construct a meaningful representation of its overall contents?

Answer 416

Sampling

Question 417

417. What governs how long records are kept to substantiate system security assessments and support system analysis?

Answer 417

Record retention

Question 418

418. What does BCP stand for, and what does it mean?

Answer 418

Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the preventive practice of establishing and planning for threats to business flow, including natural and unnatural risk and threats to daily operations.

Question 419

419. What does DRP stand for, and what does it mean?

Answer 419

Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) is the practice of establishing and executing recovery actions as part of an emergency response following a disaster.

Question 420

420. What term describes damage from disruptive and irresistible forces of nature (such as earthquakes, floods, storms, and so on)?

Answer 420

Natural disaster

Question 421

421. What term describes damage resulting from arson, human error, acts of terrorism, or power outages and other utility failures?

Answer 421

Man-made disaster

Question 422

422. What kind of strategy drives defining practices, policies, and procedures to restore a business to normal operation in the wake of some kind of outage or disaster?

Answer 422

Recovery strategy

Question 423

423. What label applies to a partial standby facility for which power and other infrastructure elements are available, but for which no operational computing facilities are supplied in advance of a disaster?

Answer 423

Cold site

Question 424

424. What label applies to a standby facility that is ready to take over for a primary facility as soon as notice is received that the primary facility has gone down?

Answer 424

Hot site

Question 425

425.What label applies to a site that is already provisioned with hardware and software to take over for a primary facility but that needs to obtain and install a backup or image of client-specific data before going online?

Answer 425

Warm site

Question 426

426. How might you describe a site housed in self-contained transportable units with all control, hardware, and software elements necessary to establish an operational safe computing environment?

Answer 426

Mobile site

Question 427

427. What roles can a service bureau play in disaster recovery?

Answer 427

Service bureaus lease computer time via contractual agreements and can meet an organization’s entire IT needs in the event of disaster or catastrophic failure.

Question 428

428. What is critical path analysis?

Answer 428

A systematic effort to identify relationships between mission-critical applications, processes, and operations and all of the necessary supporting elements

Question 429

429. Name three examples of administrative physical security controls.

Answer 429

Facility construction and selection, site management, personnel controls, security awareness training, emergency response, and procedures

Question 430

430. Name three examples of technical physical security controls.

Answer 430

Access controls; intrusion detection; alarm systems; closed-circuit television (CCTV); monitoring systems; heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems; power supplies; fire detection and suppression systems

Question 431

431. Name three physical controls for physical security.

Answer 431

Fencing, lighting, locks, construction materials, mantraps, watchdogs, guards

Question 432

432. What term describes the act of gathering information about a system by observing the display or watching an operator at the keyboard?

Answer 432

Shoulder surfing

Question 433

433. What term describes the act of using another person’s security ID to gain unauthorized entry into a facility?

Answer 433

Masquerading

Question 434

434. When one person follows another through a secured gate or doorway without presenting identification or otherwise being authenticated, what is this entry technique called?

Answer 434

Piggybacking

Question 435

435. What kind of system is designed to detect intrusions, breaches, or attack attempts as they are underway or after the fact?

Answer 435

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Question 436

436. What does UPS stand for, and what does it mean?

Answer 436

An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is a type of self-charging batter that can be used to supply consistent clean power to sensitive equipment.

Question 437

437. What does EMI stand for, and what does it mean?

Answer 437

Electromagnetic interference refers to any noise generated by electric current and can affect any means of data transmission or storage that relies on electromagnetic transport mechanisms.

Question 438

438. Describe the models of systems development.

Answer 438

The waterfall model is a sequential development process that results in the development of a finished product. Developers may step back only one phase in the process if errors are discovered. The spiral model uses several iterations of the waterfall model to produce a number of fully specified and tested prototypes. Agile development models place an emphasis on the needs of the customer and quickly developing new functionality that meets those needs in an iterative fashion.

Question 439

439. Describe the purpose of software development maturity models.

Answer 439

Maturity models help software organizations improve the maturity and quality of their software processes by implementing an evolutionary path from ad hoc, chaotic processes to mature, disciplined software processes.

Question 440

440. What are the important elements of change and configuration management?

Answer 440

The three basic components of change control are request control, change control, and release control.

Question 441

441. What is TEMPEST?

Answer 441

TEMPEST is a standard for the study and control of electronic signals produced by various types of electronic hardware, such as computers, televisions, phones, and so on. Its primary goal is to prevent EMI and RFI radiation from leaving a strictly defined area to eliminate the possibility of external radiation monitoring, eavesdropping, and signal sniffing.

Question 442

442. What is static software testing?

Answer 442

Static testing evaluates the security of software without running it by analyzing either the source code or the compiled application. Static analysis usually involves the use of automated tools designed to detect common software flaws, such as buffer overflows.

Question 443

443. What type of software testing is most appropriate when the tester does not have access to the underlying source code?

Answer 443

Dynamic testing

Question 444

444. What does malicious code often create on an infected system to allow the developers of the malicious code to remotely access the system at a later time?

Answer 444

Back door

Question 445

445. What name is given to the cryptographic concept of making the relationship between the plain text and the key so complex that an attacker can’t use known plain text attacks to determine the key?

Answer 445

Confusion

Question 446

446. What types of organizations need to comply with PCI DSS?

Answer 446

Those that store, process, or transmit credit card account information

Question 447

447. What trend makes it especially important to incorporate an assessment of security controls in contracting and procurement reviews?

Answer 447

The increased use of third-party and cloud services

Question 448

448. What are the branches of forensic analysis?

Answer 448

Media analysis, network analysis, software analysis, and hardware/embedded device analysis

Question 449

449. What is it called when a user has more access, privilege, or permission than their assigned work tasks dictate?

Answer 449

Excessive privileges (also known as the violation of least privilege)

Question 450

450. What is it called when a user accumulates privileges over time as their job roles and assigned tasks change but unneeded privileges are not revoked?

Answer 450

Creeping privileges or privilege creep

Question 451

451. Which access control scheme requires administrative rules to be defined along with the various conditions under which they apply as well as applicable object permissions?

Answer 451

Rule-based access control

Question 452

452. Name three physical controls for physical security.

Answer 452

Fencing, lighting, locks, construction materials, mantraps, watchdogs, guards

Question 453

453. What term is used to refer to the user or processing that makes a request to access a resource?

Answer 453

Subject

Question 454

454. What kind of control does any mechanism, tool, or practice provide if it deters or mitigates undesirable actions or events?

Answer 454

Preventive control

Question 455

455. What process identifies the actual value of assets so that assets can be prioritized?

Answer 455

Asset valuation

Question 456

456. What process identifies and categorizes potential threats?

Answer 456

Threat modeling

Question 457

457. What process is used to identify weaknesses?

Answer 457

Vulnerability analysis

Question 458

458. When evaluating access control attacks, what are three primary elements that must be identified?

Answer 458

Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities

Question 459

459. A group of attackers is sponsored by a government. They are highly motivated, skilled, and patient and focused on a single target to gain and retain access over long periods of time. What is this group called?

Answer 459

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

Question 460

460. What are often added to passwords to make their resultant hash secure and resistant to rainbow attacks?

Answer 460

Salts

Question 461

461. What is a nonstatistical sampling method that only records or alerts on events that exceed a threshold?

Answer 461

Clipping levels

Question 462

462. What is a group of records from one or more databases or logs that can be used to reconstruct events after an incident?

