CISM

Question 1

How can a company MOST effectively minimize the risk of data loss resulting from employee-owned devices accessing the corporate email system?

A. Restricting access to the corporate email system from all employee-owned devices
B. Providing periodic security awareness training to employees
C. Encouraging employees to use personal email accounts for corporate communications
D. Implementing a mobile device management (MDM) solution

Answer 1

D. Implementing a mobile device management (MDM) solution

Explanation: The most effective method to minimize the risk of data loss from employee-owned devices accessing the corporate email system is to implement a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution. MDM solutions provide control and security measures for managing and securing mobile devices, helping to mitigate the associated risks.

Question 2

What constitutes the MOST important defense against spear phishing attacks among the options provided?

A. Advanced email filtering systems
B. Regular software updates and patching C. Multi-factor authentication for email accounts
D. Frequent information security training

Answer 2

D. Frequent information security training

Explanation: The most potent defense against spear phishing attacks is frequent information security training. Educating users about the risks and characteristics of phishing helps build awareness and resilience, reducing the likelihood of falling victim to such targeted attacks.

Question 3

What is the MAIN advantage of incorporating information security risk into enterprise risk management?

A. To focus exclusively on technology-related risks
B. To streamline security processes
C. To ensure compliance with industry standards
D. To understand the overall risk environment

Answer 3

D. To understand the overall risk environment

Explanation: The main advantage of integrating information security risk into enterprise risk management is to gain a comprehensive understanding of the overall risk environment. This approach allows for a holistic assessment of risks across the organization, enabling more informed decision-making and resource allocation.

Question 4

What would be the PRIMARY concern for senior management in a multinational organization aiming to ensure that its privacy program effectively addresses privacy risk across its operations?

A. Lack of a centralized privacy management framework
B. Insufficient employee training on privacy practices
C. Inconsistent application of privacy policies across departments
D. Limited use of advanced encryption technologies

Answer 4

A. Lack of a centralized privacy management framework

Explanation: The primary concern for senior management would be the lack of a centralized privacy management framework, as this could result in inconsistent and fragmented approaches to privacy risk management across various operations of the multinational organization.

Question 5

When overseeing outsourced services in a large organization, which contract clause holds the HIGHEST significance?

A. Inclusion of security requirements
B. Pricing and payment terms
C. Service level agreements (SLAs)
D. Termination clauses

Answer 5

A. Inclusion of security requirements

Explanation: The most significant contract clause for the information security manager is the inclusion of security requirements. This clause ensures that the outsourced services align with the organization’s security standards, policies, and expectations, mitigating potential risks associated with data and information security.

Question 6

Before entering into a service level agreement (SLA) for outsourcing mission-critical processes, what is the MOST crucial aspect to confirm?

A. Service provider’s reputation in the industry
B. Availability of round-the-clock customer support
C. Flexibility in modifying SLA terms as needed
D. Service provider is audited periodically by an independent audit firm

Answer 6

D. Service provider is audited periodically by an independent audit firm

Explanation: The most crucial aspect is to confirm that the service provider is audited periodically by an independent audit firm. This ensures transparency, accountability, and adherence to industry standards, providing assurance about the service provider’s reliability and security measures.

Question 7

The PRIMARY purpose for an information security manager to observe changes at the industry level in both business and IT is to:

A. Keep up with the latest technological advancements
B. Benchmark the organization against industry standards
C. Enhance collaboration with industry peers
D. Assess the effect of the changes on the organization’s risk environment

Answer 7

D. Assess the effect of the changes on the organization’s risk environment

Explanation: The main purpose for an information security manager to monitor changes at the industry level in both business and IT is to assess the impact of these changes on the organization’s risk environment. This proactive approach allows the manager to adapt security measures in response to evolving threats and challenges within the industry.

Question 8

What is the PRIMARY step to take when choosing performance metrics for reporting on the vendor risk management process?

A. Evaluate the historical performance of vendors
B. Identify key risk indicators associated with vendors
C. Align metrics with industry benchmarks
D. Determine the intended audience

Answer 8

D. Determine the intended audience

Explanation: The primary step when selecting performance metrics for reporting on the vendor risk management process is to determine the intended audience. Understanding the needs and expectations of the audience helps tailor the metrics to effectively communicate relevant information and address specific concerns related to vendor risk management.

Question 9

What is the MOST useful factor for management in assessing whether risks fall within an organization’s acceptable tolerance level?

A. Risk register
B. Heat map
C. Risk appetite statement
D. Risk assessment report

Answer 9

B. Heat map

Explanation: A heat map visually represents and categorizes risks based on their likelihood and impact. It provides a quick and intuitive overview of the risk landscape, allowing management to identify areas of concern and assess whether risks align with the organization’s acceptable tolerance level. The color-coded nature of a heat map makes it an effective tool for communicating risk information, aiding decision-makers in prioritizing and managing risks appropriately.

Question 10

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with selecting an external Security Operations Center (SOC). What is of utmost importance in this process?

A. The cost-effectiveness of the SOC services.
B. Due diligence of the controls implemented.
C. The SOC’s reputation in the industry.
D. Compliance with regulatory requirements.

Answer 10

B. Due diligence of the controls implemented.

Explanation: When choosing an external SOC, conducting due diligence on the controls they have implemented is crucial. This ensures that the SOC is equipped to effectively monitor, detect, and respond to security incidents, aligning with the organization’s needs and standards.

Question 11

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You need to minimize the risk of an attacker altering a message and producing a valid hash value when sending a hashed message. What is the best method to achieve this?

A. Increase the hash algorithm complexity
B. Apply a digital signature to the hash
C. Implement a secure communication channel
D. Use an encryption key along with the hash

Answer 11

D. Use of encryption key along with hash

Explanation: Incorporating an encryption key along with the hash adds an extra layer of security by ensuring that even if the hash is manipulated, the encryption key will protect the integrity of the message. This dual approach enhances the overall security of the communication.

Question 12

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You discover, through an internal audit, that critical patches were not implemented within the policy-established timeline without a valid reason. What is the most appropriate action to take?

A. Implement the critical patches immediately
B. Escalate the issue to senior management
C. Evaluate and understand the patch management process
D. Disregard the audit findings as they might be erroneous

Answer 12

C. Evaluate and understand the patch management process

Explanation: In response to the internal audit findings, the information security manager should take the most appropriate action by evaluating and understanding the patch management process. This involves identifying the root causes of the delays, addressing any inefficiencies, and implementing improvements to ensure timely and effective patch management in the future.

Question 13

What is the primary consideration when choosing an information security metric?

A. Ensure the metric is designed based on IT Strategy.
B. Select a metric that aligns with industry benchmarks.
C. Prioritize metrics that are easy to collect and report.
D. Opt for metrics that have a positive impact on employee morale.

Answer 13

A. Ensure the metric is designed based on IT Strategy.

Explanation: When choosing an information security metric, it is essential to ensure that the metric aligns with the overall IT strategy of the organization. This ensures that the metric is relevant and contributes to the strategic goals and objectives of the business.

Question 14

As an Information Security Manager, what should be your main concern when conducting a physical security assessment of a potential outsourced data center?

A. Proximity to the organization’s headquarters
B. Access control measures
C. Environmental risk to the data center D. Physical size of the data center

Answer 14

C. Environmental risk to the data center

Explanation: Assessing environmental risks to the data center, such as natural disasters or other environmental threats, is crucial to ensure the facility’s resilience and the protection of critical data and assets.

Question 15

You are an Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. In an organization where IT is integral to its business strategy and there is a substantial operational dependence on IT, the most effective demonstration of senior management commitment to security is: What should be the primary concern for an information security manager when performing a physical security assessment of a prospective outsourced data center?

A. Network infrastructure
B. Data encryption standards
C. Environmental risk to the data center D. Employee training programs

Answer 15

C. Environmental risk to the data center

Explanation: When conducting a physical security assessment of a potential outsourced data center, the primary concern for an information security manager should be the environmental risks that could affect the data center’s operations and the security of the stored information.

Question 16

What is the MOST effective method to ensure that an IT service provider adheres to the organization’s information security requirements?

