CIS Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Configure / design for optimal operational efficiency.Performance analysisVolume management, DB/application layout.ISL design for SANsChoice of RAID type and LUNs

A

Performance Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Establishes guidelines for all configurations to achieve high availability based on service level requirements.

A

Availability Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disadvantage of target based deduplication

A

Increased network bandwidth and storage capacity requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Disadvantage of source based deduplication

A

Increased overhead on the backup client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Advantage of source based deduplication

A

Reduced storage capacity and network bandwidth requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of deduplication where backup client sends native data to the backup device.

A

Target based deduplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type of deduplication where backup client sends only new, unique segments across the network to the backup device.

A

Source-based deduplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Two types of deduplication

A

1) Source based (client) 2) Target based (storage device)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type of backup usually created from the most recent full backup and all the incremental backups performed thereafter.

A

Synthetic (or constructed) backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type of backup used in implementations where the production volume resources cannot be exclusively reserved for a backup process for extended periods.

A

Synthetic (or constructed) backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of backup which takes longer than an incremental backup, but is faster to restore.

A

Cumulative (or differential) backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Backup which copies the data that has changed since the last full backup.

A

Cumulative (or differential) backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A backup of the complete data on the production volumes at a certain point in time.

A

Full backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Additional copy of data that can be used for restore and recovery purposes.

A

Backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Provides the functionality to recognize and utilize alternate I/O path to data.

A

Multipathing software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Solutions and supporting technologies that enable business continuity and uninterrupted data availability

A

1) Eliminating single points of failure. 2) Multi-pathing software 3) Backup / restore 4) Replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Provides RTO of 72 hours.

A

Restore from backup tapes at a cold site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Provides RTO of 12 hours.

A

Restore from tapes at a hot site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Provides RTO of 4 hours

A

Use of data vault to a hot site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Provides RTO of ~1 hour.

A

Cluster production servers with controller-based disk mirroring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Provides RTO of a few seconds.

A

Cluster production servers with bi-directional mirroring, enabling the applications to run at both sites simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

A

Time within which systems, applications, or functions must be recovered after an outage. Amount of downtime that a business can endure and survive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

A

Point in time to which systems and data must be recovered. Amount of data loss that a business can endure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Site where an enterprise’s operations can be moved in the event of disaster and where the DR site infrastructure is up and running all the time.

A

Hot Site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type of site where the IT infrastructure required to support DR is NOT activated.

A

Cold site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Group of servers and other necessary resources, coupled to operate as a single system.

A

Cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Coordinated process of restoring systems, data, and infrastructure required to support ongoing business operations in the event of a disaster.

A

Disaster Recovery (DR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Processes and/or procedures for ensuring continued business operations.

A

Business Continuity (BC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Having a single data model and toolset for unified storage enables a consistent management framework across many applications and workloads.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: In an object level access, data is access over a network in terms of self contained objects, using object IDs.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Required to effectively pool storage and provide data access at file level, block level, and object level.

A

Unified Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Provides consolidated management interface for NAS, SAN, iSCSI, FCoE, and object-based technologies.

A

Unified Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a driver for object based storage?

A

Increasing amounts of unstructured data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is an object identified in an object based storage environment?

A

By a unique object ID.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Limit on number of files in object based storage environment

A

No limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is used to generate an object ID?

A

Hashing function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Stores data in a flat address space

A

Object based storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Combines data with rich metadata to create an “object”.

A

Object Based Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Eight Benefits of NAS

A

1) Supports comprehensive access to information. 2) Provides improved efficiency. 3) Provides improved flexibility. 4) Provides centralized storage. 5) Simplifies management. 6) Enables scalability. 7) Provides high availability - through native clustering. 8) Provides security integration to environment (user authentication and authorization).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Two options available for FCoE cabling

A

Twinax copper - Optical fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Four Benefits of Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

A

1) Lowers CAPEX 2) Reduces power and cooling requirements 3) Enables consolidation of network infrastructure 4) Lowers TCO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Enables distributed FC SAN islands to be transparently interconnected over existing IP-based local, metro, and wide area networks.

A

FCIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

FC WWNs are similar to what used in IP networking?

