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CIS Test 3 > CIS Test 3 > Flashcards

CIS Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

When is Cold Server-to-Server VM migration typically used?

A

Cold migration is typically used when a VM needs to be moved to another remote location or VDC.

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2
Q

Concurrent VM Server-to-Server Migration

A

Migrate a VM simultaneously to multiple hypervisors.

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3
Q

Hot-Suspended VM Server-to-Server Migration

A

Migrate a VM that is suspended.

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4
Q

Cold VM Server-to-Server Migration

A

Migrate a VM that is powered off.

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5
Q

Hot-On VM Server-to-Server Migration

A

Migrate a VM that is powered on.VM needs to be quiesced before migration.

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6
Q

4 Major Modes of VM Migration Between Servers

A

1) Hot-On 2) Cold 3) Hot-Suspended 4) Concurrent

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7
Q

VM state information

A

Include memory contents and all other information which identifies the VM.

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8
Q

Involves moving the entire active state of a VM from the source hypervisor to the target.

A

VM migration

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9
Q

VM identification information

A

Data, which maps the VM hardware elements such as BIOS, devices, CPU, and MAC address for Ethernet cards.

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10
Q

What happens after VM migration is complete

A

The VM in the source hypervisor needs to be deleted after migration is complete. Virtual disks are also deleted if they were actually moved.

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11
Q

True or False: In case of array-to-array migration, virtual disks are always moved from source array to target array.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

True or False: In case of server-to-server VM migration, virtual disks are not moved within clustered servers.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

Types of VM Migration

A

1) Server-to-Server 2) Array-to-Array

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14
Q

Involves movement of entire active state of a VM

A

VM migration process

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15
Q

Moving a VM from one hypervisor to another hypervisor

A

VM Migration

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16
Q

Asynchronous Replication Characteristics

A

Extended distanceNon zero RPO

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17
Q

Synchronous replication characteristics

A

Limited distanceNear zero RPO

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18
Q

All VM files are copied to the remote site.

A

Array-Based REMOTE Replication of VMs

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19
Q

LUNs are replicated between two sites using storage array replication technology.

A

Array-Based REMOTE Replication of VMs

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20
Q

True or False: VMs typically reside on LUNs that reside on the same storage arrays. In single-site replication, these LUNs are replicated using the array controller within the same storage array.

A

TRUE

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21
Q

Replication is done using array controller within the SAME storage array.

A

Array-Based LOCAL Replication of VMs

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22
Q

Creates copies of LUNs that contain VM files on the same storage array.

A

Array-Based Local Replication of VMs

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23
Q

Benefits of VM Templates

A

Increased efficiency, consistency and standardization. Repetitive installation and configuration tasked can be avoided. Deploying VMs from VM templates helps to enforce standards.

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24
Q

A reusable image created from a VM

A

VM Template

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25
Q

Two ways a VM Template is created

A

1) Convert a powered-off VM into a template. 2) Clone a VM into a template.

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26
Q

Master copy to create and provision new VMs.

A

VM Template

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27
Q

How does a linked clone differ from a snapshot?

A

A linked clone is a running VM that would change its state over time. However, a snapshot is only a state of the VM at a specific point-in-time, which cannot change on its own.

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28
Q

How is a linked clone handled after being made from a snapshot of the parent VM?

A

The snapshot is given a separate network identity and assigned to the hypervisor to run as independent VM.

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29
Q

How is a linked clone made?

A

From a snapshot of the parent VM.

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30
Q

How are writes of a linked clone captured?

A

Writes of the linked clone are captured in a separate delta disk of smaller size.

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31
Q

True or False: The virtual disk of the parent VM is read-only for the linked clone.

A

TRUE

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32
Q

Clone type that shares virtual disks with the parent VM

A

Linked Clone

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33
Q

True or False: The cloning process for a Full Clone may take a relatively longer time than a linked clone.

A

TRUE

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34
Q

An independent copy of a VM that does not share virtual disks with the parent.

A

Full Clone

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35
Q

Two type of VM clones

A

1) Full Clone 2) Linked Clone

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36
Q

Why is VM cloning helpful?

A

Installing a guest OS and applications on multiple VMs is a time consuming task. With clones, a user can make many copies of a VM from a single installation and configuration process.

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37
Q

Does a clone VM have a different MAC address than the parent VM?

A

Yes

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38
Q

Does a clone VM have a separate network identity from the parent VM?

A

Yes.

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39
Q

Can a clone VM share virtual disks with the parent VM?

A

Yes, in the case of a Linked clone.

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40
Q

True or False: Changes made to the parent VM do not appear in a clone.

A

TRUE

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41
Q

True or False: Changes made to a clone VM do not affect the parent VM.

A

TRUE

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42
Q

Created when the VM is required for a DIFFERENT use (for example, an identical VM needs to be deployed for testing purposes)

A

VM Clone

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43
Q

An identical copy of an existing VM

A

VM Clone

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44
Q

Reverting a VM to snapshot causes what?

A

Causes all settings configured in the Guest OS to be reverted to an earlier point in time.

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45
Q

When is a VM snapshot useful?

A

Useful when a VM needs to be reverted to the same state again. For example, when using a VM for testing purposes, upgrading or patching applications and servers.

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46
Q

Data of a VM consists of what?

A

Data includes all the files that makeup the VM including virtual disks, memory, and other devices, such as virtual NIC.

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47
Q

VM state consists of what?

A

State includes VM configuration files as well as its power status (on, off, suspended).

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48
Q

Preserves the state and data of a VM at a specific point in time

A

VM Snapshot

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49
Q

How storage array based replication works

A

Works by copying LUNs of the source VM to the target array.

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50
Q

Is performed at the storage array level.Is similar to traditional array based replication in the CDC.Is performed either at local (primary) site or to a remote (secondary) site.

A

Storage array-based replication

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51
Q

Enables replicating VMs between dissimilar storage.Creates VM snapshot, VM clone, or VM template.

A

Compute-based replication

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52
Q

Two VM replication methods

A

1) Compute-based replication 2) Storage array based replication

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53
Q

Where is quiescing performed?

A

At the application level, to achieve application-level consistency. Applications complete any pending transactions and write the pending data to the disk.