Answer 462

Audit trail

Question 463

463. What is the purpose of an access review and audit?

Answer 463

Check to ensure that users do not have excessive privileges and that accounts are managed appropriately

Question 464

464. What can a user entitlement review detect?

Answer 464

Violation of the principle of least privilege policy, as incidents of excessive privileges or creeping privileges

Question 465

465. What type of accounts are focused on during a user entitlement review?

Answer 465

Privileged accounts such as administrator or root user accounts

Question 466

466. Who should have access to audit reports?

Answer 466

Only people who have a need to know

Question 467

467. What determines how often an audit should be performed?

Answer 467

Risk

Question 468

468. What policy requires users to spend at least a week away from their jobs on an annual basis to help prevent fraud?

Answer 468

Mandatory vacations

Question 469

469. What method will remove all data with assurances that it cannot be removed using any known methods?

Answer 469

Purging, sanitization, or destruction

Question 470

470. What methods can be used to protect mobile devices such as a smartphone?

Answer 470

Encryption, GPS, password-protected screen locks, and remote wipe

Question 471

471. What can be used to remove data on a lost smartphone?

Answer 471

Remote wipe

Question 472

472. What should be done before disposing of a desktop computer at the end of its life cycle?

Answer 472

Sanitization

Question 473

473. What is the term that identifies data on a disk after the data has supposedly been erased?

Answer 473

Data remanence

Question 474

474. What are the steps of a patch management program?

Answer 474

Evaluate, test, apply, and audit patches

Question 475

475. What can be used to verify patches have been applied?

Answer 475

Vulnerability Scanner or a patch management system

Question 476

476. What should be done to verify patches have been applied?

Answer 476

Audit patches, or use a vulnerability scanner to verify patches have been applied

Question 477

477. What tool can check for weaknesses in systems?

Answer 477

Vulnerability scanner

Question 478

478. What would be completed to check an entire organization for weaknesses?

Answer 478

Vulnerability assessment

Question 479

479. What does imaging provide in relation to configuration management?

Answer 479

Baseline

Question 480

480. What helps prevent outages that can occur from unauthorized modifications?

Answer 480

Change management

Question 481

481. What helps prevent inadvertent weakening of security from unauthorized outages?

Answer 481

Change management

Question 482

482. What are the five steps in incident response quoted in the CISSP CIB

Answer 482

Detection, Response, Reporting, Recovery, and Remediation and Review

Question 483

483. In which stage of incident response should a root cause analysis be conducted?

Answer 483

Remediation and Review

Question 484

484. While containing an incident, what is the next important consideration?

Answer 484

Protection of evidence

Question 485

485. An attack has a negative effect on the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an organization’s assets. What is this called?

Answer 485

Computer security incident

Question 486

486. What is it called when malware is installed on a user’s system after visiting a website?

Answer 486

Drive-by download

Question 487

487. What three generic elements can help prevent malware infections?

Answer 487

Education, policies, and tools

Question 488

488. An attacker has launched an attack using a vulnerability known only to him. What is this called?

Answer 488

Zero-day exploit

Question 489

489. What type of attack leverages part of the TCP three-way handshake?

Answer 489

SYN flood attack

Question 490

490. What are computers in a botnet commonly called?

Answer 490

Zombies

Question 491

491. What is the best protection against a computer joining a botnet?

Answer 491

Up-to-date antivirus software

Question 492

492. What type of IDS detects attacks based on known methods?

Answer 492

Knowledge-based (also called signature-based or pattern-matching)

Question 493

493. What type of IDS detects attacks based by comparing it to a baseline?

Answer 493

Behavior-based (also called Statistical-intrusion detection or anomaly detection)

Question 494

494. After a network is upgraded, what must be done with a behavior-based IDS?

Answer 494

Upgrade the baseline

Question 495

495. What is required before starting a penetration test?

Answer 495

Knowledge and consent of management

Question 496

496. When a penetration test team is privy to detailed information about organizational assets, including hardware and software inventory, but not to other information (accounts, users, naming conventions, and so on), how might this team be described?

Answer 496

Partial-knowledge team (performs gray-box testing)

Question 497

497. A penetration testing team has full knowledge about a target. What is this team called

Answer 497

Full-knowledge team (performs white-box testing)

Question 498

498. What is used to provide fault tolerance for a disk subsystem?

Answer 498

Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

Question 499

499. What is used to provide fault tolerance for a server?

Answer 499

Failover cluster

Question 500

500. What is used to provide short-term fault tolerance for a power failure?

Answer 500

Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

Question 501

501. What is used to provide long-term fault tolerance for a power failure?

Answer 501

Generator

Question 502

502. What are three well-known but legacy non-IP protocols?

Answer 502

NetBIOS, IPX/SPX, and AppleTalk

Question 503

503. What are the six flags from the TCP header that we still commonly use and what is their order in the header?

Answer 503

XXUAPRSF. The X represents two flags no longer used, followed by Urgent, Acknowledgment, Push, Reset, Synchronization, and Finish. You can memorize this flag order using the phrase “Unskilled Attackers Pester Real Security Folk.”

Question 504

504. What is VLAN hopping?

Answer 504

An attack using double-encapsulated IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tags to fool a switch into allowing traffic to jump to a different VLAN from which the traffic originated

Question 505

505. What is NAC?

Answer 505

Network Access Control (NAC) is a concept of controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policy. The goals of NAC are to prevent/reduce zero-day attacks, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control.

Question 506

506. What is endpoint security?

Answer 506

The concept that each individual device must maintain local security whether or not its network or telecommunications channels provide or offer security. Sometimes this is expressed as the end device that is responsible for its own security.

Question 507

507. On an 802.11 wireless network, what contains the regular announcement of the network name by default?

Answer 507

The beacon frame contains the SSID (i.e., network name) by default. This can be stopped using the Disable SSID Broadcast feature of a wireless access point.

Question 508

508. What are the three standards-based forms of encryption of 802.11 wireless networks and the cryptography protocols related to each?

Answer 508

WEP (RC4), WPA (RC4, TKIP, LEAP), WPA-2 (AES/CCMP)

Question 509

509. What is 802.1x?

Answer 509

Port authentication; basically a mechanism to proxy authentication from the local device to another dedicated authentication service within the network

Question 510

510. What is war driving?

Answer 510

A collection of techniques to discover that a wireless network is present at a given location

Question 511

511. What is a VLAN?

Answer 511

A hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches used to manage traffic

Question 512

512. What is multimedia collaboration?

Answer 512

The use of various multimedia-supporting communication solutions to enhance distance collaboration. Collaboration occurs when people can work on a project together. Often, collaboration allows workers to work simultaneously as well as across different timeframes.

Question 513

513. What are two common attacks against Internet-based IM (instant messaging)?

Answer 513

Packet sniffing and eavesdropping attacks

Question 514

514. What is screen scraping?

Answer 514

1) Remote control, remote access, or remote desktop-like services. 2) A technology that can allow an automated tool to interact with a human interface, such as extracting information from web pages.

Question 515

515. What is virtualization?

Answer 515

Technology used to host one or more operating systems within the memory of a single host computer. This mechanism allows virtually any OS to operate on any hardware. It also allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware.