A. Regularly review the service provider’s security policies.

B. Obtain a signed agreement from the service provider.
C. Conduct periodic internal assessments of the service provider’s practices.
D. Perform an independent audit of the service provider.

Answer 16

D. Perform an independent audit of the service provider.

Explanation: The most effective way to ensure that an IT service provider complies with an organization’s information security requirements is to conduct an independent audit. This allows for an objective and thorough evaluation of the service provider’s security measures.

Question 17

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You want to implement a measure that is MOST efficient in preventing internal users from altering sensitive data. What should you choose?

A. Role-based access control mechanism
B. Least privilege principle
C. Need-based access control mechanism
D. Mandatory access control mechanism

Answer 17

C. Need-based access control mechanism

Explanation: Implementing a need-based access control mechanism ensures that users are granted access only to the data and resources necessary for their specific job functions. This approach minimizes the risk of unauthorized alterations to sensitive data.

Question 18

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are conducting the annual security assessment of the organization’s servers when you discover that the file server of the customer service team, which contains sensitive customer information, is accessible to all user IDs within the organization. What initial action should you take?

A. Discuss with the information owner and determine the impact
B. Immediately restrict access to the file server
C. Notify the customer service team about the security vulnerability
D. Conduct a comprehensive review of all server access permissions

Answer 18

A. Discuss with the information owner and determine the impact

Explanation: In addressing the situation, the first step should be to engage with the information owner to understand the potential impact of the security vulnerability. This collaborative discussion is crucial for assessing the severity of the issue.

Question 19

What is the MOST crucial element to incorporate into a contract with a critical service provider to enhance alignment with the organization’s information security program?

A. Right-to-audit clause
B. Service level agreements
C. Financial penalties for breaches
D. Non-disclosure agreements

Answer 19

A. Right-to-audit clause

Explanation: Including a right-to-audit clause in the contract allows the organization to periodically assess and ensure that the critical service provider complies with the established information security program.

Question 20

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. What would be the MOST efficient approach when rationalizing the expenses associated with implementing security measures for an already established web application?

A. Technical feasibility analysis
B. Risk assessment report
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. A business case

Answer 20

D. A business case

Explanation: Developing a business case is the most effective approach for justifying the costs of adding security controls to an existing web application. It provides a comprehensive evaluation, considering not only technical feasibility and risks but also demonstrating the financial benefits.

Question 21

What role does an Information Security Manager play in incident response?

A. Leading the technical analysis of security incidents
B. Coordinating communication between technical teams and management
C. Developing policies and procedures for incident management
D. Solely responsible for updating antivirus software

Answer 21

C. Developing policies and procedures for incident management

Explanation: An Information Security Manager plays a key role in developing policies and procedures for incident management, coordinating the organization’s response to incidents.

Question 22

How does segregation of duties contribute to information security?

A. Reducing the workload of IT staff
B. Allowing all users full access to systems for efficiency
C. Preventing a single point of failure in the security process
D. Centralizing IT decision-making processes

Answer 22

C. Preventing a single point of failure in the security process

Explanation: Segregation of duties contributes to information security by preventing a single point of failure in the security process, ensuring that no individual has control over all aspects of any critical security function.

Question 23

When preparing for a disaster recovery test, what is the utmost important factor for you to consider?

A. Speed of recovery processes
B. Participation of all employees in the test
C. Availability of the production system during test procedures
D. Documentation of test results

Answer 23

C. Availability of the production system during test procedures

Explanation: The most crucial consideration is ensuring the availability of the production system during the disaster recovery test procedures. This helps assess the effectiveness of the recovery processes without causing disruptions to the actual business operations.

Question 24

What is the MAIN objective of performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A. Assessing financial losses in case of a security breach
B. Determining critical business processes
C. Identifying potential security vulnerabilities
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of security controls

Answer 24

B. Determining critical business processes

Explanation: The primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to identify and prioritize critical business processes within an organization.

Question 25

What is the PRIMARY justification for conducting security risk assessments regularly across an organization? A. Meeting compliance requirements B. Identifying vulnerabilities in the IT infrastructure C. Evaluating the effectiveness of security controls D. Change in the threat environment

Answer 25

D. Change in the threat environment Explanation: The primary reason for conducting security risk assessments regularly is to adapt to changes in the threat environment, ensuring that the organization remains vigilant and responsive to evolving security risks.

Question 26

After a recent audit reveals that security controls mandated by the organization's policies have not been implemented for a specific application, what should you do IMMEDIATELY to rectify this matter? A. Determine the reason for non-compliance B. Enforce disciplinary actions against responsible individuals C. Implement additional security controls D. Escalate the issue to senior management

Answer 26

A. Determine the reason for non-compliance Explanation: The immediate action should be to investigate and determine the reason for non-compliance. Understanding the root cause will enable the information security manager to address the issue effectively.

Question 27

What is the MAIN responsibility of a data custodian among the following? A. Data classification and labeling B. Data collection and analysis C. Data access authorization D. To safeguard the information

Answer 27

D. To safeguard the information Explanation: The primary responsibility of a data custodian is to safeguard the information, ensuring its confidentiality, integrity, and availability according to established security policies and procedures.

Question 28

What is the MOST EFFECTIVE method to guarantee sufficient security for a corporate network from external attacks? A. Regularly update antivirus software on all devices B. Implement strict firewall rules and configurations C. Enforce strong password policies for network access D. Conduct penetration testing at periodic intervals

Answer 28

D. Conduct penetration testing at periodic intervals Explanation: The most effective method to ensure sufficient security for a corporate network from external attacks is to conduct penetration testing at periodic intervals. This proactive approach helps identify and address vulnerabilities before malicious actors can exploit them.

Question 29

What is the first step for a security manager when implementing a security strategy? A. Deploying security tools B. Evaluating IT architecture and portfolio C. Training the employees D. Implementing security policies

Answer 29

B. Evaluating IT architecture and portfolio Explanation: First step involves understanding and evaluating IT architecture and portfolio.

Question 30

How is risk analysis typically conducted? A. Through monitoring and controlling B. By identifying and responding to risks C. By quantifying or qualifying the level of risk D. Through evaluation and mitigation planning,

Answer 30

C. By quantifying or qualifying the level of risk Explanation: Risk analysis involves determining the level of risk either by quantifying it (numerical, percentage, dollar amount, etc.) or by qualifying it (low, medium, high, etc.), which aids in understanding the magnitude of risks.

Question 31

Which aspect of the message does a digital signature primarily ensure? A. Confidentiality B. Availability C. Integrity D. Authenticity

Answer 31

C. Integrity Explanation: A digital signature primarily ensures the integrity of the message, ensuring that it has not been altered or tampered with during transmission.

Question 32

What is the MAIN focus of security audit reviews? A. Controls are effective in meeting the control objectives B. Identifying specific individuals responsible for security lapses C. Evaluating the overall IT infrastructure D. Identifying vulnerabilities in the network

Answer 32

A. Controls are effective in meeting the control objectives Explanation: The primary focus of security audit reviews should be to ensure that controls are effective in meeting the specified control objectives.

Question 33

What is the MOST suitable approach to safeguard a password used to access a confidential file? A. Memorizing the password and avoiding written records B. Storing the password in an encrypted file on the same computer C. Using a different channel for password sharing D. Sharing the password verbally with trusted colleagues

Answer 33

C. Using a different channel for password sharing Explanation: The most suitable approach is to use a different channel for password sharing, such as a secure communication platform, to minimize the risk of unauthorized access and enhance the confidentiality of the password.

Question 34

What is the MOST efficient method of access control to deter users from sharing files with unauthorized individuals? A. Mandatory access control B. Role-based access control C. Discretionary access control D. Rule-based access control

Answer 34

A. Mandatory access control Explanation: Mandatory access control is the most efficient method for deterring users from sharing files with unauthorized individuals. It ensures strict enforcement of access policies based on predefined rules.