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54
Q

Pauses currently running applications within a VM and forcibly flushes all data in the memory to the disk.

A

Quiescing

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55
Q

Needed to ensure data integrity before VM replication starts

A

Quiescing of VM

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56
Q

Where VM replication is performed.

A

At the hypervisor level

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57
Q

VM restore steps

A

1) Selection of VM and virtual disks to restore from backup. 2) Selection of the destination. 3) Configuration settings.

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58
Q

Candidates for deduplication

A

Backup images of VM disk files

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59
Q

Backup that can be restored to dissimilar hardware resources and can recover servers remotely.

A

Image-based backup

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60
Q

Advantage of an image-based backup

A

All information can be collected in a single pass, providing a Bare Metal Recovery (BMR) capability.

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61
Q

Creates a copy of the guest OS, its data, VM state, and configurations.Restores directly at VM level only.Operates at hypervisor level.Mounts image on backup server.

A

Image-based backup

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62
Q

Requires installing a backup agent on a hypervisor.Cannot backup LUNs directly attached to a VM.

A

Backup VM files

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63
Q

Requires installing a backup agent on a VM.Can only backup virtual disk data.

A

Backup VM as a physical server

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64
Q

Disadvantage to backup of VM files

A

LUNs assigned directly to a VM (using RDM) cannot be backup up using this approach.

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65
Q

Backup method that uses snapshot and cloning techniques

A

Array-based

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66
Q

Backup option that may have a guest OS dependency, owing to file system structure.

A

File-based backup

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67
Q

Backup option that does not provide a way to access individual files

A

Image-based backup

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68
Q

Backup option that provides a way to access individual files.

A

File-based backup does.

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69
Q

Backup optimization method

A

Deduplication

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70
Q

Backup Options

A

1) File based 2) Image based

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71
Q

Included in a VM backup

A

Virtual disks containing system and application data. Configuration data including network and power state.

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72
Q

Site Failover Dependencies

A

VM migration capability - Reliable network infrastructure - Data backup and replication functionality

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73
Q

Preferred type of hypervisor for BC

A

Bare-metal (Type 1) hypervisor running directly on the physical compute.

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74
Q

IEEE 802.1AX

A

Link Aggregation Standard

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75
Q

True or False: After a NIC team is configured, the VM will not be aware of the underlying physical NICs.

A

TRUE

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76
Q

Enables failover in case of physical NIC failures / link outages

A

Physical NIC teaming

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77
Q

Supports the IEEE 802.1AX-2008 link aggregation standard.

A

Physical NIC teaming

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78
Q

Technique to enable multiple paths for accessing the same storage device.Provides dynamic failover to an alternate path if current active path fails.

A

Multipathing to storage

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79
Q

Requirements for multipating

A

1) Server needs two or more HBAs available.or 2) One HBA port is set up with multiple storage controllers

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80
Q

Causes of virtual network failure

A

1) An incorrect operation of the software components (e.g., virtual NIC, virtual switch). 2) Failure in the compute infrastructure (e.g., physical server going down, hypervisor crashes, VM crashes).

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81
Q

Three methods to protect physical networks using redundancy

A

1) Interconnect devices with redundant hot swappable components. 2) Redundant links and multipathing. 3) Redundant NICs and NIC teaming.

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82
Q

How to achieve high-availability design for storage infrastructure

A

1) Redundant array controllers to address primary array controller failures. 2) Redundant ports in a storage array if one of the currently active port fails. 3) Redundant storage array for when the whole array goes down.

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83
Q

Redundant Storage Components

A

Array Controllers - Ports in a Storage Array - Storage Arrays

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84
Q

Standby disk drive in a RAID array

A

Hot spare

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85
Q

Provides data protection against drive failures

A

RAID

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86
Q

True or False: The two VMs essentially access a common storage and appear as a single entity with a single IP address and a single MAC address to other VMs.

A

TRUE

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87
Q

Describe VMFT Failover

A

The primary and secondary VMs check the status of each other using heartbeats. If the primary VM fails, the other takes over immediately.

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88
Q

True or False: In a VMFT scenario, the primary and secondary VMs share the same virtual disk using VMFS, but all output (e.g., write) operations are performed only by the primary VM.

A

TRUE

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89
Q

VMFT

A

Virtual Machine Fault Tolerance

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90
Q

Creates a live instance of the primary VM that runs on another physical machine.

A

Virtual Machine Fault Tolerance (VMFT)

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91
Q

Uses a secondary VM running on another physical machine as a live copy of the primary VM.

A

VM Fault Tolerance

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92
Q

True or False: VMFS ensures that a VM cannot be opened by more that one hypervisor at a time.

A

True. When a VM is operating, VMFS locks those files so that other hypervisors cannot update them.

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93
Q

What does VMFS provide?

A

VMFS provides multiple VMs with shared access to a consolidated pool of clustered storage. A VM sees the (virtual) disks in a VMFS as local targets, when they are actually just files on the VMFS volume.

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94
Q

Uses a clustered file system, such as VMFS, to enable failover.

A

Clustered servers

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95
Q

Provides protection from server and hypervisor failures.

A

Clustered servers

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96
Q

Groups of physical servers are combined and managed as an aggregated compute resource pool.

A

Clustered Servers

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97
Q

How is failover enabled in a server cluster?

A

Clustered servers use a clustered file system, such as VMFS, to enable failover.

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98
Q

Other ways to eliminate SPOFs in a VDC

A

1) Configure multiple copies of virtual disks and VM configuration files. 2) Implement server clustering. 3) Employ a fault tolerance mechanism whereby two VMs in a cluster access the same set of storage volumes. If one of the VM fails, the other takes up the complete workload.

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99
Q

How to mitigate the effect of a local site failure

A

Implementation of a storage array at a remote site to replicate data

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100
Q

How to ensure continuous operation in the event of a disk failure

A

RAID configuration

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101
Q

How to enhance a storage array’s accessibility

A

Configure multiple storage array ports

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102
Q

Mitigation of switch failure

A

Configure multiple fabrics

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103
Q

Mitigation of single HBA failure

A

Configure multiple HBAs

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104
Q

SPOFs in VDC Network Infrastructure

A

Network components - Virtual network

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105
Q

SPOFs in VDC Storage Infrastructure

A

Storage array and its components - Virtual disks

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106
Q

SPOFs in VDC Compute Infrastructure

A

Physical server and hypervisor - VM and guest OS

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107
Q

True or False: Restoring of data after an outage in a VDC is faster and more reliable, compared to a CDC.