Question 516

516. What are the two main forms of DoS?

Answer 516

The first form exploits a vulnerability in hardware or software. This exploitation of a weakness, error, or standard feature of software to cause a system to hang, freeze, consume all system resources, and so on. The end result is that the victimized computer is unable to process any legitimate tasks. The second form floods the victim’s communication pipeline with garage network traffic. Sometimes called a traffic generation or flooding attack.

Question 517

517. What is security management planning?

Answer 517

Security management planning ensures proper creation, implementation, and enforcement of a security policy. Security management is a responsibility of upper management, not of the IT staff, and is considered a business operations issue rather than an IT administration issue.

Question 518

518. What is security governance?

Answer 518

Security governance is the collection of practices related to supporting, defining, and directing the security efforts of an organization. A common goal of organizational governance is to ensure that the organization will continue to exist and will grow or expand over time.

Question 519

519. What is third-party governance?

Answer 519

Third-party governance is the system of oversight that may be mandated by law, regulation, industry standards, or licensing requirements. The actual method of governance may vary but generally involves an outside investigator or auditor.

Question 520

520. What is documentation review?

Answer 520

Documentation review is the process of not just reading the exchange materials but verifying it against standards and expectations. The documentation review is typically performed before any on-site inspection is performed.

Question 521

521. Define the Goguen-Meseguer model.

Answer 521

The Goguen-Meseguer model is an integrity model based on predetermining the set or domain of objects that a subject can access. This model is based on automation theory and domain separation.

Question 522

522. Define the Sutherland model.

Answer 522

The Suterland model is an integrity model focused on preventing interference in support of integrity. It is based on the idea of defining a set of system states, initial states, and state transitions. Through the use of and limitations to only these predetermined secure states, integrity is maintained and interference is prohibited.

Question 523

523. Define the Graham-Denning model.

Answer 523

The Graham-Denning model is focused on the secure creation and deletion of both subjects and objects. Ultimately, it is a collection of eight primary protection rules or actions that define the boundaries of certain secure actions.

Question 524

524. What are some benefits of virtualization?

Answer 524

Being able to launch individual instances of servers or services as needed, real-time scalability, and being able to run the exact needed OS version for the needed application

Question 525

525. What is TPM?

Answer 525

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a cryptoprocessor chip on a mainboard used to store and process cryptographic keys for the purposes of a hardware-supported or implemented hard drive encryption system.

Question 526

526. What is the HSM?

Answer 526

A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a cryptoprocessor used to manage/store digital encryption keys, accelerate crypto operations, support faster digital signatures, and improve authentication.

Question 527

527. What is cloud computing?

Answer 527

A concept of computing where processing and storage are performed elsewhere over a network connection rather than locally

Question 528

528. What are some issues or concerns regarding cloud computing?

Answer 528

Privacy concerns, regulation compliance difficulties, use of open/closed source solutions, adoption of open standards, and whether or not cloud-based data is actually secured (or even securable)

Question 529

529. What is PaaS?

Answer 529

Platform as a Service (PaaS) is the concept of providing a computing platform and software solution stack as a virtual or cloud-based service.

Question 530

530. What is SaaS?

Answer 530

Software as a Service (SaaS) is a derivative of Platform as a Service (PaaS). Software as a Service provides on-demand online access to specific software applications or suites without the need for local installation (or even local hardware and OS requirements in many cases).

Question 531

531. What is IaaS?

Answer 531

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) takes the Platform as a Service (PaaS) model another step forward. It provides not just on-demand operating solutions but complete outsourcing options as well. This can include utility or metered computing services, administrative task automation, dynamic scaling, virtualization services, policy implementation and management services, and managed/filtered internet connectivity.

Question 532

532. What is grid computing?

Answer 532

Grid computing is a form of parallel distributed processing that loosely groups a significant number of processing nodes toward the completion of a specific processing goal.

Question 533

533. What is technology convergence?

Answer 533

The tendency for various technologies, solutions, utilities, and systems to evolve and merge over time. Often this results in multiple systems performing similar or redundant tasks or one system taking over the features and abilities of another. While in some instances this can result in improved efficiency and cost savings, it can also be an increased single point of failure and can become a more valuable target for hackers and intruders.

Question 534

534. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as sensitivity.

Answer 534

Sensitivity refers to the quality of information that could cause harm or damage if disclosed. Maintaining confidentiality of sensitive information helps to prevent harm or damage.

Question 535

535. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as discretion.

Answer 535

Discretion is an act of decision whereby an operator can influence or control disclosure in order to minimize harm or damage.

Question 536

536. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as criticality.

Answer 536

The level to which information is mission critical is its measure of criticality. The higher the level of criticality, the more likely the need to maintain the confidentiality of the information. High levels of criticality are essential to the operation or function of an organization.

Question 537

537. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as concealment.

Answer 537

Concealment is the act of hiding or preventing disclosure. Often concealment is viewed as a means of cover, obfuscation, or distraction.

Question 538

538. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as secrecy.

Answer 538

Secrecy is the activity of keeping something a secret or preventing the disclosure of information.

Question 539

539. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as privacy.

Answer 539

Privacy refers to keeping information confidential that is personally identifiable or that might cause harm, embarrassment, or disgrace to someone if revealed.

Question 540

540. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as seclusion.

Answer 540

Seclusion refers to storing something in an out-of-the-way location. This location can also provide strict access controls. Seclusion can help enforce confidentiality protections.

Question 541

541. Define the aspect of confidentiality known as isolation.

Answer 541

Isolation is the act of keeping something separated from others. Isolation can be used to prevent co-mingling of information or disclosure of information.

Question 542

542. What is a business case?

Answer 542

A business case is usually a documented argument or stated position in order to define a need to make a decision or take some form of action. To make a business case is to demonstrate a business-specific need to alter an existing process or choose an approach to a business task. A business case is often made to justify the start of a new project, especially a project related to security. It is also important to consider the budget that can be allocated to a business-need-based security project.

Question 543

543. What is threat modeling?

Answer 543

Threat modeling is the security process whereby potential threats are identified, categorized, and analyzed. Threat modeling can be performed as a proactive measure during design and development or as a reactive measure once a product has been deployed.

Question 544

544. What is SD3+C?

Answer 544

Secure by Design, Secure by Default, Secure in Deployment and Communication

Question 545

545. What are the two goals of SD3+C?

Answer 545

To reduce the number of security-related design and coding defects. To reduce the severity of any remaining defects.

Question 546

546. Define proactive and reactive threat modeling?

Answer 546

A proactive approach to threat modeling takes place during early stages of systems development, specifically during initial design and specifications establishment. This type of threat modeling is also known as a defensive approach. This method is based on predicting threats and designing in specific defenses during the coding and crafting process rather than relying on post-deployment updates and patches.

A reactive approach to threat modeling takes place after a product has been created and deployed. This deployment could be in a test or laboratory environment or to the general marketplace. This type of threat modeling is also known as the adversarial approach. This technique of threat modeling is the core concept behind ethical hacking, penetration testing, source code review, and fuzz testing.

Question 547

547. Name the three common approaches to identifying threats.

Answer 547

Focused on assets, focused on attackers, and focused on software.

Question 548

548.What is STRIDE?