Question 35

What is a built-in vulnerability of intrusion detection systems that rely on signatures? A. Limited coverage of network traffic B. Dependency on real-time monitoring C. Inability to adapt to evolving threats D. Not able to identify new attacks

Answer 35

D. Not able to identify new attacks Explanation: The inherent weakness of signature-based intrusion detection systems is their inability to identify new attacks that do not match known signatures.

Question 36

Who is the MOST suitable person to verify that new vulnerabilities have not been introduced into an existing application during the change management process? A. Network administrators B. System users C. Security analysts D. Change management team

Answer 36

B. System users Explanation: System users are the most suitable individuals to verify that new vulnerabilities have not been introduced into an existing application during the change management process. They are directly impacted by changes and can provide valuable insights.

Question 37

What poses the MOST SIGNIFICANT threat to information security among the following options? A. Unauthorized access attempts B. Use of outdated security protocols C. Lack of employee awareness training D. Delay in investigating security incidents

Answer 37

D. Delay in investigating security incidents Explanation: The most significant threat to information security is a delay in investigating security incidents. Timely response and investigation are crucial for identifying and mitigating the impact of security breaches.

Question 38

What is the MOST EFFECTIVE way to verify the sufficiency of all firewall rules and router configuration settings? A. Conduct configuration review of network devices at periodic intervals B. Monitor network traffic continuously C. Test the firewall rules during a security incident D. Rely on automated vulnerability scans

Answer 38

A. Conduct configuration review of network devices at periodic intervals Explanation: The most effective way is to conduct a configuration review of network devices at periodic intervals. This proactive approach ensures that firewall rules and router configurations align with security policies.

Question 39

What is the PRIMARY limitation of sending password-protected zip files over the Internet? A. Often require additional software for decryption B. May be intercepted by malicious actors C. May be filtered by firewall and quarantined D. Could lead to accidental exposure of passwords

Answer 39

C. May be filtered by firewall and quarantined Explanation: The primary limitation is that password-protected zip files may be filtered by firewalls and quarantined, leading to potential delivery issues and delays in transmission.

Question 40

What is the MOST suitable change management process for managing emergency program changes? A. A thorough documentation process before implementing the change B. No documentation required for emergency changes C. Documentation can be compiled after change implementation D. The change should be implemented without any formal process,

Answer 40

C. Documentation can be compiled after change implementation Explanation: In emergency situations, where immediate action is necessary, documentation can be compiled after the change implementation to ensure a swift response while still capturing essential information.

Question 41

What is the MAIN objective of the change control process? A. Change prioritization B. Change scheduling C. Change authorization D. Change documentation

Answer 41

C. Change authorization Explanation: The primary focus of the change control process is to ensure that modifications are authorized before implementation.

Question 42

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You have been tasked with establishing a change control process. What is the initial step you should take? A. Draft the change control policy. B. Understand the stakeholder's requirements. C. Implement change management tools. D. Identify potential risks.

Answer 42

B. Understand the stakeholder's requirements. Explanation: Before formulating a change control process, it is crucial to comprehend the needs and expectations of the stakeholders involved.

Question 43

What would be the MOST effective method for an information security manager to ensure that all access to a critical device, initially delivered with a single user and password meant to be shared among multiple users, is appropriately authorized? A. Control the access through a separate device that requires unique authentication credentials. B. Implement a single sign-on (SSO) mechanism for shared access. C. Regularly change the shared user credentials to enhance security. D. Monitor access logs periodically to identify unauthorized users.

Answer 43

A. Control the access through a separate device that requires unique authentication credentials. Explanation: Controlling access through a separate device with unique authentication credentials enhances security by ensuring that each user has their own distinct credentials.

Question 44

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You need to negotiate a critical process with an outsourced service provider. What is the MAIN process you should prioritize in the negotiation? A. Vendor performance metrics B. Incident response procedures C. Right to audit clause D. Service level agreement (SLA)

Answer 44

C. Right to audit clause Explanation: The right to audit clause is crucial for maintaining transparency and oversight of the outsourced service provider's security practices.

Question 45

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with preventing physical access tailgating or piggybacking. What is the MOST effective resource for mitigating this risk? A. Biometric authentication systems B. Security guards at entry points C. Security-related training D. Proximity card readers

Answer 45

C. Security-related training Explanation: Security-related training is essential for educating individuals about the importance of not allowing unauthorized individuals to tailgate or piggyback into secure areas.

Question 46

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You want to ensure the functionality and accuracy of all information security procedures. Who should actively participate in their creation? A. External auditors B. IT support team C. Business operations team D. Human resources department

Answer 46

C. Business operations team Explanation: Active participation from the business operations team is crucial to ensure that information security procedures align with business processes and requirements.

Question 47

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. What needs to be established before initiating a black box penetration test? A. List of identified vulnerabilities B. Detailed information on the internal network structure C. Sign-off from the testing team on testing scope and objectives D. Permission from senior management for conducting the test

Answer 47

C. Sign-off from the testing team on testing scope and objectives Explanation: Obtaining a sign-off from the testing team ensures that everyone is aligned on what is in scope for the test and what the testing goals are.

Question 48

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with drafting a question for the CISM exam: The primary source of input for the configuration management plan should come from: A. End-users B. Network devices C. Processing units D. Security appliances

Answer 48

C. Processing units Explanation: The configuration management plan should primarily consider the processing units, which encompass servers, workstations, and other computing devices central to the organization's IT infrastructure.

Question 49

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You need to determine the individual responsible for raising awareness about the need for adequate funding for risk action plans. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE person for this responsibility? A. Chief Financial Officer (CFO) B. Chief Executive Officer (CEO) C. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) D. Risk Management Officer (RMO)

Answer 49

C. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) Explanation: The CISO is typically responsible for advocating and raising awareness about the importance of securing sufficient funds for risk action plans.

Question 50

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are evaluating adherence to the 'separation of duties' principle. Which of the following individuals having update rights to the database access control list (ACL) would compromise this principle? A. Database Administrator B. System Administrator C. Application Programmer D. Security Administrator

Answer 50

C. Application Programmer Explanation: Granting update rights to the database ACL to an application programmer may introduce a conflict of interest and undermine the 'separation of duties' principle.

Question 51

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are seeking the most effective strategy to handle the shortage of staff in the security team while ensuring the internal retention of capability. What is the most effective approach to address the shortage of staff in the security team while maintaining the capability internally? A. Outsource security functions to a third-party service provider. B. Hire additional security personnel externally. C. Form a security team using skilled employees from different departments of the organization. D. Invest in advanced automation tools to compensate for the staff shortage.

Answer 51

C. Form a security team using skilled employees from different departments of the organization. Explanation: Creating a security team by leveraging skilled employees from various departments internally ensures a seamless integration of expertise within the organization.

Question 52

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are confronted with issues in various business units' systems following the deployment of multiple security patches. The INITIAL action to address this problem would be to: A. Identify issues and use rollback procedures, if necessary. B. Communicate the issues to the affected business units. C. Implement additional patches to resolve the problems. D. Investigate the cause of the issues and report to senior management.

Answer 52

A. Identify issues and use rollback procedures, if necessary. Explanation: The primary step in addressing system issues after patch deployment is to identify the problems and, if needed, utilize rollback procedures.

Question 53

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are assessing a business application developed by a third party and want to test for the presence of back doors. What is the most effective method for testing the presence of back doors in this scenario? A. System log analysis B. Application code review C. Penetration testing D. User access monitoring,

Answer 53

B. Application code review Explanation: Conducting an application code review is the most effective method for assessing the presence of back doors in a business application developed by a third party.

Question 54

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are addressing concerns about preventing unauthorized individuals from tailgating or piggybacking through secured entrances. What is the MOST effective method for preventing an unauthorized individual from trailing an authorized person through a secured entrance, also known as tailgating or piggybacking? A. Biometric authentication B. Security guards at the entrance C. Access control systems with turnstiles D. Frequent security awareness training

Answer 54

D. Frequent security awareness training Explanation: Frequent security awareness training is the most effective method for preventing tailgating or piggybacking incidents by raising awareness about security protocols.

Question 55

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. The organization is planning to engage an external service provider for hosting its corporate website. What is the foremost concern when the organization intends to contract with an external service provider for hosting its corporate website? A. The service provider's reputation in the industry. B. The cost-effectiveness of the hosting service. C. Information security requirements are included in the contract. D. The geographical location of the service provider's data centers.