A

TRUE

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108
Q

True or False: It is comparatively easier to maintain VM copies in diverse geographic locations, which makes the BC process robust.

A

TRUE

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109
Q

True or False: Different DR policies may be applied to different VMs, even if they are running on the same physical server.

A

TRUE

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110
Q

Six Advantages of Compute Virtualization in BC

A

1) Hardware independence 2) Cross platform compatibility 3) Mutual isolation 4) Encapsulation of complete computing environment 5) Relatively robust BC processes 6) Higher data availability

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111
Q

Included in BC technology for data protection

A

Backup and replication of data (similar to CDC environment).

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112
Q

BC planning should include what?

A

End-to-end protection of both physical and virtual resources at the compute, storage, and network layers.

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113
Q

Ensuring BC mainly involves what?

A

Redundancy of components at each layer (compute, storage, & network)

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114
Q

Backup option that is independent of the guest OS running on the VM.

A

Image-based backup

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115
Q

Cloud Challenges for the Provider

A

1) Service Warranty and Service Cost 2) Huge Numbers of Software to Manage 3) No Standard Cloud Access Interface

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116
Q

Cloud Challenges for the Consumer

A

1) Security and Regulation 2) Network Latency 3) Supportability 4) Interoperability

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117
Q

Key cost savings provided by cloud computing

A

Savings in:1) Infrastructure costs 2) Management costs 3) Power and energy costs

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118
Q

Cloud deployment model where the cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific community that has shared concerns.Managed by organizations or by a third party.

A

Community Cloud

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119
Q

Advantage of a hybrid cloud approach

A

Allows a business to take advantage of the scalability and cost-effectiveness that a public Cloud Computing environment offers without exposing mission critical applications and data to third-party vulnerabilities.

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120
Q

Cloud deployment model where an organization consumes resources from both private and public Clouds.

A

Hybrid Cloud

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121
Q

Another name for an on-premise private cloud

A

Internal cloud

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122
Q

Two variations of the Private Cloud model

A

1) On-Premise Private Cloud 2) Externally-Hosted Private Cloud

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123
Q

Three Deployment Models of Cloud Computing

A

1) Private 2) Public 3) Hybrid

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124
Q

Software-as-a-Service solution for CRM applications

A

Salesforce.com

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125
Q

Software-as-a-Solution for online backup

A

EMC Mozy

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126
Q

Advantages of SaaS

A

1) Reduces the need for infrastructure (because storage and compute powers can be provided remotely). 2) Reduces the need for manual updates (because SaaS providers can perform those tasks automatically).

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127
Q

Cloud model where billing is based on application usage.

A

Software-as-a-Service

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128
Q

Cloud model where application is accessible from various client devices (e.g., via a thin client interface such as a Web browser).

A

Software-as-a-Service

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129
Q

Complete stack including application is provided as a service.

A

Software-as-a-Service

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130
Q

Capability provided to the consumer to use a provider’s applications running in a Cloud infrastructure.

A

Software-as-a-Service

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131
Q

PaaS example that provides diverse functionalities to build applications.Visual Studio and .Net are used to build applications.Build applications also in Java and PHP using Eclipse and other tools.

A

Microsoft Azure Platform

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132
Q

PaaS example that provides platform for consumers to deploy or create their own applications.Provides Java and Python environment to create and deploy application.Allows dynamic allocation of system resources for an application based on the actual demand.

A

Google App Engine

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133
Q

PaaS Examples

A

1) Google App Engine 2) Microsoft Azure Platform

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134
Q

Cloud model where consumer has control over deployed applications and possible application hosting environment configurations.

A

Platform-as-a-Service

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135
Q

Cloud model where consumer is billed for platform software components (OS, DB, middleware)

A

Platform-as-a-Service

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136
Q

Capability provided to the consumer to deploy consumer-created or acquired applications on the Cloud provider’s infrastructure.

A

Platform-as-a-Service

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137
Q

Example of an IaaS model that provides resizable compute capacity on a pay-per-use basis.

A

Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2)

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138
Q

IaaS example that provides Storage as a service, Internet accessible, on demand service

A

EMC Atmos Online

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139
Q

IaaS Examples

A

1) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) 2) EMC Atmos Online

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140
Q

True or False: In a IaaS model, scaling and elasticity are the responsibilities of the consumer, not the provider.

A

TRUE

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141
Q

Pays for infrastructure components usage, for example, storage capacity, CPU usage, etc.

A

Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

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142
Q

Enables consumers to deploy and run software, including OS and applications.

A

Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

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143
Q

Provides capability to the consumer to hire infrastructure components such as servers, storage, and network.

A

Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)

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144
Q

Three Categories of Cloud Services

A

1) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) 2) Platform-as-a-Service (PasS) 3) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

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145
Q

Five Cloud Computing Benefits

A

1) Reduced IT Cost 2) Business Agility Support 3) Flexible Scaling 4) High Availability 5) Less Energy Consumption

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146
Q

Enable transforming capital expenditure (CAPEX) into ‘pay as you use’ operational cost.

A

Metered services

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147
Q

Provides billing and chargeback information for the Cloud resource used by the consumer.

A

Metered Service

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148
Q

Ability to scale IT resources rapidly, as required, to fulfill the changing needs without interruption of service.

A

Rapid Elasticity

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149
Q

Basis for dynamic assignment and reassignment of resources

A

Consumer demand

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150
Q

Pooled to serve multiple consumers

A

IT resources (compute, storage, network)

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151
Q

True or False: The consumer has no knowledge about the exact location of the resources provided.

A

TRUE

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152
Q

Enables accessing the services from anywhere across the globe.

A

Broad Network Access

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153
Q

Eliminates the need for accessing a particular client platform to access the services.

A

Broad Network Access

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154
Q

Client platforms from which cloud services are accessed.

A

Desktop computers - Laptops - Mobile phones - Thin Clients

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155
Q

Allows provisioning of resources using self-service interface.