Answer 548

Microsoft developed a threat categorization scheme known as STRIDE. STRIDE is often used in relation to assessing threats against applications or operating systems. However, it can also be used in other contexts as well. STRIDE is an acronym standing for - Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege (STRIDE).

Question 549

549. What is reduction analysis?

Answer 549

Reduction analysis is also known as decomposing the application, system, or environment. The purpose of this task is to gain a greater understanding of the logic of the product as well as its interactions with external elements. Whether an application, a system, or an entire environment, it needs to be divided into smaller containers or compartments.

Question 550

550. Name three methods to rank and prioritize threats.

Answer 550

Probability * Damage Potential, High/medium/low, or DREAD.

Question 551

551. What is DREAD?

Answer 551

DREAD is a threat rating system designed to provide a flexible rating solution that is based on asking five main questions of each threat:

Damage potential: How severe is the damage likely to be if the threat is realized?

Reproducibility: How complicated is it for attackers to reproduce the exploit?

Exploitability: How hard is it to perform the attack?

Affected users: How many users are likely to be affected by the attack (as a percentage)?

Discoverability: How hard is it for an attacker to discover the weakness?

Question 552

552. What is cross-training?

Answer 552

Cross-training is often discussed as an alternative to job rotation. In both cases, workers learn the responsibilities and tasks of multiple job positions. However, in cross-training the workers are just prepared to perform the other job positions; they are not rotated through them on a regular basis. Cross-training enables existing personnel to fill the work gap when the proper employee is unavailable as a type of emergency response procedure.

Question 553

553. What is compliance?

Answer 553

Compliance is the act of conforming to or adhering to rules, policies, regulations, standards, or requirements. Compliance is an important concern to security governance.

Question 554

554. What is a risk framework?

Answer 554

A risk framework is a guideline or recipe for how risk is to be assessed, resolved, and monitored.

Question 555

555. What is FISMA?

Answer 555

The Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA), passed in 2002, requires that federal agencies implement an information security program that covers the agency’s operations. FISMA also requires that government agencies include the activities of contractors in their security management programs.

Question 556

556. What is HITECH?

Answer 556

In 2009, Congress amended HIPAA by passing the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act. This law updated many of HIPAA’s privacy and security requirements and was implemented through the HIPAA Omnibus Rule in 2013.

Question 557

557. What are the parameters of the HITECH data breach notification requirements?

Answer 557

Under the HITECH Breach Notification Rule, HIPAA-covered entities that experience a data breach must notify affected individuals of the breach and must also notify both the Secretary of Health and Human Services and the media when the breach affects more than 500 individuals.

Question 558

558. What is an early step in asset security?

Answer 558

Classifying and labeling assets.

Question 559

559. What is sensitive data?

Answer 559

Sensitive data is any information that isn’t public or unclassified. It can include confidential, proprietary, protected, or any other type of data that an organization needs to protect due to its value to the organization or to comply with existing laws and regulations.

Question 560

560. What is PII?

Answer 560

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is any information that can identify an individual.

Question 561

561. What is PHI?

Answer 561

Protected Health Information (PHI) is any health-related information that can be related to a specific person. In the US, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) mandates the protection of PHI.

Question 562

562. What is proprietary data?

Answer 562

Proprietary data refers to any data that helps an organization maintain a competitive edge. It could be software code it developed, technical plans for products, internal processes, intellectual property, or trade secrets. If competitors are able to access the proprietary data, it can seriously affect the primary mission of an organization.

Question 563

563. What legal protections exist for proprietary data?

Answer 563

Copyrights, patents, and trade secret laws provide protection for proprietary data.

Question 564

564. What are the three data states and their definitions?

Answer 564

Data at rest is any data stored on media such as system hard drives, external USB drives, Storage Area Networks (SANs), and backup tapes. Data in transit (sometimes called data in motion) is any data transmitted over a network. This includes data transmitted over an internal network using wired or wireless methods and data transmitted over public networks such as the internet. Data in use refers to data in temporary storage buffers while an application is using it.

Question 565

565. When sensitive data is no longer needed by an organization, what should be done with it?

Answer 565

When an organization no longer needs sensitive data, personnel should destroy it. Proper destruction ensures that it cannot fall into the wrong hands and result in unauthorized disclosure.

Question 566

566. What is data remanence?

Answer 566

Data remanence is the data that remains on a hard drive as residual magnetic flux. Using system toosl to delete data generally leaves much of the data remaining on the media, and widely available tools can easily undelete it. Even when you use sophisticated tools to overwrite the media, traces of the original data may remain as less-perceptible magnetic fields.

Question 567

567. In relation to storage media, what is erasing?

Answer 567

Erasing media is simply performing a delete operation against a file, a selection of files, or the entire media. In most cases, the deletion or removal process removes only the directory or catalog link to the data. The actual data remains on the drive.

Question 568

568. In relation to storage media, what is clearing?

Answer 568

Clearing, or overwriting, is a process of preparing media for reuse and assuring that the cleared data cannot be recovered using traditional recovery tools. When media is cleared, unclassified data is written over all addressable locations on the media.

Question 569

569. In relation to storage media, what is purging?

Answer 569

Purging is a more intense form of clearing that prepares media for reuse in less-secure environments. It provides a level of assurance that the original data is not recoverable using any known methods. A purging process will repeat the clearing process multiple times and may combine it with another method such as degaussing to completely remove the data. Even though purging is intended to remove all data remnants, it isn’t always trusted.

Question 570

570. In relation to storage media, what is declassification?

Answer 570

Declassification involves any process that purges media or a system in preparation for reuse in an unclassified environment. Purging can be used to prepare media for declassification, but often the efforts required to securely declassify media are significantly greater than the cost of new media for a less-secure environment.

Question 571

571. In relation to storage media, what is sanitization?

Answer 571

Sanitization is a combination of processes that removes data from a system or from media. It ensures that data cannot be recovered by any means.

Question 572

572. What is degaussing?

Answer 572

A degausser creates a strong magnetic field that erases data on some media in a process called degaussing. Technicians commonly use degaussing methods to remove data from magnetic tapes with the goal of returning the tape to its original state. While it is possible to degauss hard disks, it is not recommended. Degaussing a hard disk will normally destroy the electronics used to access the data.

Question 573

573. What are some methods of storage media destruction?

Answer 573

Destruction is the final stage in the life cycle of media and is the most secure method of sanitizing media. When destroying media it’s important to ensure that the media cannot be reused or repaired and that data cannot be extracted from the destroyed media. Methods of destruction include incineration, crushing, shredding, disintegration, and dissolving using caustic or acidic chemicals. Some organizations remove the platters in highly classified disk drives and destroy them separately.

Question 574

574. What are scoping and tailoring?

Answer 574

Scoping refers to reviewing baseline security controls and selecting only those controls that apply to the IT system you’re trying to protect. Tailoring refers to modifying the list of security controls within a baseline so that they align with the mission of the organization.

Question 575

575. In 2012, the committee overseeing the development of SHA-3 made what announcement?

Answer 575

In 2012, the federal government design committee announced that the selection of the Keccak algorithm as the SHA-3 standard. However as of mid-2015, the SHA-3 standard remains in draft form and some technical details still require finalization.