Answer 55

C. Information security requirements are included in the contract. Explanation: The primary concern is to ensure that information security requirements are explicitly included in the contract with the external service provider.

Question 56

Which statement is true regarding the risk avoidance response option? A. It is the first choice in all risk management strategies. B. It involves taking no steps to reduce the risk but accepting it as is. C. It is considered the last choice when no other response is adequate. D. It typically involves sharing the risk with partners or through insurance.

Answer 56

C. It is considered the last choice when no other response is adequate. Explanation: Risk avoidance is often considered a last resort when other risk response strategies, such as mitigation, transfer, or acceptance, are not adequate or possible.

Question 57

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. There is a need to open a new port in a perimeter firewall, and you are considering the initial step. Before making any alterations, what should be the INITIAL step when there is a need to open a new port in a perimeter firewall? A. Evaluate the impact of the proposed change. B. Obtain approval from senior management. C. Consult with the IT department. D. Document the current firewall configuration.

Answer 57

A. Evaluate the impact of the proposed change. Explanation: The first step is to evaluate the impact of the proposed change to assess how the modification might affect the overall security posture, functionality, and performance of the network.

Question 58

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. The organization is considering outsourcing its customer relationship management (CRM) to a third-party service provider, and you are contemplating the initial step. Before outsourcing its customer relationship management (CRM) to a third-party service provider, what is the INITIAL step the organization should take? A. Negotiate contractual terms with the service provider. B. Conduct a risk assessment to determine the required controls. C. Establish communication channels with the third-party provider. D. Define the scope of CRM services to be outsourced.

Answer 58

B. Conduct a risk assessment to determine the required controls. Explanation: The initial step before outsourcing CRM is to conduct a risk assessment to evaluate potential risks and determine the necessary controls.

Question 59

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are considering methods to ensure robust password strength in the organization. What is the MOST suitable approach for ensuring robust password strength in a sizable organization? A. Enforce mandatory password changes every three months. B. Implement complex password requirements organization-wide. C. Conduct regular user training on creating strong passwords. D. Review the password parameters configured on each application.

Answer 59

D. Review the password parameters configured on each application. Explanation: Reviewing the password parameters configured on each application ensures consistency and alignment with security best practices across various systems.

Question 60

What is the primary purpose of encryption in information security? A. To speed up the transfer of data across networks B. To ensure that data is only readable by unauthorized users C. To ensure that data can only be read by authorized parties D. To make data recovery easier in case of data loss

Answer 60

C. To ensure that data can only be read by authorized parties Explanation: Encryption is used to secure data by making it unreadable to unauthorized users, ensuring that only those with the correct decryption key can access the information.

Question 61

Risk Capacity and Risk Appetite in an organization: A. Are interchangeable terms with the same meaning. B. Define the total risk an organization is exposed to. C. Risk capacity is always greater than risk appetite. D. Risk appetite is always greater than risk capacity.

Answer 61

C. Risk capacity is always greater than risk appetite. Explanation: Risk capacity represents the absolute maximum level of risk an organization can sustain, which is always set above the risk appetite to ensure sustainability.

Question 62

What does risk avoidance involve in the context of risk management? A. Reducing the probability or impact of the risk B. Accepting the risk as it aligns with the organization's risk appetite C. Transferring the risk to another party through insurance or contracts D. Avoiding activities or projects that cause the risk

Answer 62

D. Avoiding activities or projects that cause the risk Explanation: Risk avoidance involves not engaging in activities or projects that introduce unacceptable levels of risk, effectively eliminating the risk.

Question 63

Which type of test is the most cost-effective way to evaluate the adequacy of a recovery plan? A. Paper test/desk-based evaluation B. Preparedness test C. Full operational test D. Recovery site simulation

Answer 63

B. Preparedness test Explanation: A preparedness test involves simulating a system crash in a localized environment and is considered the most cost-effective way to evaluate a recovery plan.

Question 64

What is an essential factor for conducting successful disaster recovery testing at a third-party service provider? A. Data should not be erased from the third-party infrastructure after the test B. Recovery processes should be completed within predefined timelines C. The recovery plan should be tested in isolation from actual business operations D. All data and applications should have appropriate protection levels

Answer 64

D. All data and applications should have appropriate protection levels Explanation: Ensuring appropriate protection levels for data and applications at third-party service providers is crucial to prevent data breaches during testing.

Question 65

Which feature is commonly found in Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solutions? A. Automation and artificial intelligence B. Integration with traditional antivirus software C. Establishment of a historical audit trail of system/user behavior D. Network-level protection

Answer 65

C. Establishment of a historical audit trail of system/user behavior Explanation: EDR solutions commonly establish a historical audit trail of system and user behavior, enabling security analysts to analyze events later.

Question 66

What is the MAIN objective of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system? A. To archive historical security data. B. To enforce access control policies. C. To monitor network bandwidth usage. D. To identify emerging incidents.

Answer 66

D. To identify emerging incidents. Explanation: The main objective of a SIEM system is to identify emerging incidents by continuously monitoring and analyzing security events and data.

Question 67

What is the MOST compelling sign that there is a deficiency in senior management commitment to information security within an organization? A. Infrequent security awareness training sessions. B. Limited investment in the latest security technologies. C. Absence of a designated Chief Information Security Officer (CISO). D. Information security policy is not consistently applied.

Answer 67

D. Information security policy is not consistently applied. Explanation: A lack of consistent enforcement indicates a potential gap in leadership support, which is crucial for establishing a strong security culture.

Question 68

What is the PRIMARY result sought from the testing of incident response plans? A. Verification of the incident detection tools. B. Identification of potential vulnerabilities. C. Assessment of the incident severity. D. Response procedures are improvised.

Answer 68

D. Response procedures are improvised. Explanation: The primary result sought from testing incident response plans is that response procedures are improvised, allowing for adjustments and improvements.

Question 69

What is the MOST effective approach to secure funding from senior management for a security awareness program? A. Highlighting the latest cybersecurity trends. B. Demonstrating the capabilities of advanced security tools. C. Emphasizing the potential financial impact of security incidents. D. Showing that the information security policy is not consistently applied.

Answer 69

D. Showing that the information security policy is not consistently applied. Explanation: Highlighting areas where policy compliance is lacking emphasizes the need for increased awareness and training.

Question 70

What is the MOST effective way to enhance the comprehension of information security responsibilities among users throughout the organization? A. Conducting periodic security training sessions. B. Distributing informational brochures on security practices. C. Implementing technical controls to enforce security policies. D. Including security requirements in the acceptable usage policy.

Answer 70

D. Including security requirements in the acceptable usage policy. Explanation: Integrating security expectations into the acceptable usage policy provides clear guidelines and expectations related to information security.

Question 71

Which characteristic of the software would prevent unauthorized modifications to the source code? A. Integration with development tools B. Version tracking and change history C. Provide access to only authorized employees D. Support for multiple programming languages

Answer 71

C. Provide access to only authorized employees Explanation: Implementing strict access controls and allowing access only to authorized personnel helps prevent unauthorized modifications to the source code.

Question 72

What is the MOST effective measure to guard against phishing attempts within an organization? A. Conduct regular security awareness training B. Implement two-factor authentication C. Enforce strict password policies D. Implement email monitoring and filtering system

Answer 72

D. Implement email monitoring and filtering system Explanation: Deploying an email monitoring and filtering system is a proactive approach to identify and block phishing emails before they reach users' inboxes.

Question 73

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You need to assess cloud hosting models. Which cloud hosting model provides the client organization with the MOST administrative control over the environment? A. Software as a Service (SaaS) B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) C. Function as a Service (FaaS) D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Answer 73

D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Explanation: IaaS allows clients to have greater control over the infrastructure, including operating systems, applications, and networking.

Question 74

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are initiating performance measurement processes for information security. What is the FIRST step in achieving efficient performance measurement? A. Evaluate existing metrics B. Implement monitoring tools C. Establish benchmarking criteria D. Develop metrics

Answer 74

D. Develop metrics Explanation: Before embarking on performance measurement, the initial step is to create well-defined metrics that align with organizational goals and objectives.