A

On-Demand Self-Service

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156
Q

Facilitates consumer to leverage “ready to use” services or, enables to choose required services form the service catalog.

A

On-Demand Self-Service

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157
Q

Enables consumers to get computing resources as and when required, without any human intervention.

A

On-Demand Self-Service

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158
Q

Five essential characteristics of Cloud Computing

A

1) On-Demand Self Service 2) Broad Network Access 3) Resource Pooling 4) Rapid Elasticity 5) Measured Service

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159
Q

A deployed SOA-based architecture provides what?

A

A set of services that can be used in multiple business domains.

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160
Q

Form of distributed computing which applies the resources of numerous computers in a network to work on a single complex task at the same time.

A

Grid Computing

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161
Q

Service provisioning model that offers computing resources as a metered service.

A

Utility Computing

162
Q

Provides improved utilization of resources.Enables optimization of resources by oversubscription.

A

Virtualization

163
Q

An architectural approach in which applications make use of services available IN the network.Each service provides a specific function, for example, business function (Payroll Tax Calculation).

A

Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)

164
Q

Four technological foundations of Cloud Computing

A

1) Grid Computing 2) Utility Computing 3) Virtualization 4) Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)

165
Q

What differentiates a virtualized data center (VDC) from a Cloud?

A

a Cloud service management layer on top of the VDC

166
Q

Transforming VDC to Cloud requires what?

A

A Cloud service management layer on top of the Virtual Data Center (VDC)

167
Q

Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a group of organizations with shared concerns?a. Private Cloudb. Hybrid Cloudc. Public Cloudd. Community Cloud

A

d. Community Cloud

168
Q

Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering?a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloudb. Google App Enginec. Microsoft Azured. EMC Mozy

A

d. EMC Mozy

169
Q

Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering?a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloudb. Google App Enginec. Salesforce.comd. EMC Mozy

A

a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

170
Q

Which is an example of platform-as-a-service?a. EMC Atmos onlineb. Salesforce.comc. Google App engined. EMC Mozy

A

c. Google App engine

171
Q

Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model?a. OSb. Storage Spacec. Middlewared. Database

A

b. Storage space

172
Q

Formats report with header, footer, logo, and title, ensuring clear understanding of chargeback.

A

VMware vCenter Chargeback

173
Q

Creates detailed reports on resources used and associated costs.

A

VMware vCenter Chargeback

174
Q

Includes costs per VM based on actual usage of resources.

A

Utilization-based cost

175
Q

Includes costs per VM such as the amount of memory, CPU, or storage allocated or reserved for VM.

A

Allocation-based cost

176
Q

Includes CAPEX, OPEX, and administration costs.

A

Fixed Cost

177
Q

Enables measurement of three different costs which may be combined to formulate chargeback.

A

VMware vCenter Chargeback

178
Q

A Cloud service management tool which enables accurate cost measurement for providing services and reporting of resource usage.

A

VMware vCenter Chargeback

179
Q

Automates several service management activities such as:- CMDB population- Incident creation- Problem creation

A

VMware Service Manager

180
Q

Enables cost calculation to provide Cloud services.

A

VMware Service Manager

181
Q

Allows creation and publishing of service catalog.

A

VMware Service Manager

182
Q

Service management tool that provides best practices for Cloud services management.

A

VMware Service Manager

183
Q

Allows creating and publishing service offerings via a service catalog.

A

VMware vCloud Director

184
Q

Allows creating and publishing service offerings via a service catalog.

A

VMware vCloud Director

185
Q

Allows consumers to request for a service from a service catalog through a Web-based user interface.

A

VMware vCloud Director

186
Q

Authenticates consumer identities before empowering consumers to request services.

A

VMware vCloud Director

187
Q

Helps in Cloud user access management.

A

VMware vCloud Director

188
Q

Enables configuring Vblock resources and activating services

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

189
Q

Provides a dashboard showing Vblock infrastructure configuration and resource utilization.- Helps plan for capacity requirements.

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

190
Q

Provides a topology view of Vblock infrastructure.- Enables locating interconnections of infrastructure components.

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

191
Q

Provides an alerts console that lists alerts against adversely affected resources and services.- Identifies services affected due to problems and root cause of the problems.

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

192
Q

Performs compliance check during resource configuration

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

193
Q

Prevents conflicting resource identity assignments (e.g., accidentally assigning a MAC address to more than one virtual NIC).

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

194
Q

EMC’s unified management solution for Vblocks

A

EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager

195
Q

Provide integrated, preconfigured, and validated Cloud infrastructure in a box.

A

Vblocks

196
Q

Pre-architected, pre-configured, pre-tested offerings which have defined performance and availability attributes.

A

Vblocks

197
Q

Vblock coalition members

A

VMwareCiscoEMC

198
Q

Industry’s first completely integrated Cloud infrastructure offering that includes compute, storage, network, and virtualization products.

A

Vblock

199
Q

Automation examples

A

1) CMDB population 2) Incident and problem report creation 3) Analyzing and forecasting capacity requirements 4) Chargeback 5) Compliance enforcement

200
Q

Benefits of Service Management Automation

A

1) Avoidance of human error. 2) Automatic auditing. 3) Reduced time and effort to manage services. 4) Reduced administration and service cost. 5) Avoidance of non-compliance penalties.

201
Q

Examples of policies and regulations

A

Configuration best practices - Security rules - Infrastructure maintenance timeline - Backup schedule - Change control process

202
Q

Examples of external legal requirements

A

Country-specific privacy laws.Location of consumer data.Data retention period.

203
Q

Fulfills compliance requirements while configuring Cloud infrastructure and provisioning Cloud services.

A

Compliance Management

204
Q

Reviews compliance enforcement to identify and rectify any deviation from compliance requirement.

A

Compliance Management

205
Q

Goal of Compliance Management

A

To ensure that Cloud services, service creation processes, and Cloud infrastructure resources comply with policies and legal requirements.

206
Q

Financial Management Activity 4

A

Deploy tools necessary to collect information on resource usage, record the billing data, and generate the chargeback report per consumer. These tools are integrated with Cloud infrastructure management and service creation tools.

207
Q

Financial Management Activity 3

A

For each billable unit, define a pricing strategy by choosing pricing options that will allow for recovery of costs identified in activity 1.