Question 576

576. What is POODLE?

Answer 576

In 2014, an attack known as the Padding Oracle On Downgraded Legacy Encryption (POODLE) demonstrated a significant flaw in the SSL 3.0 fallback mechanism of TLS> In an effort to remediate this vulnerability, many organizations completely dropped SSL support and now rely solely on TLS security.

Question 577

577. What is DRM?

Answer 577

Digital Rights Management (DRM) software uses encryption to enforce copyright restrictions on digital media.

Question 578

578. What is a cryptographic salt and what is it used for?

Answer 578

The cryptographic salt is a random value that is added to the end of the password before the operating system hashes the password. The salt is then stored in the password file along with the hash. It is used to help combat the use of brute-force attacks, including those aided by dictionaries and rainbow tables.

Question 579

579. What is transitive trust?

Answer 579

Transitive trust is the concept that if A trusts B and B trusts C, then A inherits trust of C through the transitive property, which works like it would in a mathematical equation: If A=B, and B=C, Then A=C. In this example, when A requests data from B, then B requests data from C, the data that A receives is essentially from C. Transitive trust is a serious security concern because it may enable bypassing of restrictions or limitations between A and C.

Question 580

580. What is the purpose of memory protection?

Answer 580

Memory protection is used to prevent an active process from interacting with an area of memory that was not specifically assigned or allocated to it. Memory protection is a core security component that must be designed and implemented into an operating system. It must e enforced regardless of the programs executing in the system. Otherwise instability, violation of integrity, denial of service, and disclosure are likely results.

Question 581

581. What is flash memory?

Answer 581

Flash memory is a derivative concept from EEPROM. It is a nonvolatile form of storage media that can be electronically erased and rewritten. The primary difference between EEPROM and flash memory is that EEPROM must be fully erased to be rewritten, while flash memory can be erased and written in blocks or pages.

Question 582

582. What is UEFI?

Answer 582

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a more advanced interface (than BIOS) between hardware and the operating system, which maintains support for legacy BIOS services.

Question 583

583. What is a local cache?

Answer 583

A local cache is anything that is temporarily stored on the client for future reuse. There are many local caches on a typical client, including ARP cache, DNS cache, and Internet files cache.

Question 584

584. What are two forms of ARP poisoning?

Answer 584

ARP cache poisoning is caused by an attack responding to ARP broadcast queries in order to send back falsified replies. A second form of ARP cache poisoning is to create static ARP entries.

Question 585

585. What are five examples of DNS poisoning?

Answer 585

HOSTS poisoning, authorized DNS server attack, caching DNS server attack, changing a DNS server address, and DNS query spoofing

Question 586

586. What is data analytics?

Answer 586

Data analytics is the science of raw data examination with the focus of extracting useful information out of the bulk information set. The results of data analytics could focus on important outliers or exceptions to normal or standard items, a summary of all data items, or some focused extraction and organization of interesting information.

Question 587

587. What is big data?

Answer 587

Big data refers to collections of data that have become so large that traditional means of analysis or processing are ineffective, inefficient, and insufficient. Big data involves numerous difficult challenges, including collection, storage, analysis, mining, transfer, distribution, and results presentation.

Question 588

588.What are parallel data systems?

Answer 588

Parallel data systems or parallel computing is a computation system design to perform numerous calculations simultaneously. But parallel data systems often go far beyond basic multiprocessing capabilities. They often include the concept of dividing up a large task into smaller elements, then distributing each subelement to a different processing subsystem for parallel computation. This implementation is based on the idea that some problems can be solved efficiently if they are broken into smaller tasks that can be worked on concurrently.

Question 589

589. What is an ICS?

Answer 589

An Industrial Control System (ICS) is a form of computer-management device that controls industrial processes and machines. ICSs are used across a wide range of industries, including manufacturing, fabrication, electricity generation and distribution, water distribution, sewage processing, and oil refining.

Question 590

590. What are three forms of ICS?

Answer 590

There are several forms of ICS, including Distributed Control Systems (DCS), Programmable Logic Controllers (PLC), and Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA).

Question 591

591. Where are DCS systems used and why?

Answer 591

Distributed Control Systems (DCS) units are typically found in industrial process plans where the need to gather data and implement control over a large-scale environment from a single location is essential. An important aspect of DCS is the controlling elements are distributed across the monitored environment, such as a manufacturing floor or a production line, while the centralized monitoring location sends commands out of those localized controllers while gathering status and performance data.

Question 592

592. What is a PLC?

Answer 592

Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) units are effectively single-purpose or focused-purpose digital computers. They are typically deployed for the management and automation of various industrial electromechanical operations, such as controlling systems on an assembly line or a large-scale digital light display.

Question 593

593. What is SCADA?

Answer 593

Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems can operate as a standalone device, be networked together with other SCADA systems, or be networked with traditional IT systems. Most SCADA systems are designed with minimal human interfaces. Often, they use mechanical buttons and knobs or simple LCD screen interfaces.

Question 594

594. Name five generic terms that refer to mobile phones, tablets, and other similar devices.

Answer 594

A device owned by an individual can be referenced using any of these terms: Portable device, mobile device, Personal Mobile Device (PMD), Personal Electronic Device or Portable Electronic Device (PED), and Personally Owned Device (POD).

Question 595

595. What is Android (the OS)?

Answer 595

Android is a mobile device OS based on Linux, which was acquired by Google in 2005. The Android source code is made open source through the Apache license, but most devices also include proprietary software. Although it’s mostly intended for use on phones and tablets, Android is being used on a wide range of devices, including televisions, game consoles, digital cameras, microwaves, watches, e-readers, cordless phones, and ski goggles.

Question 596

596. What is iOS?

Answer 596

iOS is the mobile device OS from Apple that is available on the iPhone, iPad, iPod, and Apple TV. iOS isn’t licensed for use on any non-Apple hardware. Thus, Apple is in full control of the features and capabilities of iOS.

Question 597

597. What is remote wiping?

Answer 597

Remote wipe lets you delete all data and possibly even configuration settings from a device remotely. The wipe process can be triggered over mobile phone service or sometimes over any internet connection.

Question 598

598. What is storage segmentation on a mobile device?

Answer 598

Storage segmentation is used to artificially compartmentalize various types or values of data on a storage medium. On a mobile device, the device manufacturer and/or the service provider may use storage segmentation to isolate the device’s OS and preinstalled apps from user-installed apps and user data.

Question 599

599. What is MDM?

Answer 599

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a software solution to the challenging task of managing the myriad of mobile devices that employees use to access company resources. The goals of MDM are to improve security, provide monitoring, enable remote management, and support troubleshooting. Many MDM solutions support a wide range of devices and can operate across many service providers. You can use MDM to push or remove apps, manage data, and enforce configuration settings both over the air (across a carrier network) and over Wi-Fi connections.

Question 600

600. What is credential management?

Answer 600

The storage of credentials in a central location is referred to as credential management. Given the wide range of Internet sites and services, each with its own particular login requirements, it can be a burden to use unique names and passwords. Credential management solutions offer a means to securely store a plethora of credential sets.

Question 601

601. What is geo-tagging?

Answer 601

Mobile devices with GPS support and enable the embedding of geographical location (geo-tagging) in the form of latitude and longitude as well as date/time information on photos taken with these devices.