Question 75

Why is it crucial to separate short-term plans from long-term plans in the information security roadmap? A. To ensure the effective implementation of lessons learned from short-term plans B. To maintain flexibility and adaptability in response to changing threats C. To allocate resources more efficiently across various time horizons D. To streamline communication and reporting to senior management

Answer 75

A. To ensure the effective implementation of lessons learned from short-term plans Explanation: Distinguishing short-term plans from long-term plans allows the organization to extract valuable insights and lessons learned from immediate actions.

Question 76

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You have learned that certain employees are engaging in discussions about confidential corporate matters on social media platforms. What is the most appropriate course of action? A. Implement frequent training on social media usage and monitor compliance. B. Immediately terminate the employees involved. C. Ignore the situation as long as it does not impact day-to-day operations. D. Restrict all employees from accessing social media platforms during work hours.

Answer 76

A. Implement frequent training on social media usage and monitor compliance. Explanation: Providing employees with training on the proper usage of social media and monitoring compliance helps ensure adherence to policies.

Question 77

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. Your organization is contemplating the acquisition of a competitor. What is the most appropriate action for you to assess the competitor's security stance? A. Rely on publicly available information about the competitor's security practices. B. Seek feedback from current employees of the competitor regarding their security awareness. C. Hire a third-party cybersecurity consultant for an external perspective on the competitor's security. D. Conduct a security audit of the target organization.

Answer 77

D. Conduct a security audit of the target organization. Explanation: Conducting a thorough security audit of the target organization allows for an in-depth examination of their security practices.

Question 78

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. What is the MOST efficient method for disseminating general information security responsibilities throughout the organization? A. Sending periodic email reminders about security practices. B. Publishing a comprehensive information security manual. C. Conducting occasional workshops on information security. D. Providing frequent awareness training.

Answer 78

D. Providing frequent awareness training. Explanation: Frequent awareness training ensures that employees receive regular, up-to-date information on security practices.

Question 79

Which of the subsequent metrics can be deemed as a precise indicator of the performance of an information security program? A. The number of security incidents reported. B. Meaningful metrics that support the decision-making process. C. Compliance with industry standards. D. The total budget allocated for information security.

Answer 79

B. Meaningful metrics that support the decision-making process. Explanation: Metrics should provide relevant and actionable insights that enable informed decisions and improvements to the security program.

Question 80

What is the PRIMARY justification for refraining from notifying specific users about an impending penetration test? A. To identify potential vulnerabilities before the users can take preventive measures. B. To ensure that the test accurately represents the organization's security posture. C. To determine the incident response capabilities. D. To prevent panic and maintain a normal operating environment.

Answer 80

C. To determine the incident response capabilities. Explanation: Not notifying users allows for a more realistic simulation of how the organization would respond to a potential security incident.

Question 81

Which of the following metrics will MOST EFFECTIVELY aid in evaluating the resilience of IT infrastructure security controls? A. Business impact due to incidents. B. Number of security incidents reported. C. Response time to security incidents. D. Compliance with industry standards.

Answer 81

A. Business impact due to incidents. Explanation: The business impact due to incidents provides insights into the actual consequences of security incidents on the IT infrastructure.

Question 82

What is the MOST effective method to establish accountability for information security across the entire organization? A. Conducting periodic security audits B. Implementing a strict access control policy C. Utilizing a balanced scorecard D. Information security policy

Answer 82

D. Information security policy Explanation: A well-defined and communicated policy establishes clear expectations, responsibilities, and guidelines for all personnel.

Question 83

What is the INITIAL task that the information security manager must undertake when a vulnerability is identified in the facilities offered by an IT service provider? A. Report the vulnerability to the organization's incident response team. B. Conduct an internal risk assessment. C. Verify the contractual responsibilities of the service provider. D. Implement immediate security controls.

Answer 83

C. Verify the contractual responsibilities of the service provider. Explanation: Verifying the contractual responsibilities ensures that the organization and the service provider adhere to agreed-upon terms.

Question 84

What is the MOST effective means to safeguard against the disclosure of data? A. Regular data backups. B. Encryption of sensitive information. C. Firewalls and intrusion detection systems. D. Two-factor authentication.

Answer 84

D. Two-factor authentication. Explanation: Two-factor authentication requires users to provide two forms of identification before gaining access, significantly enhancing protection.

Question 85

Regarding the transborder flow of technology-related items, legal concerns in the realm of information security are MOST frequently linked to: A. Intellectual property rights. B. Export control regulations. C. Encryption standards. D. Privacy-related data.

Answer 85

D. Privacy-related data. Explanation: Legal concerns in information security are most frequently associated with privacy-related data due to data privacy laws and cross-border data transfer regulations.

Question 86

Which attack method relies on exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS servers to redirect traffic to a bogus website? A. Pharming B. Piggy backing C. Parameter tampering D. IP spoofing

Answer 86

A. Pharming Explanation: Pharming involves redirecting traffic from legitimate websites to bogus websites by exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS servers.

Question 87

What type of attack involves self-replicating malicious code that can spread from computer to computer? A. Virus B. Worm C. Trojan Horse D. Logic Bomb

Answer 87

A. Virus Explanation: A virus is a type of self-replicating malicious code that can spread from computer to computer, often causing damage to files or disrupting system operations.

Question 88

Which attack method involves listening to all traffic in a network to extract usernames and passwords? A. Shoulder surfing B. Packet replay C. Pharming D. Password sniffing

Answer 88

D. Password sniffing Explanation: Password sniffing involves listening to all traffic in a network to extract usernames and passwords for unauthorized access.

Question 89

What is the first step in creating a digital signature? A. Encrypting the message B. Decrypting the hash value C. Creating a hash (message digest) of the message D. Comparing the hash value with the digital signature

Answer 89

C. Creating a hash (message digest) of the message Explanation: The first step in creating a digital signature is to create a hash (message digest) of the message using a mathematical algorithm.

Question 90

What distinguishes double blind testing from blind testing in penetration testing? A. The tester is not provided with any information about the network B. Both the tester and the organization's security team are unaware of the test details C. The tester is provided with detailed information about the network D. The test is conducted without the knowledge of the organization's IT team

Answer 90

B. Both the tester and the organization's security team are unaware of the test details Explanation: In double blind testing, neither the tester nor the organization's security team knows the test details, simulating a real attack scenario.

Question 91

What is the MOST efficient method for an information security manager to safeguard the organization against the improper use of social media? A. Conducting regular social media awareness training. B. Implementing strict social media usage policies. C. Blocking access to all social media platforms on corporate networks. D. Limiting and monitoring the use of social media on corporate networks and devices.

Answer 91

D. Limiting and monitoring the use of social media on corporate networks and devices. Explanation: This approach allows for controlled access, reducing the risk of security incidents while enabling effective monitoring.

Question 92

What is the MOST significant worry for the information security manager when employing account locking features in an online application? It has the potential to elevate susceptibility to: A. Unauthorized access attempts. B. User dissatisfaction with the locking mechanism. C. Unavailability of the service. D. Increased customer support requests.

Answer 92

C. Unavailability of the service. Explanation: Account locking, if not implemented carefully, may lead to service disruptions, affecting legitimate users and impacting availability.

Question 93

During an audit of a data center's IT architecture, the information security manager uncovers the absence of necessary encryption for data communications. What is the NEXT step to be taken? A. Assess alternative measures for compensation. B. Immediately implement encryption protocols. C. Escalate the issue to senior management. D. Document the finding in the audit report.

Answer 93

A. Assess alternative measures for compensation. Explanation: This involves exploring other security measures or controls to compensate for the absence of encryption.

Question 94

What would be the MOST effective countermeasure against malicious programming that manipulates transaction amounts, rounding them down and transferring the funds to the perpetrator's account? A. Implementing stricter user authentication measures. B. Enhancing network perimeter defenses. C. Conducting regular vulnerability assessments. D. Verifying the presence of appropriate controls for code review.