208
Q

Financial Management Activity 2

A

Identify billable units of Cloud services (such as MHz or GHz (compute power), Mb/s or Gb/s (network bandwidth), MB or GB (storage space).

209
Q

Financial Management Activity 1

A

Analyze and document all relevant costs, including all capital, operational, and administration costs.

210
Q

Chargeback is based on what?

A

Resource usage by consumers

211
Q

Plans IT budget for Cloud infrastructure and operation.

A

Financial Management

212
Q

Determines price (chargeback) for Cloud services and ensures profitability.

A

Financial Management

213
Q

Monitors and reports on allocation and utilization of resources by consumers.

A

Financial Management

214
Q

Calculates cost (including CAPEX, OPEX, Administration cost) for providing a service.

A

Financial Management

215
Q

Goal of Financial Management

A

To manage the Cloud service provider’s budgeting, accounting, and charging requirements.

216
Q

How is a service offering typically presented in a Service Catalog?

A

Using a list of attributes

217
Q

Important Activity in Service Catalog Management

A

To represent Cloud services in a manner that clearly indicates the value of the services.

218
Q

Common Attributes of a Service in a Service Catalog

A

Service Name - Description - Features and Options - Service and Support Expectations - Price - Provisioning Timeframe

219
Q

Ensures clarity, completeness, and usefulness when describing service offerings in the Service Catalog.

A

Service Catalog Management

220
Q

Evaluates and upgrades the Service Catalog continually to include new services and improvements in service offerings.

A

Service Catalog Management

221
Q

Ensures that the information in the Service Catalog is accurate and up-to-date.

A

Service Catalog Management

222
Q

Goal of Service Catalog Management

A

To ensure that a Service Catalog is created and maintained with accurate information on all the available Cloud services.

223
Q

Monitors and compares the stated availability and achieved availability for a Cloud service.

A

Availability Management

224
Q

Identifies areas where availability must be improved.Required to understand the reasons for a service failure.Gets input from Incident Management and Problem Management

A

Availability Management

225
Q

Designs and implements the procedures and technical features required to fulfill stated availability of a service.

A

Availability Management

226
Q

Goal of Availability Management

A

To design, implement, measure, and improve Cloud services, ensuring stated availability commitments are consistently met.

227
Q

Provides methods to reduce or eliminate the impact of a problem, if a complete solution is not available.

A

Problem Management

228
Q

Analyzes the incident history and identifies the impending service failures.Identifies and solves errors before a problem occurs.

A

Problem Management

229
Q

Documents problem history that includes problem detection to resolution information.Provides opportunity to learn lesson for future problem handling.

A

Problem Management

230
Q

Identifies the root cause of a problem and initiates the most appropriate solution for the problems.

A

Problem Management

231
Q

Goal of Problem Management

A

To prevent incidents from exhibiting the common symptom, called the “Problem”, from happening, and to minimize the adverse impact of the incidents that cannot be prevented.

232
Q

Third Level Support

A

Hardware and software manufacturers

233
Q

First level support

A

Service Desk

234
Q

Prioritizes incidents based on their severity.

A

Incident Management

235
Q

Corrects errors or failures to bring back Cloud services within targeted timeframe.

A

Incident Management

236
Q

Documents incident history that includes incident detection to resolution information.- Used as input for Problem Management

A

Incident Management

237
Q

Transfers error correction activity to Problem Management, if unable to determine the root cause of an incident.

A

Incident Management

238
Q

Provides temporary solutions to return Cloud services, for example, migrating a service to another resource pool in same or different VDC.

A

Incident Management

239
Q

Involves multiple support groups to solve incidents.

A

Incident Management

240
Q

Goal of Incident Management

A

To return Cloud services to consumers as quickly as possible when unplanned events, called “incidents”, cause interruption to services or degrade service qualities.

241
Q

Analyzes performance statistics, and identifies resources and services that are performing below the expected level.

A

Performance Management

242
Q

Implements changes in resource configuration to improve performance of the resources and consequently cloud services.

A

Performance Management

243
Q

Determines the required capacity of Cloud infrastructure resources and services to meet the expected performance level.

A

Performance Management

244
Q

Works with Capacity Management to implement capacity changes.

A

Performance Management

245
Q

Monitors and measures performance of Cloud Infrastructure resources and services.

A

Performance Management

246
Q

Goal of Performance Management

A

To monitor, measure, analyze, and improve the performance of Cloud infrastructure and services.

247
Q

Optimizes utilization of IT resources.

A

Capacity Management

248
Q

Adds capacity or reclaims excess capacity to/from VMs based on utilization of VMs.

A

Capacity Management

249
Q

Analyzes capacity consumption trends and plans for future capacity requirements.

A

Capacity Management

250
Q

Forecasts timing of potential capacity shortfalls.

A

Capacity Management

251
Q

Plans for procurement and provisioning of capacity when needed.

A

Capacity Management

252
Q

Identifies over-utilized, under-utilized, and un-utilized resources.

A

Capacity Management

253
Q

Monitors and analyzes utilization of Cloud infrastructure resources.

A

Capacity Management

254
Q

Goal of Capacity Management

A

To ensure that Cloud Infrastructure is able to meet the required capacity demands for Cloud services in a cost effective and timely manner.

255
Q

Checks veracity of information about CIs periodically to ensure that the information in the CMDB is a representation of the CIs used to provide Cloud services.

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

256
Q

Updates CMDB when new CIs are deployed or when attributes of CIs change.

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

257
Q

CMDB

A

Configuration Management Database

258
Q

Used by all Cloud service management processes to handle problems and changes in Cloud infrastructure and services.

A

Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

259
Q

Maintains information about CIs in one or more federated databases called Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

260
Q

Helps identifying root cause of the problem and assessing the impact of any change in the relationship among CIs.

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

261
Q

Maintains information on inter-relationships among CIs (e.g, a service to its consumer, a VM to a service).

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

262
Q

Keeps information on used and available capacity of CIs and any issues linked to CIs

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

263
Q

Maintains information on attributes of Cloud Infrastructure resources (i.e., CI name, manufacturer name, serial number, version).