Question 602

602. What is application whitelisting?

Answer 602

Application whitelisting is a security option that prohibits unauthorized software from being able to execute. Whitelisting is also know as deny by default or implicit deny. In application security, whitelisting prevents any and all software, including malware, from executing unless it’s on the preapproved exception list: the whitelist.

Question 603

603. What is BYOD?

Answer 603

Bring-Your-Own-Device (BYOD) is a policy that allows employees to bring their own personal mobile devices to work and use those devices to connect to (or through) the company network to business resources and/or the internet. Although BYOD may improve employee morale and job satisfaction, it increases security risk to the organization.

Question 604

604. What is an embedded system?

Answer 604

An embedded system is a computer implemented as part of a larger system. The embedded system is typically designed around a limited set of specific functions in relation to the larger product of which it’s a component. It may consist of the same components found in a typical computer system, or it may be a microcontroller (an integrated chip with on-board memory and peripheral ports). Examples of embedded systems include network-attached printers, smart TVs, HVAC controls, smart appliances, smart thermostats, Ford SYNC (a Microsoft embedded system in vehicles), and medical devices.

Question 605

605. What is a static system?

Answer 605

A static system or static environment is a set of conditions, events, and surroundings that don’t change. In theory, once understood, a static environment doesn’t offer new or surprising elements. A static IT environment is any system that is intended to remain unchanged y users and administrators. The goal is to prevent or at least reduce the possibility of a user implementing change that could result in reduced security or functional operation.

Question 606

606. What is a cyber-physical system?

Answer 606

Cyber-physical system is a term used to refer to devices that offer a computational means to control something in the physical world. In the past these might have been referred to as embedded systems, but the category of cyber-physical seems to focus more on the physical world results rather than the computational aspects.

Question 607

607. What is IoT?

Answer 607

Internet of Things (IoT) is the collection of devices that can communicate over the internet with each other or with a control console in order to affect and monitor the real world. IoT devices might be labeled as smart devices or smart home equipment.

Question 608

608. What is DNP3?

Answer 608

DNP3 (Distributed Network Protocol) is a multilayer protocol primarily used in the electric and water utility and management industries. It is used to support communications between data acquisition systems and the system control equipment. DNP3 is an open and public standard. DNP3 is a multilayer protocol that functions similarly to TCP/IP, in that it has link, transport, and transportation layers.

Question 609

609. What are converged protocols?

Answer 609

Converged protocols are the merging of specialty or proprietary protocols with standard protocols, such as those from the TCP/IP suite. The primary benefit of converged protocols is the ability to use existing TCP/IP supporting network infrastructure to host special or proprietary services without the need for unique deployments of alternate networking hardware. Common examples of converged protocols include FCoE, MPLS, iSCSI, and VOIP.

Question 610

610. What is FCoE?

Answer 610

Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) can be used to support Fibre Channel communications over the existing network infrastructure. FCoE is used to encapsulate Fibre Channel communications over Ethernet networks. It typically requires 10 Gbps Ethernet in order to support the Fibre Channel protocol.

Question 611

611. What is MPLS?

Answer 611

MultiProtocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a high-throughput, high-performance network technology that directs data across a network based on short path labels rather than longer network addresses.

Question 612

612. What is iSCSI?

Answer 612

Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) is a networking storage standard based on IP. This technology can be used to enable location-independent file storage, transmission, and retrieval over LAN, WAN, or public Internet connections. iSCSI is often viewed as a low-cost alternate to Fibre Channel.

Question 613

613. What is VoIP?

Answer 613

Voice over IP (VoIP) is a tunneling mechanism used to transport voice and/or data over a TCP/IP network. VoIP has the potential to replace or supplant PSTN because it’s often less expensive and offers a wider variety of options and features.

Question 614

614. What is SDN?

Answer 614

Software-Defined Network (SDN) is a unique approach to network operation, design, and management. SDN aims at separating the infrastructure layer (i.e., hardware and hardware-based settings) from the control layer (i.e., network services of data transmission management). Furthermore, this also removes the traditional networking concepts of IP addressing, subnets, routing, and so on from needing to be programmed into or be deciphered by hosted applications.

Question 615

615. What is a captive portal?

Answer 615

A captive portal is an authentication technique that redirects a newly connected wireless web client to a portal access control page. The portal page may require the user to input payment information, provide logon credentials, or input an access code.

Question 616

616. What is a site survey?

Answer 616

A site survey is a formal assessment of wireless signal strength, quality, and interference using a RF signal detector. A site survey is performed by placing a wireless base station in a desired location and then collecting signal measurements from the area. The signal measurements are overlaid onto a blueprint of the building to determine whether sufficient signal is present where needed, while minimizing signals outside the desired location.

Question 617

617. What is CDN?

Answer 617

A Content-Distribution Network (CDN) or Content Delivery Network is a collection of resource services deployed in numerous data centers across the Internet in order to provide low-latency, high-performance, high-availability of the hosted content.

Question 618

618. What is port isolation or private ports in relation to VLANs?

Answer 618

These are private VLANs that are configured to use a dedicated or reserved uplink port. The members of a private VLAN or a port isolated VLAN can only interact with each other and over the predetermined exit port or uplink port. A common implementation of port isolation occurs in hotels.

Question 619

619. What is guest OS?

Answer 619

Virtualization technology is used to host one or more operating systems within the memory of a single host computer. This mechanism allows virtually any OS to operate on any hardware. Such an OS is also known as a guest operating system. From the perspective that ther is an original or host OS installed directly on the computer hardware, the additional OSes hosted by the hypervisor system are guests.

Question 620

620. What is OAuth?

Answer 620

OAuth is an open SSO standard designed to work with HTTP, and it allows users to log on with one account. For example, users can log onto their Google account and use the same account to access Facebook and Twitter pages.

Question 621

621. What is OpenID?

Answer 621

OpenID is also an open SSO standard but it is maintained by the OpenID Foundation rather than as an IETF RFC standard. OpenID can be used in conjunction with OAuth or on its own.

Question 622

622. What is IDaaS?

Answer 622

Identity as a Service, or Identity and Access as a Service (IDaaS), is a third-party service that provides identity and access management. IDaas effectively provides SSO for the cloud and is especially useful when internal clients access cloud-based Software as a Service (SaaS) applications.

Question 623

623. What is ABAC?

Answer 623

An advanced implementation of a rule-based Access Control (Rule-BAC) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) model. ABAC models use policies that include multiple attributes for rules. Many software-defined networking applications use ABAC models.

Question 624

624. What is a security test for?

Answer 624

Security tests verify that a control is functioning properly. These test include automated scans, tool-assisted penetration tests, and manual attempts to undermine security.

Question 625

625. What is a security assessment?

Answer 625

Security assessments are comprehensive reviews of the security of a system, application, or other tested environment. During a security assessment, a trained information security professional performs a risk assessment that identifies vulnerabilities in the tested environment that may allow a compromise and makes recommendations for remediation as needed.

Question 626

626. What is a security audit?

Answer 626

Security audits use many of the same techniques followed during security assessments but must be performed by independent auditors.

Question 627

627. What are vulnerability scans?

Answer 627

Vulnerability scans automatically probe systems, applications, and networks looking for weaknesses that may be exploited by an attacker. The scanning tools used in these tests provide quick, point-and-click tests that perform otherwise tedious tasks without requiring manual intervention.