Answer 94

D. Verifying the presence of appropriate controls for code review. Explanation: Ensuring that the source code undergoes thorough review helps identify and eliminate malicious logic.

Question 95

Upon discovering an advanced persistent threat (APT), what should be the initial action for the information security manager? A. Notify law enforcement authorities. B. Isolate the threat. C. Conduct a forensic analysis. D. Implement additional intrusion detection measures.

Answer 95

B. Isolate the threat. Explanation: Isolating the threat helps contain its impact and prevent further spread within the network.

Question 96

The identification of noncompliance with password-aging rules in a newly developed system is MOST effectively achieved through: A. User training sessions. B. Audit procedure. C. Security awareness campaigns. D. Implementing stronger password policies.

Answer 96

B. Audit procedure. Explanation: Auditing allows for a systematic review and examination of the system's configuration and logs to verify adherence.

Question 97

The primary definition of authorization to delegate the management of an internal security incident to a third-party support provider is determined by: A. Incident severity levels. B. Approved escalation procedures. C. Incident response timelines. D. Executive management approval.

Answer 97

B. Approved escalation procedures. Explanation: These procedures outline the authorized steps and criteria for escalating incidents to external providers.

Question 98

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the following action, mainly focused on ensuring the integrity of information? A. Access control matrix. B. Encryption protocols. C. Intrusion detection systems. D. Security awareness training.

Answer 98

A. Access control matrix. Explanation: The access control matrix regulates and controls user access to information resources, ensuring data integrity.

Question 99

As the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc., you are overseeing the incident response process. At which stage should adjustments and implementations of corrective actions to the response procedure be evaluated? A. Eradication B. Identification C. Containment D. Recovery

Answer 99

A. Eradication Explanation: The eradication phase involves eliminating the root cause and assessing corrective actions to improve the response procedure.

Question 100

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with implementing an authorization policy to address the frequent travel of employees across various geographic locations. Which authorization policy is MOST suitable for this scenario? A. Rule-based authorization B. Attribute-based authorization C. Role-based authorization D. Discretionary access control

Answer 100

C. Role-based authorization Explanation: Role-based authorization assigns permissions based on job roles, facilitating efficient access management across locations.

Question 101

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are overseeing a systems development project that involves testing with sensitive customer data. What is the OPTIMAL method for handling this situation? A. Anonymize the customer data. B. Pseudonymize the customer data. C. Encrypt the customer data. D. Use the actual customer data without any modifications.

Answer 101

B. Pseudonymize the customer data. Explanation: Pseudonymizing replaces personally identifiable information with pseudonyms, balancing realistic testing with data privacy.

Question 102

You are emphasizing the importance of continuous monitoring in a security strategy. In this context, what is the primary purpose of consistently monitoring a security strategy? A. Enhance employee productivity B. Verify control objectives are being achieved C. Minimize operational costs D. Expedite incident response time

Answer 102

B. Verify control objectives are being achieved Explanation: Regular monitoring ensures that security controls are effective and objectives are consistently met.

Question 103

When considering the selection of a key risk indicator (KRI), what holds the utmost significance among the options below? A. Cost-effectiveness of implementation B. Availability of advanced monitoring tools C. Frequency of past security incidents D. Criticality of the function

Answer 103

D. Criticality of the function Explanation: The criticality of a business function determines the level of risk associated with it, making it the most significant factor for KRIs.

Question 104

For an organization planning to deploy a security information and event management (SIEM) system, what should be the utmost consideration? A. System compatibility with existing hardware B. Cost of SIEM implementation C. Sources for capturing logs D. Training programs for SIEM operators

Answer 104

C. Sources for capturing logs Explanation: A robust SIEM system relies on comprehensive log data from various sources for effective security monitoring.

Question 105

What is the main benefit of single sign-on (SSO)? A. Enhance network security B. Simplify user authentication C. Eliminate the need for password policies D. Improve the efficiency of access management

Answer 105

D. Improve the efficiency of access management Explanation: SSO allows users to authenticate once and access multiple systems, streamlining access management.

Question 106

What is the utmost critical justification for conducting vulnerability assessments at regular intervals? A. Meeting compliance requirements B. To address the emerging vulnerabilities C. Identifying historical security incidents D. Evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls,

Answer 106

B. To address the emerging vulnerabilities Explanation: Regular assessments help organizations stay proactive in identifying and mitigating newly discovered vulnerabilities.

Question 107

Among the provided options, which e-business architecture most effectively guarantees high availability? A. Centralized server managing all transactions B. Smart middleware directing transactions from a non-functional system to an alternate one C. Distributed server infrastructure with load balancing D. Client-server architecture with dedicated endpoints

Answer 107

B. Smart middleware directing transactions from a non-functional system to an alternate one Explanation: This architecture ensures continuous service availability by rerouting transactions to operational systems.

Question 108

The rationale for investing in an information security management infrastructure must encompass: A. General improvement of organizational processes B. Potential financial gains from improved security C. Enhanced employee productivity D. Consequences of failure to comply with relevant standards

Answer 108

D. Consequences of failure to comply with relevant standards Explanation: Addressing compliance requirements demonstrates a commitment to maintaining a secure environment.

Question 109

What is the function of an email digital signature? A. Authenticate the sender's identity B. Encrypt the email content C. Enhance email delivery speed D. Confirm the integrity of an email message to recipients

Answer 109

D. Confirm the integrity of an email message to recipients Explanation: A digital signature ensures that the content of the email has not been altered during transmission.

Question 110

As the Information Security Manager at HDA Inc., you are tasked with conducting a risk assessment for a business application. What is the first step in this process? A. Evaluate potential vulnerabilities in the application. B. Assess the impact of a security incident on the application. C. Identify the processes and assets linked with the application. D. Determine the likelihood of specific threats to the application.

Answer 110

C. Identify the processes and assets linked with the application. Explanation: Identifying the processes and assets provides a foundational understanding of the application's context and potential risks.

Question 111

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with establishing a security asset classification scheme. Who bears the PRIMARY responsibility for this? A. IT Department B. Security Team C. Employees D. Business Management

Answer 111

D. Business Management Explanation: Business Management is best positioned to understand the criticality and value of assets in alignment with business objectives.

Question 112

What is the most substantial advantage of categorizing information assets? A. Preservation of data confidentiality B. Facilitation of data backup processes C. Streamlining of data storage D. Implementation of the access control policy

Answer 112

D. Implementation of the access control policy Explanation: Information asset classification enables the enforcement of appropriate access restrictions based on sensitivity levels.

Question 113

When delivering a risk assessment report on information security to senior management, which approach would MOST effectively support well-informed decision-making? A. Highlighting all identified risks. B. Focusing on historical risk trends. C. Emphasizing potential risks. D. Giving priority to residual risks.

Answer 113

D. Giving priority to residual risks. Explanation: Prioritizing residual risks directs attention to risks that remain after controls are applied, aiding decision-making.

Question 114

What is the crucial element in ascertaining the definition of a disaster for an organization? A. Business Continuity Plan B. Risk Assessment C. Recovery Strategy D. Incident Response Plan

Answer 114

C. Recovery Strategy Explanation: Understanding how the organization plans to recover from a significant incident defines what constitutes a disaster.

Question 115

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are considering embedding security responsibilities into job descriptions to enhance the organization's information security practices. What is the primary reason for doing so? A. Strengthens adherence to information security policies. B. Streamlines the hiring process. C. Improves employee morale. D. Reinforces accountability among employees.

Answer 115

D. Reinforces accountability among employees. Explanation: Embedding security responsibilities reinforces accountability by clearly defining employees' roles in maintaining security.

Question 116

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with implementing security measures for infrastructure administration using a service account. What is the MOST crucial aspect to implement? A. Strong password policies for the service account. B. Regularly rotating the service account credentials. C. Restricting access to the service account based on the principle of least privilege. D. Maintaining an audit trail.

Answer 116

D. Maintaining an audit trail. Explanation: An audit trail allows for monitoring and recording activities associated with the service account, aiding in detection of unauthorized actions.