A

Service Asset and Configuration Management

264
Q

Configuration Items (CIs)

A

Attributes of Cloud services and Cloud Infrastructure resources

265
Q

Goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management

A

To maintain information on Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationship.

266
Q

9 Processes in Cloud Service Management

A

1) Service Asset and Configuration Management 2) Capacity Management 3) Performance Management 4) Incident Management 5) Problem Management 6) Availability Management 7) Service Catalog Management 8) Financial Management 9) Compliance Management

267
Q

Processes that work in the background to ensure all services perform as committed.

A

Cloud Service Management Processes

268
Q

To what do service management processes align delivery of Cloud services?

A

1) To an organization’s business objectives. 2) To the expectation of Cloud service consumers.

269
Q

Set of processes that enable and optimize Cloud services in order to satisfy business requirements and provide value to consumers.

A

Cloud Service Management

270
Q

Provides transparency between a consumer and a provider.

A

Chargeback report

271
Q

Generates chargeback report, visible to consumers.

A

User Access Management Software

272
Q

Monitors allocation or usage of resources associated with each Cloud service instance.

A

User Access Management Software

273
Q

Authenticates consumers before fulfilling their service requests.

A

User Access Management Software

274
Q

Allows an administrator to create and publish a service catalog.

A

User Access Management Software

275
Q

Interacts with unified management software and forwards all service requests.

A

User Access Management Software

276
Q

Provides a web-based user interface to consumers and allows consumers to request Cloud services.

A

User Access Management Software

277
Q

What do service instances obtain from appropriate bundles?

A

Compute, network, and storage capacity

278
Q

Service instances get resources based on what?

A

Predefined service attributes

279
Q

How is a service instance created?

A

VMs are constructed and integrated with virtual network (VLAN) and virtual volume (virtual disk).

280
Q

Process of creating service instances and allocating resources from bundles to service instances, when consumers request services.

A

Distributing resources

281
Q

Elements of a backup policy

A

Number of backup copies of a service instance.Location of backup data.

282
Q

Service attributes

A
  • CPU, memory, network bandwidth, and storage capacity;- Name and description of applications and platform softwares;- VDC location from where resources are to be allocated;- Backup policy
283
Q

Service attributes are associated with what?

A

Virtual Machines

284
Q

Process of documenting attributes of all Cloud services that are to be created from different bundles.

A

Defining services

285
Q

True or False: A bundle may be associated with application and/or platform software used to create an IaaS Cloud service.

A

False. A bundle may be associated with application and/or platform software used to create Cloud services OTHER THAN Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). (So true, except for IaaS services).

286
Q

Process of integrating a graded compute pool (CPU + memory) with a graded network pool and a graded storage pool.

A

Bundling resources

287
Q

Example of ‘Bronze’ Grade Storage Pool

A
  • Includes FC drives;- No automated storage tiering; - Capacity 2TB;- RAID level 5
288
Q

Example of Grade ‘Gold’ Storage Pool

A
  • Includes Flash, FC, and SATA drives;- Supports automated storage tiering; - Capacity 3TB (Flash 1TB, FC 1TB, SATA 1TB)- RAID level 5
289
Q

Example of Grade ‘Silver’ Storage Pool

A
  • Includes Flash, FC, and SATA drives;- Supports automated storage tiering; - Capacity 3TB (Flash 0.5TB, FC 1TB, SATA 1.5TB)- RAID level 1+0
290
Q

Used to create a VARIETY of Cloud services

A

Graded Pools

291
Q

Defines multiple grade levels (e.g., Bronze, Silver, Gold) for each type pool (compute, storage, network).

A

Grading resources

292
Q

Process to categorize pools based on performance and capacity.

A

Grading resources

293
Q

Key function of a unified management software

A

To create Cloud services

294
Q

Four series of processes used by Unified Management Software to construct Cloud services

A

1) Grading resources 2) Bundling resources 3) Defining resources 4) Distributing resources

295
Q

Performs a series of processes to construct Cloud services

A

Unified Management Software

296
Q

Creates Cloud services

A

Unified Management Software

297
Q

Sends configuration commands to respective virtual infrastructure management software.Eliminates SEPARATE administration of compute, storage, and network.

A

Unified Management Software

298
Q

Provides a single interface to:- Create virtual resources and pools.- Add capacity and identity to existing pools.

A

Unified Management Software

299
Q

Provides a consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across VDCs.Helps in monitoring performance, capacity, and availability of resources.

A

Unified Management Software

300
Q

Software that interacts with the virtual infrastructure management software and user access management software.

A

Unified Management Software

301
Q

True or False: In a VDC, typically, compute, storage, and network resources (within physical and virtual infrastructure) are configured INDEPENDENTLY using a different virtual infrastructure management software.

A

TRUE

302
Q

Type of Virtual Infrastructure Management Software used to:- Create CPU and memory pool,- Create Virtual Machines (VMs) and allocate them CPU, memory and storage capacity.

A

Compute management software

303
Q

Network management software

A

Type of Virtual Infrastructure Management Software used to:- Create VLAN ID and VSAN ID pools,- Assign VLAN IDs and VSAN IDs to virtual and physical switch ports,- Create zone sets and include nodes into zones,- Create network bandwidth pool and allocate bandwidth to VLANs associated with VM port groups.

304
Q

Type of Virtual Infrastructure Management Software used to:- Create storage pools,- Create virtual volumes, and- Assign virtual volumes to servers.

A

Storage management software

305
Q

Virtual Infrastructure Management Software

A

Provides interfaces to construct virtual infrastructure from underlying physical infrastructure. Enables configuring pools and virtual resources. A discrete tool to configure compute, storage, and network resources independently. Sits under and talks to the Unified Management software.

306
Q

Interact among themselves to automate provisioning of Cloud services

A

Cloud Infrastructure Management and Service Creation Tools

307
Q

Three classifications of Cloud Infrastructure Management and Service Creation Tools

A

1) Virtual infrastructure management software (bottom layer) 2) Unified management software (middle layer) 3) User access management software (top layer)

308
Q

Suite of tools that:1) Manage physical and virtual infrastructures.2) Handle service requests and provisions Cloud services.3) Provide administrators a single management interface to manage resources across VDCs.