Question 628

628. What is nmap?

Answer 628

The most common tool used for network discovery scanning is an open source tool called nmap. Originally released in 1997, nmap is remarkably still maintained and in general use today. It remains one of the most popular network security tools, and almost every security professional either uses nmap regularly or used it at some point in their career.

Question 629

629. What are network vulnerability scans?

Answer 629

Network vulnerability scans go deeper than discovery scans. They don’t stop with detecting open ports but continue on to actually probe a targeted system or network for the presence of known vulnerabilities. These tools contain databases of thousands of known vulnerabilities along with tests they can perform to identify whether a system is susceptible to each vulnerability in the system’s database.

Question 630

630. What is a false positive?

Answer 630

When the scanner tests a system for vulnerabilities, it uses the tests in its database to determine whether a system may contain the vulnerability. In some cases, the scanner may not have enough information to conclusively determine that a vulnerability exists and it reports a vulnerability when there really is no problem. This situation is known as a false positive report and is sometimes seen as a nuisance to system administrators.

Question 631

631. What is a false negative?

Answer 631

Far more dangerous than a false positive is when the vulnerability scanner misses a vulnerability and fails to alert the administrator to the presence of a dangerous situation. This error is known as a false negative report.

Question 632

632. What are web vulnerability scanners?

Answer 632

Web vulnerability scanners are special-purpose tools that scour web applications for known vulnerabilities. They play an important role in any security testing program because they may discover flaws not visible to network vulnerability scanners. When an administrator runs a web application scan, the tool probes the web application using automated techniques that manipulate inputs and other parameters to identify web vulnerabilities.

Question 633

633. What is a penetration test?

Answer 633

The penetration test goes beyond vulnerability testing techniques because it actually attempts to exploit systems. Security professionals performing penetration tests actually try to defeat security controls and break into a targeted system or application to demonstrate the flaw.

Question 634

634. What is Nessus?

Answer 634

An example of a vulnerability scanner.

Question 635

635. What is Metasploit?

Answer 635

A penetration testing tool used to automatically execute exploits against targeted systems. Metasploit uses a scripting language to allow the automatic execution of common attacks, saving testers (and hackers!) quite a bit of time by eliminating many of the tedious, routine steps involved in executing an attack.

Question 636

636. What is code review?

Answer 636

Code review is the foundation of software assessment programs. During a code review, also known as a peer review, developers other than the one who wrote the code review it for defects. Code reviews may result in approval of an application’s move into a production environment or they may send the code back to the original developer with recommendations for rework of issues detected during the review.

Question 637

637. The Fagan code review process has six steps. Name them.

Answer 637

Planning
Overview
Preparation
Inspection
Rework
Follow-up

Question 638

638. What is static testing?

Answer 638

Static testing evaluates the security of software without running it by analyzing either the source code or the compiled application. Static analysis usually involves the use of automated tools designed to detect common software flaws, such as buffer overflows.

Question 639

639. What is dynamic testing?

Answer 639

Dynamic testing evaluates the security of software in a runtime environment and is often the only option for organizations deploying applications written by someone else. In those cases, testers often do not have access to the underlying source code.

Question 640

640. What are synthetic transactions?

Answer 640

Dynamic testing may include the use of synthetic transactions to verify system performance. These are scripted transactions with known expected results. The testers run the synthetic transactions against the tested code and then compare the output of the transactions to the expected state.

Question 641

641. What is fuzz testing?

Answer 641

Fuzz testing is a specialized dynamic testing technique that provides many different types of input to software to stress its limits and find previously undetected flaws. Fuzz testing software supplies invalid input to the software, either randomly generated or specially crafted to trigger known software vulnerabilities.

Question 642

642. Name two types of fuzz testing.

Answer 642

Mutation (dumb) fuzzing takes previous input values from actual operation of the software and manipulates (or mutates) it to create fuzzed input. It might alter the characters of the content, append strings to the end of the content, or perform other data manipulation techniques.

Generational (intelligent) fuzzing develops data models and creates new fuzzed input based on a n understanding of the types of data used by the program.

Question 643

643. What is the zzuf tool used for?

Answer 643

The zzuf tool automates the process of mutation fuzzing by manipulating input according to user specifications.

Question 644

644. What is interface testing?

Answer 644

Interface testing assesses the performance of modules against the interface specifications to ensure that they will work together properly when all of the development efforts are complete.

Question 645

645. What is misuse case testing?

Answer 645

In some applications, there are clear examples of ways that software users might attempt to misuse the application. Software testers use a process known as misuse case testing or abuse case testing to evaluate the vulnerability of their software to these known risks.

Question 646

646. What is test coverage analysis?

Answer 646

While testing is an important part of any software development process, it is unfortunately impossible to completely test any piece of software. There are simply too many ways that software might malfunction or undergo attack. Software testing professionals often conduct a test coverage analysis to estimate the degree of testing conducted against the new software.

Question 647

647. Security managers should monitor key performance and risk indicators on an ongoing basis. Name some potential examples of metrics that should be monitored.

Answer 647

Number of open vulnerabilities

Time to resolve vulnerabilities

Number of compromised accounts

Number of software flaws detected in preproduction scanning

Repeat audit findings

User attempts to visit known malicious sites

Question 648

648. What is entitlement?

Answer 648

Entitlement refers to the amount of privileges granted to users, typically when first provisioning an account.

Question 649

649. What is segregation of duties?

Answer 649

Segregation of duties is similar to a separation of duties and responsibilities policy, but it also combines the principle of least privilege. The goal is to ensure that individuals do not have excessive system access that may result in a conflict of interest.

Question 650

650. What is two-person control?

Answer 650

Two-person control (often called the two-man rule) is similar to segregation of duties. It requires the approval of two individuals for critical tasks.

Question 651

651. What is versioning?

Answer 651

Versioning typically refers to version control used in software configuration management. A labeling or numbering system differentiates between different software sets and configurations across multiple machines or at different points in time on a single machine.

Question 652

652. What is CVE?

Answer 652

Vulnerabilities are commonly referred to using the Common Vulnerability and Exposures (CVE) dictionary. The CVE dictionary provides a standard convention used to identify vulnerabilities. MITRE maintains the CVE database, and you can view it at: www.cve.mitre.org.

Question 653

653. What is DDoS?

Answer 653

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems attack a single system at the same time.

Question 654

654. What is DRDoS?

Answer 654

A Distributed Reflective Denial of Service (DRDoS) attack is a variant of a DoS. It uses a reflected approach to an attack. In other words, it doesn’t attack the victim directly but instead manipulates traffic or a network service so that the attacks are reflected back to the victim from other sources.

Question 655

655. What is a ping flood?

Answer 655

A ping flood attack floods a victim with ping requests. This can be very effective when launched by zombies within a botnet as a DDoS attack. If tens of thousands of systems simultaneously send ping request to a system, the system can be overwhelmed trying to answer the ping requests.

Question 656

656. What is a drive-by download?

Answer 656

A drive-by download is code downloaded and installed on a user’s system without the user’s knowledge. Attackers modify the code on a web page, and when the user visits, the code downloads and installs malware on the user’s system without the user’s knowledge or consent.

Question 657

657. What is war dialing?

Answer 657

War dialing means using a modem to search for a system that accepts inbound connection attempts.