Question 117

What is the purpose of a penetration test? A. To identify and exploit vulnerabilities in a system B. To patch vulnerabilities in a system C. To prevent all attacks on a system D. To assess the effectiveness of security controls

Answer 117

D. To assess the effectiveness of security controls Explanation: The purpose of a penetration test is to simulate real-world attacks to assess the effectiveness of security controls.

Question 118

What is the purpose of a privacy impact assessment (PIA)? A. To assess the impact of privacy regulations on an organization B. To identify and mitigate privacy risks associated with projects or systems C. To evaluate customer satisfaction regarding privacy practices D. To monitor revenue from customer data

Answer 118

B. To identify and mitigate privacy risks associated with projects or systems Explanation: A PIA identifies and mitigates privacy risks, ensuring compliance with privacy regulations.

Question 119

What is the role of a security policy in an organization? A. To restrict access to information B. To guide employees on acceptable use of resources and behaviors C. To eliminate all security risks D. To enforce strict disciplinary actions

Answer 119

B. To guide employees on acceptable use of resources and behaviors Explanation: A security policy establishes guidelines and standards to protect the organization's information assets.

Question 120

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a strong password? A. Length B. Complexity C. Memorability D. Uniqueness

Answer 120

C. Memorability Explanation: While users prefer memorable passwords, strong passwords may be more difficult to remember from a security perspective.

Question 121

What is the purpose of role-based access control (RBAC)? A. To assign access rights based on user roles and responsibilities B. To assign access rights based on geographic location C. To assign access rights based on job titles D. To assign access rights based on seniority

Answer 121

A. To assign access rights based on user roles and responsibilities Explanation: RBAC assigns access rights based on roles and responsibilities within the organization.

Question 122

During which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) are the objective, purpose, and scope of the system discussed, finalized, and documented? A. Initiation/Feasibility B. Development/Acquisition C. Implementation D. Operations/Maintenance

Answer 122

A. Initiation/Feasibility Explanation: In the Initiation/Feasibility phase, the objective, purpose, and scope of the system are established and documented.

Question 123

Maximum Tolerable Outage (MTO) is defined as: A. The longest period a business can survive without any operational capability. B. The maximum period of time that an organization can operate from an alternate site. C. The duration for which an organization can avoid data backups. D. The allowable downtime for IT systems before a disaster recovery plan is activated.

Answer 123

B. The maximum period of time that an organization can operate from an alternate site. Explanation: MTO specifies the maximum duration an organization can sustain operations at an alternate site.

Question 124

Which of the following measures would provide the HIGHEST level of confidence in the integrity of data when transmitted between two parties? A. Encryption B. Hashing C. Digital certificate D. Digital signature

Answer 124

D. Digital signature Explanation: Digital signatures use cryptographic techniques to ensure the integrity of data during transmission.

Question 125

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are evaluating the security responsibilities in different cloud service models. In which cloud service model does the buyer of the cloud service take on the GREATEST security responsibilities? A. Software as a Service (SaaS) B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) D. Function as a Service (FaaS)

Answer 125

C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Explanation: In IaaS, the buyer has the greatest level of control and responsibility for securing the operating systems, applications, and data.

Question 126

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are assessing the adequacy of the classification of an information asset. What should be your primary concern? A. Sensitivity level. B. Business value. C. Compliance requirements. D. Technical specifications.

Answer 126

B. Business value. Explanation: The classification should align with the importance and value of the information to the organization.

Question 127

As an Information Security Manager of HDA Inc., what is of utmost importance for the successful implementation of an information security program? A. Adhering to industry trends and standards B. Implementing cutting-edge technologies C. Seeking input from stakeholders D. Regularly updating policies and procedures

Answer 127

C. Seeking input from stakeholders Explanation: Engaging with stakeholders helps in understanding their needs and ensures the security program aligns with organizational goals.

Question 128

What is the MOST effective approach to minimize the consequences of a successful ransomware attack? A. Implement real-time intrusion detection systems. B. Enhance network perimeter security measures. C. Conduct regular backups and store them in an offline location. D. Train employees on recognizing phishing attempts.

Answer 128

C. Conduct regular backups and store them in an offline location. Explanation: Regular offline backups ensure critical data can be restored without paying the ransom.

Question 129

You are an Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with initiating the business continuity planning (BCP) process. What should be your first step? A. Developing a crisis communication plan B. Identifying critical business functions C. Establishing alternate processing sites D. Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA),

Answer 129

D. Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) Explanation: A BIA assesses the potential impact of disruptions on critical business functions, prioritizing resources effectively.

Question 130

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are evaluating authentication methods. What is the primary benefit of challenge-response authentication compared to password authentication? A. Enhanced user convenience and ease of memorization. B. Greater resistance to brute force attacks. C. Improved scalability for large user bases. D. Reduced impact of compromised passwords.

Answer 130

D. Reduced impact of compromised passwords. Explanation: Challenge-response authentication dynamically generates challenges, reducing the risk of compromised passwords.

Question 131

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are overseeing workstations employed in supporting a forensic investigation. What is the utmost priority to ensure in this context? A. The use of the latest forensic tools and technologies. B. Limiting access to the workstations to authorized personnel only. C. Continuous monitoring of workstation activities during the investigation. D. Chain of custody is recorded for workstation activities.

Answer 131

D. Chain of custody is recorded for workstation activities. Explanation: Recording the chain of custody maintains the integrity of forensic investigations.

Question 132

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You are tasked with evaluating cloud storage solutions. What is the initial factor to consider in this assessment? A. Cost-effectiveness of the cloud storage provider. B. Adherence to the organization's data classification policy. C. Availability of advanced encryption features. D. Integration capabilities with existing IT infrastructure.

Answer 132

B. Adherence to the organization's data classification policy. Explanation: Ensuring alignment with the data classification policy maintains the appropriate level of security and control.

Question 133

What is the MOST effective approach to handle access rights? A. Periodic access reviews and audits. B. Implementing role-based access control (RBAC). C. Zero trust process. D. Utilizing single sign-on (SSO) authentication.

Answer 133

C. Zero trust process. Explanation: Zero Trust assumes no implicit trust and requires continuous verification, minimizing unauthorized access risks.

Question 134

What is the MOST effective way to assess the efficiency of an alternative processing site when uninterrupted operation is essential? A. Tabletop exercise. B. Parallel test. C. Full interruption test. D. Checklist-based evaluation.

Answer 134

B. Parallel test. Explanation: Running both primary and alternate sites simultaneously assesses the alternative site's efficiency without interrupting operations.

Question 135

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. In the event that a data loss prevention (DLP) tool identifies the transmission of personally identifiable information (PII), what should be your initial priority? A. Immediately block the transmission of PII. B. Notify the IT department for further investigation. C. Report the incident to the data protection authorities. D. Discuss the impact with the data owner.

Answer 135

D. Discuss the impact with the data owner. Explanation: Engaging with the data owner enables a collaborative approach to assess the incident's context and impact.

Question 136

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. After acquiring a company specializing in the production of Internet of Things (IoT) devices, what is the subsequent action you should take? A. Conduct a comprehensive risk assessment for the newly acquired company. B. Upgrade the existing network infrastructure to accommodate IoT devices. C. Implement additional access controls for the acquired IoT devices. D. Revise the information security strategy.

Answer 136

D. Revise the information security strategy. Explanation: Revising the security strategy incorporates considerations specific to IoT security risks.

Question 137

What is the MOST effective way to showcase the return on investment (ROI) for an information security initiative? A. Cost-benefit analysis. B. Business case. C. Security awareness training. D. Compliance with industry standards.

Answer 137

B. Business case. Explanation: A business case aligns the security initiative with business objectives, highlighting anticipated benefits and financial gains.

Question 138

For a global organization managing substantial amounts of personal data, what would be the MOST critical characteristic when formulating a data access policy? A. Flexibility for easy updates. B. Stringent enforcement mechanisms. C. Inclusivity to accommodate all user roles. D. Confidentiality.

Answer 138

D. Confidentiality. Explanation: Ensuring confidentiality restricts access to authorized individuals, maintaining trust and compliance.