A

Cloud Infrastructure Management and Service Creation Tools

309
Q

For which service do consumers upload both applications and platform software to the Cloud?

A

Infrastructure-as-a-Service

310
Q

For what service is platform software only provided by the CSP?

A

Platform-as-a-Service

311
Q

For which service are applications and platform softwares provided by the CSPs?

A

Software-as-a-Service

312
Q

Used to deploy a consumer’s applications and platform softwares to the Cloud

A

Migration Tools

313
Q

What services are created from Applications and Platform Softwares?

A

Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) - Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)

314
Q

Where are applications and platform softwares hosted?

A

On virtual machines

315
Q

Used to build environments for applications to run in.

A

Platform softwares such as OS and database

316
Q

Suite of softwares that may include:- business applications- platform softwares such as OS and database- migration tools

A

Applications and Platform Software

317
Q

From what do virtual IT resources gain capacities such as CPU cycles, memory, network bandwidth, and storage space?

A

From the resource pools

318
Q

How are virtual networks defined?

A

Using network identifiers such as VLAN IDs and VSAN IDs from the respective identity pools.

319
Q

Types of Virtual IT Resources

A

Virtual Machines (VMs) - Virtual Volumes - Virtual Networks (VLAN and VSAN) - VM Network Components (virtual switches and virtual NICs)

320
Q

Types of Identity Pools

A

VLAN ID Identity Pools - VSAN ID Identity Pools - MAC Address Identity Pools

321
Q

Type of Resource Pools

A

CPU Resource Pools - Memory Resource Pools - Network Bandwidth Resource Pools - Storage Resource Pools

322
Q

Three Primary Components of Virtual Infrastructure

A

1) Resource Pools 2) Identity Pools 3) Virtual IT Resources

323
Q

Enables both migration of Cloud services across data centers and provisioning Cloud services using resources from multiple data centers.

A

Physical Infrastructure

324
Q

Four types of physical networks

A

1) IP Network 2) FC SAN 3) IP SAN 4) FCoE

325
Q

True or False: Physical resources may be located in a single data center or distributed across multiple data centers.

A

TRUE

326
Q

Included in physical infrastructure

A

Physical IT resources including:- Physical Servers- Storage Systems- Physical Network Components

327
Q

Cloud infrastructure framework components are aggregated to provide what?

A

Cloud services

328
Q

Four Components of the Cloud Infrastructure Framework

A

1) Physical Infrastructure 2) Virtual Infrastructure 3) Applications and Platform Software 4) Cloud Infrastructure Management and Service Creation Tools

329
Q

Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers.b. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory and storage capacity.

A

a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers.

330
Q

Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing utilization of IT resources?a. Service asset and configuration managementb. Financial managementc. Compliance managementd. Capacity management

A

d. Capacity management

331
Q

Which is a key activity in problem management?a. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possible.b. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures.c. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDB.

A

b. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures.

332
Q

Which option best describes ‘resource bundling’ in Cloud service creation?b. Integrating VM, virtual network and virtual volume.c. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services.d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools.

A

d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools.

333
Q

Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in a Cloud?a. Management softwareb. Storage arrayc. Network identity poold. Service catalog

A

c. Network identity pool

334
Q

Second Level Support

A

Technical Support Group

335
Q

Improves VM performance by offloading file scanning and other tasks from VMs to the security VM.

A

VMware vShield Endpoint

336
Q

VMware vShield Endpoint

A

Comprises a hardened, special security VM that hosts the third-party anti-virus software. File scanning and other tasks are offloaded from VMs to the security VM. Antivirus engine and signature files are updated ONLY within the security VM. Prevents antivirus storms and bottlenecks associated with multiple simultaneous antivirus and anti-malware scans and updates.

337
Q

Enables enforcement of a policy restricting traffic within a VDC to specified port groups at the hypervisor level.

A

Port Group Isolation

338
Q

VMware vShield Edge

A

Deployed as a virtual appliance and serves as a network security gateway. Provides network security services including firewall and site-to-site VPN. Eliminates the need for creating VLANs by creating a barrier between the protected VMs and external network. Simplifies IT compliance with detailed logging.

339
Q

VMware vShield App

A

Protects applications in a VDC environment from network-based threats. Provides visibility into network communications and enforces granular policies with security groups. Serves as hypervisor level firewall solution.Inbound / outbound connection control enforced at the virtual NIC level.

340
Q

RSA Archer eGRC

A

Supports business-level management of governance, risk, and compliance. Provides automated deployment workflow, configuration measurement, incident notification, and reporting. Provides single business view of compliance for both physical and virtual infrastructure.

341
Q

Provides two-factors authentication.Provides one-time-password capability.

A

RSA SecureID

342
Q

Preferred Cloud model for many enterprises so they can ensure all the necessary policy compliances.

A

Hybrid Cloud Deployment Model

343
Q

Includes legal legislations and industry regulations.Controls the nature of IT operations related to flow of data out of an organization.May differ based upon the type of information, business, etc.

A

External Regulatory Compliance

344
Q

Controls the nature of IT operations within an organization.Needs to maintain some compliance even when operating in Cloud.

A

Internal Policy Compliance

345
Q

Types of compliance

A

1) Internal policy compliance 2) External regulatory compliance

346
Q

4 Steps to perform Risk Assessment

A

1) Identifying critical and sensitive assets (data, applications, and processes). 2) Identifying potential risks. 3) Classifying risks into severity levels. 4) Associating potential risks with critical assets.

347
Q

Aims to identify potential risks while operating in a Cloud environment.Should be performed before moving to a Cloud.Used to determine the actual scope for Cloud adoption.

A

Risk Assessment

348
Q

Regulation that mandates vulnerability scanning in a public Cloud

A

Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance

349
Q

Generally forbidden in a public Cloud due to multitenancy concerns.

A

Vulnerability scanning

350
Q

Aims to discover potential security vulnerabilities in the system by scanning its resources (compute, storage, and network).

A

Vulnerability assessment or testing

351
Q

Key contract termination considerations for a Cloud user

A

1) Developing a contingency plan for handling data. 2) Migrating the data, including time to migrate the data. 3) Shredding the data on the Cloud after its migration.