Question 658

658. What is a honeypot or a honeynet?

Answer 658

A honeypot is an individual computer created as a trap for intruders. A honeynet is two or more networked honeypots used together to simulate a network. They look and act like legitimate systems, but they do not host data of any real value for an attacker.

Question 659

659. What is a pseudo flaw?

Answer 659

A pseudo flaw is a false vulnerability or apparent loophole intentionally implanted in a system in an attempt to tempt attackers. They are often used on honeypot systems to emulate well-known operating system vulnerabilities.

Question 660

660. What is a padded cell?

Answer 660

A padded cell system is similar to a honeypot, but it performs intrusion isolation using a different approach. When an IDS detects an intruder, that intruder is automatically transferred to a padded cell.

Question 661

661. What is sandboxing?

Answer 661

Sandboxing provides a security boundary for applications and prevents the application from interacting with other applications. Anti-malware applications use sandboxing techniques to test unknown applications. If the application displays suspicious characteristics, the sandboxing technique prevents the application from infecting other applications or the operating system.

Question 662

662. Many organizations use a centralized application to automate monitoring of systems on a network. Name three terms that refer to these types of systems.

Answer 662

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM), Security Event Management (SEM), and Security Information Management (SIM)

Question 663

663. In relation to auditing and monitoring, what is sampling?

Answer 663

Sampling, or data extraction, is the process of extracting specific elements from a large collection of data to construct a meaningful representation or summary of the whole. In other words, sampling is a form of data reduction that allows someone to glean valuable information by looking at only a small sample of data in an audit trail.

Question 664

664. What is egress monitoring?

Answer 664

Egress monitoring refers to monitoring outgoing traffic to prevent data exfiltration, which is the unauthorized transfer of data. Some common methods used to prevent data exfiltration are data loss prevention techniques, looking for steganography attempts, and watermarking.

Question 665

665. What is DLP?

Answer 665

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Systems attempt to detect and block data exfiltration attempts. These systems have the capability of scanning data looking for keywords and data patterns.

Question 666

666. Name two common types of DLP.

Answer 666

A network-based DLP scans all outgoing data looking for specific data. An endpoint-based DLP can scan files stored on a system and files sent to external devices.

Question 667

667. What is steganography?

Answer 667

Steganography is the practice of embedding a message within a file.

Question 668

668. What is watermarking?

Answer 668

Watermarking is the practice of embedding an image or pattern in paper that isn’t readily perceivable. It is often used with currency to thwart counterfeiting attempts. Similarly, organizations often use watermarking in digital documents and other types of files.

Question 669

669. What is system resilience?

Answer 669

System resilience refers to the ability of a system to maintain an acceptable level of service during an adverse event. This could be a hardware fault managed by fault-tolerant components, or it could be an attack managed by other controls such as effective intrusion detection and prevention systems.

Question 670

670. What is a failover cluster?

Answer 670

A failover cluster includes two or more servers, and if one of the servers fails, another server in the cluster can take over its load in an automatic process called failover. Failover clusters can include multiple servers (not just two), and they can also provide fault tolerance for multiple services or applications.

Question 671

671. Define a fail-secure system.

Answer 671

A fail-secure system will default to a secure state in the event of a failure, blocking all access.

Question 672

672. Define a fail-open system.

Answer 672

A fail-open system will fail in an open state, granting all access.

Question 673

673. What use is QoS?

Answer 673

Quality of Service (QoS) controls protect the integrity of data networks under load. Many different factors contribute to the quality of the end user experience, and QoS attempts to manage all of those factors to create an experience that meets business requirements.

Question 674

674. What does an operational investigation focus on?

Answer 674

An operational investigation examines issues related to the organization’s computing infrastructure and has the primary goal of resolving operational issues.

Question 675

675. What does a criminal investigation focus on?

Answer 675

A criminal investigation, typically conducted by law enforcement personnel, investigates the alleged violation of criminal law. A criminal investigation may result in charging suspects with a crime and the prosecution of those charges in criminal court.

Question 676

676. What does a civil investigation focus on?

Answer 676

A civil investigation typically does not involve law enforcement but rather involves internal employees and outside consultants working on behalf of a legal team. It prepares the evidence necessary to present a case in civil court resolving a dispute between two parties.

Question 677

677. What is electronic discovery?

Answer 677

In legal proceedings, each side has a duty to preserve evidence related to the case and, through the discovery process, share information with their adversary in the proceedings. This discovery process applies to both paper records and electronic records, and the electronic discovery (or eDiscovery) process facilitates the processing of electronic information for disclosure.

Question 678

678. What is an APT?

Answer 678

Recent years marked the rise of sophisticated attackers known as Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs). These attackers are well funded and have advanced technical skills and resources. They act on behalf of a nation-state, organized crime, terrorist group, or other sponsor and wage highly effective attacks against a very focused target in order to maintain persistent unauthorized access or effect.

Question 679

679. What does a business attack focus on?

Answer 679

A business attack focuses on illegally obtaining an organization’s confidential information. This could be information that is critical to the operation of the organization, such as a secret recipe, or information that could damage the organization’s reputation if disclosed, such as personal information about its employees.

Question 680

680. What is industrial espionage?

Answer 680

The gathering of a competitor’s confidential information, also called industrial espionage, is not a new phenomenon. Businesses have used illegal means to acquire competitive information for many years. The temptation to steal a competitor’s trade secrets and the ease with which a savvy attacker can compromise some computer systems makes this type of attack attractive.

Question 681

681. What are financial attacks?

Answer 681

Financial attacks are carried out to unlawfully obtain money or services. They are the type of computer crime you most commonly hear about in the news. The goal of a financial attack could be to steal credit card numbers, increase the balance in a bank account, or place “free” long-distance telephone calls.

Question 682

682. What are terrorist attacks?

Answer 682

Terrorist attacks are a reality in modern society. Our increasing reliance on information systems makes them more and more attractive to terrorists. Such attacks differ from military and intelligence attacks. The purpose of a terrorist attack is to disrupt normal life and instill fear, whereas a military or intelligence attack is designed to extract secret information.

Question 683

683. What are grudge attacks?

Answer 683

Grudge attacks are attacks that are carried out to damage an organization or a person. The damage could be in the loss of information or information processing capabilities or harm to the organization or a person’s reputation.

Question 684

684. What are thrill attacks?

Answer 684

Thrill attacks are the attacks launched only for the fun of it.

Question 685

685. What are scanning attacks?

Answer 685

Scanning attacks are reconnaissance attacks that usually precede another, more serious attack.

Question 686

686. What is the purpose of assurance procedures?

Answer 686

To ensure that the security control mechanisms built into a new application properly implements the security policy throughout the life cycle of the system

Question 687

687. What is DevOps?

Answer 687

The word DevOps is a combination of Development and Operations, symbolizing that these functions must merge and cooperate to meet business requirements. The DevOps approach seeks to resolve these issues by bringing the three functions (software development, quality assurance, and technology operations) together in a single operational model.

Question 688

688. What is an API?

Answer 688

An Application Programming Interface (API) allows application developers to bypass traditional web pages and interact directly with the underlying service through function calls.

Question 689

689. What is a code repository?

Answer 689

It acts as a central storage point for developers to place their source code. It may also provide version control, bug tracking, web hosting, release management, and communications functions that support software development.