Question 139

What option among the following would MOST effectively offer stakeholders the necessary information to decide the suitable course of action in response to a disaster? A. Risk assessment B. Incident response plan C. Business impact analysis D. Disaster recovery plan

Answer 139

C. Business impact analysis Explanation: A BIA evaluates the potential impact of a disruption, helping stakeholders prioritize recovery efforts.

Question 140

You are concerned about preventing computers on the corporate network from being used in a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack. What is the most appropriate action to take? A. Install firewalls at network entry points. B. Monitor the outgoing traffic. C. Implement intrusion detection systems on all devices. D. Conduct regular vulnerability assessments.

Answer 140

A. Encryption Explanation: Encrypting sensitive information in emails ensures that contents remain secure even if intercepted.

Question 141

You are the Information Security Manager of HDA Inc. You need to ensure that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements. Which option offers you the most reliable assurance? A. Vendor self-assessment questionnaire B. Service Level Agreement (SLA) with penalties for non-compliance C. Annual security awareness training for the service provider's staff D. Periodic audit of the third-party supplier's IT systems and processes

Answer 141

D. Periodic audit of the third-party supplier's IT systems and processes Explanation: An independent audit provides a thorough and objective evaluation of the service provider's compliance.

Question 142

What is the optimal course of action when encountering an organization with budget limitations that lacks critical security capabilities? A. Propose additional budget allocations for essential security tools B. Demonstrate return on investment (ROI) on security expenditure C. Seek external funding or financial support from stakeholders D. Implement basic security measures within the existing budget constraints

Answer 142

B. Demonstrate return on investment (ROI) on security expenditure Explanation: Showcasing the value of security investments justifies resource allocation within budget constraints.

Question 143

What is the primary consideration for an organization when assessing an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) cloud computing model for an e-commerce application? A. High availability to ensure continuous operation and minimal downtime. B. Cost-effectiveness in infrastructure provisioning. C. Flexibility in resource scalability based on demand. D. Advanced security features for data protection.

Answer 143

A. High availability to ensure continuous operation and minimal downtime. Explanation: High availability ensures continuous operation for e-commerce applications, minimizing downtime and revenue loss.

Question 144

For an organization that outsources its payroll processing, what is the MOST effective key risk indicator to monitor the information security of the service provider? A. Impact on business processes due to incidents B. Number of security controls implemented by the service provider C. Frequency of security audits conducted by the service provider D. Compliance with contractual service-level agreements (SLAs)

Answer 144

A. Impact on business processes due to incidents Explanation: Assessing the impact of incidents provides a direct measure of potential harm to business processes.

Question 145

Achieving compliance of activities conducted by outsourcing providers with information security policies is MOST effectively accomplished by using: A. Regular communication and training sessions with outsourcing providers B. Independent audits C. Strict contractual penalties for non-compliance D. In-depth monitoring of outsourcing provider activities

Answer 145

B. Independent audits Explanation: Independent audits provide an objective and thorough examination of the outsourcing provider's compliance.

Question 146

What should be the PRIMARY consideration when establishing data retention policies among the following options? A. Employee preferences and convenience B. Technological advancements in data storage C. Legal and regulatory requirements D. Cost-effectiveness in data management

Answer 146

C. Legal and regulatory requirements Explanation: Adhering to legal and regulatory requirements ensures compliance with data protection and privacy standards.

Question 147

For a small organization with a contract with a multinational cloud computing vendor, what omission from the contract would be of the HIGHEST concern? A. The specific server locations where data will be stored B. The duration of the contract and renewal terms C. Service level agreements (SLAs) for uptime and performance D. The contract should explicitly define the ownership of the data stored in the cloud

Answer 147

D. The contract should explicitly define the ownership of the data stored in the cloud Explanation: Clarifying data ownership ensures control over data and addresses issues like access and compliance.

Question 148

In response to the rapid spread of a new email virus using an attachment disguised as a picture file, what should be the INITIAL action taken FIRST? A. Temporarily shut down the email servers to contain the virus. B. Restrict emails that include attachments of picture files. C. Run a full system scan on all computers in the network. D. Notify employees to avoid opening any email attachments.

Answer 148

B. Restrict emails that include attachments of picture files. Explanation: Restricting the specific attachment type addresses the immediate risk and contains the threat.

Question 149

What is the UTMOST crucial factor to guarantee the successful recovery of a business in the event of a disaster? A. Quick detection and attribution of the responsible parties. B. High availability of secondary data centers. C. Regularly updating disaster recovery documentation. D. Well-defined incident criteria.

Answer 149

D. Well-defined incident criteria. Explanation: Clearly defined criteria enable a structured and efficient response during a disaster.

Question 150

The MAIN objective of implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS) is to detect: A. Unauthorized access attempts. B. Network vulnerabilities. C. Malicious software installations. D. Determining the potential impact.

Answer 150

D. Determining the potential impact. Explanation: An IDS aims to analyze and understand the potential impact of security incidents on information security.

Question 151

What document should be PRIMARILY included in a computer incident response team (CIRT) manual? A. Flowchart illustrating the incident response process. B. Criteria to define severity. C. List of potential threats and vulnerabilities. D. Detailed technical analysis of recent incidents.

Answer 151

B. Criteria to define severity. Explanation: Severity criteria help prioritize incident response efforts and allocate resources effectively.

Question 152

The MAIN goal of conducting an internal attack and penetration test as part of an incident response program is to pinpoint: A. Vulnerabilities in the network infrastructure. B. Areas for improvement in the incident response procedure. C. Potential insider threats within the organization. D. Weaknesses in the application layer security.

Answer 152

B. Areas for improvement in the incident response procedure. Explanation: The main focus is on refining the incident response capabilities by identifying weaknesses in processes.

Question 153

You recently experienced a security incident, and now you are conducting a post-event review to enhance your incident response capabilities. What is the MAIN goal of this post-event review? A. Identifying the individuals responsible for the incident B. Implementing immediate corrective actions to prevent a recurrence C. Streamlining the incident management process D. Documenting the incident details for legal purposes

Answer 153

C. Streamlining the incident management process Explanation: The primary objective is to analyze the incident and enhance overall incident response capabilities.

Question 154

As an Information Security Manager of HDA Inc., Elaborate business continuity plans should primarily be grounded in: A. Technological advancements. B. Industry best practices. C. Regulatory requirements. D. Approaches endorsed by senior management.

Answer 154

D. Approaches endorsed by senior management. Explanation: Senior management's endorsement ensures business continuity plans align with organizational strategy and receive necessary support.

Question 155

After a web server in a financial institution has been compromised using a super-user account, isolated, and subjected to appropriate forensic procedures, what should be the subsequent course of action? A. Shut down the server permanently to prevent further compromise. B. Report the incident to law enforcement authorities. C. Implement additional security controls on the server. D. Reconstruct the server using the original media and necessary patches.

Answer 155

D. Reconstruct the server using the original media and necessary patches. Explanation: Rebuilding the server ensures a clean and secure environment, addressing vulnerabilities.

Question 156

You need to obtain evidence from a compromised server for a forensic investigation. What is the optimal source for obtaining evidence? A. Replication of data from bit level. B. Retrieval of log files from the server. C. Running antivirus scans on the server. D. Interviewing employees who had access to the server.

Answer 156

A. Replication of data from bit level. Explanation: Bit-level replication captures all data, including hidden and deleted files, for a comprehensive forensic investigation.

Question 157

You are dealing with an information security incident response, and you need to determine the most effective approach for handling evidence with potential legal implications. What should guide your decision? A. Global industry standards. B. Regulations specific to the local area. C. Recommendations from cybersecurity experts. D. Best practices outlined in the incident response plan.

Answer 157

B. Regulations specific to the local area. Explanation: Local regulations dictate legal requirements and standards for handling evidence.

Question 158

What does Recovery Time Objective (RTO) measure in terms of system functionality? A. The extent of acceptable system downtime B. The extent of acceptable data loss C. The frequency of data backups D. The cost of data recovery solutions

Answer 158

A. The extent of acceptable system downtime Explanation: RTO measures the maximum duration an organization can afford to have its systems down without significant impact.