352
Q

Situations where a contract termination is required

A

1) The CSP goes out of business and winds up its services. 2) The CSP cancels the contract. 3) There is a natural closure for the contracted services.

353
Q

An Information Security Management System standard and formally specifies requirements to bring information security under explicit management control.

A

ISO 27001

354
Q

Among various Cloud deployment models, offers the maximum information flow regulation.

A

Private Clouds

355
Q

May limit adoption of public Clouds for applications handling sensitive data.

A

Information (data) flow regulations

356
Q

Could constrain the flow of information in the Cloud.

A

National and international regulations

357
Q

Allows a business to build an efficient, collaborative enterprise governance, risk and compliance (eGRC) program across IT, Finance, Operations, and Legal domains.

A

Enterprise GRC (eGRC) solution

358
Q

Refers to the policies, processes, laws, and institutions that define the structure by which companies are directed and managed.

A

Governance

359
Q

A coordinated activity to direct and control an organization, and to realize business potential while managing negative events.

A

Risk Management

360
Q

Refers to the effect of uncertainty on business objectives.

A

Risk

361
Q

Refers to the act of adhering to and demonstrating adherence to external laws and regulations as well as corporate policies and procedures.

A

Compliance

362
Q

Includes identification of critical assets, potential risks, and the classification of critical assets into risk categories.

A

Risk assessment

363
Q

Process of managing the trust relationships among distinct organizations beyond the internal network or administrative boundaries.

A

Federated Identity Management

364
Q

Association of organizations that come together to exchange information about their users and resources to enable collaborations and transactions.

A

Federation

365
Q

Open standard for decentralized authentication and access control.Can be used while allowing users to log onto many services using the same digital identity.

A

OpenID

366
Q

Three methods for Identity Management (IM) in the Cloud

A

1) One-time passwords 2) Federated Identity Management 3) OpenID

367
Q

Enables organizations to authenticate their users of Cloud services using the chosen identity provider.Allows user identities across different organizations to be managed together to enable collaboration in the Cloud.

A

Federated Identity Management

368
Q

True or False: User groups can be imported using LDAP-based directory services of the client organization for client installations in the Cloud.

A

TRUE

369
Q

True or False: CSPs may also use RBAC to control administrative access to the hypervisor management system (console).

A

TRUE

370
Q

Can be enabled for Cloud clients by importing user groups using directory services of the client organization.

A

Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

371
Q

RBAC

A

Role Based Access Control

372
Q

Resource access (permissions) is given to subjects (users and processes) based upon their roles.

A

Role Based Access Control

373
Q

True or False: MAC/WWPN binding and VLAN restrictions should be applied to physical Ethernet switches.

A

TRUE

374
Q

Restricted Port Access Practices

A

1) Leave unused ports in disabled state. 2) Bind specific devices to designated ports.

375
Q

Methods for physical security in the VDC and Cloud

A

1) Restricted Port Access 2) CCTV-based Video Surveillance 3) 24/7/365 Onsite Guarded Security 4) Biometric Authentication-based Physical Access

376
Q

Critical feature for data security in a Cloud infrastructure

A

Data shredding

377
Q

Permanently removes all the traces of the deleted data.

A

Data shredding

378
Q

Traces of deleted data include what items

A

Logs of VM or application executions. Logs of old files, folders, and other resources. Logs of data communication.

379
Q

Key method to encrypt data-at-rest residing on a disk.

A

Full disk encryption

380
Q

Advantages of encryption of data-at-rest

A

1) Provides confidentiality and integrity services. 2) Reduces legal liabilities of a CSP due to an unauthorized disclosure of data on the CSP’s cloud.

381
Q

Data which is not being transferred over a network.

A

Data-at-rest

382
Q

Security protection for the storage utilized by the hypervisor for VMs

A

Using separate LUNs for VM components and for VM data.Segregating VM traffic from hypervisor storage and management traffic.

383
Q

Used to restrict access to the storage arrays in a SAN

A

WWPN and WWNN LUN masking

384
Q

More centralized location for Intrusion Detection on a single server

A

ID at the hypervisor level

385
Q

A network DMZ established in a virtualized environment using virtual network infrastructure.

A

Virtualized DMZ

386
Q

Adds additional layer of security against external attacks.

A

Physical or logical (virtualized) DMZ

387
Q

Gives visibility and control over VM traffic and enforces policies at the VM level.

A

Virtual firewall

388
Q

Firewall service running on the hypervisor.

A

Virtual Firewall (VF)

389
Q

Vulnerable applications should be prevented from what?

A

1) Launching any (untrusted) executable file. 2) Creating or modifying executable files. 3) Modifying sensitive areas of the guest OS (e.g., the Windows registry).

390
Q

Used for separating the execution of an untrusted application from unverified third-parties, suppliers, and untrusted users.

A

Sandbox

391
Q

Provides a tightly controlled set of resources for the application to execute, such as scratch space on disk and memory.

A

Sandbox

392
Q

Helps prevent a compromised guest OS and applications running on it from impacting other VMs.

A

VM Isolation

393
Q

Security mechanisms to protect storage

A

Access Control - Zoning and LUN Masking for SAN security - Encryption of data-at-rest - Data shredding - Security for storage utilized by the hypervisor itself (for example, a VMFS supporting multiple VMs within a cluster)- Use separate LUNs for VM components and VM data.- Segregate VM traffic from hypervisor storage and management traffic.

394
Q

SAN security vulnerabilities

A

Fabric access to an unauthorized device.WWN Spoofing

395
Q

Who provides intrusion detection in Cloud in an IaaS model?

A

Intrusion detection is set up by the client.

396
Q

Who provides intrusion detection in Cloud in a PaaS model?

A

Intrusion detection at local level provided by the Cloud Service Provider

397
Q

Who provides intrusion detection in Cloud in a SaaS model?

A

Provided by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

398
Q

Where Intrusion Detection (ID) can occur in a VDC environment

A

At guest OS level; Using separate VM; At hypervisor level; At virtual network level; At physical network level

399
Q

IDS type that is a combination of server and network-based approaches

A

Integrated IDS

400
Q

IDS type that:1) Analyzes network traffic and communicating nodes.2) Poorer view of the system and low vulnerability for an attack on IDS itself.

A

Network based IDS

CIS Test 3 (1 decks)

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