A

MAC addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Length of a Fibre Channel address

A

24 bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

E_ports connect to what type of ports?

A

E-ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

N_ports connect to what type of ports?

A

F_ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fundamental purpose of a SAN

A

To provide compute access to storage resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

High end switches with a higher port count and better fault tolerance capabilities.

A

Directors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Three basic components of a SAN

A

1) Servers (compute systems) 2) Network infrastructure 3) Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Protocol used by a FC SAN

A

SCSI over FC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Concept-based storage networking technologies

A

1) Object-based storage2) Unified storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Provides interconnection between CPU and attached devices.Latest version provides throughput of 133 MB/sec.

A

Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How can communication between compute and storage be accomplished?

A

By using channel or network technologies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Network protocol examples

A

iSCSI (SCSI over IP) - FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) - FC (Fibre Channel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Examples of channel protocols

A

PCIIDE/ATA/SATASCSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Protocols typically used for compute to compute communication

A

Ethernet or TCIP/IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why is the LUN masking function implemented on the storage processor / controller?

A

To ensure that the volume access by servers is controlled appropriately, preventing unauthorized or accidental use in a shared environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where is the LUN masking function implemented?

A

On the storage processor / controller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Process that provides data access control by defining which LUNs a compute system can access.

A

LUN Masking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How is access to LUNs by a compute system controlled?

A

LUN masking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Logical Unit Number (LUN)

A

A unique ID assigned to each logical unit created from the RAID set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is done with Logical Units after they are created?

A

After creation, LUs are then assigned to the compute system for their storage requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How are Logical Units created from a RAID set?

A

By partitioning (seen as slices of the RAID set) the available capacity into smaller units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or False: RAID sets usually have large capacities because they combine the total capacity of individual drives in the set.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How should a RAID set be created?

A

The RAID set should be created from the same type, speed and capacity drives to ensure the maximum usable capacity, reliability, and consistent performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What determines the availability, capacity, and performance of a RAID set in an ISS?

A

Two things: 1) the number of drives in the RAID set, and 2) the RAID level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How are physical disks configured in an Intelligent Storage System (ISS)?

A

In an ISS, physical disks are logically grouped together to form a set, call a RAID set, on which a required RAID level is applied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Key advantage of an Intelligent Storage System

A

A read request can be serviced DIRECTLY FROM CACHE if the requested data is found in cache.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Four Components of an Intelligent Storage System

A

1) Front-end 2) Cache 3) Back-end 4) Physical Disks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Why are Intelligent Storage Systems needed?

A

Disk drives alone, even with a RAID implementation, could not meet performance requirements of today’s applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

RAID array highly optimized for high performance I/O processing.Has large amounts of cache for improving I/O performance.Has multiple I/O paths.Has operating environment that provides intelligence for managing cache.

A

Intelligent Storage System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Commonly used RAID Levels

A

RAID 0 - RAID 1 - Nested - RAID 3 - RAID 5 - RAID 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

RAID 6

A

Distributed parity RAID with dual parity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

RAID 5

A

Parity RAID with distributed parity across all the disks in the set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

RAID 3

A

Parity RAID with DEDICATED parity disk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Nested RAID

A

Combinations of RAID levels.Example: RAID 1 + RAID 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

RAID 1

A

Disk mirroring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

RAID 0

A

Striping with NO FAULT TOLERANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Disadvantage of Parity

A

Parity information is generated from data on the disks.As a result, parity is recalculated every time there is a change in data.This recalculation takes time and affects the performance during write operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens if a disk fails in a parity-enabled RAID set?

A

If one of the disks fails in a RAID set, the value of the failed disk’s data is calculated by using the parity information and the data on the surviving disks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What calculates parity?

A

Calculation of parity is a function of the RAID controller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Parity calculation method

A

Bitwise XOR2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where / how can parity information be stored?

A

Parity information can be stored: 1) On separate, dedicated disk drives, or 2) Distributed across all the drives in a RAID set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Why is Parity RAID less expensive than Mirroring?

A

Because parity overhead is only a fraction of the total capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A mathematical construct that allows re-creation of the missing data.

A

Parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

RAID method of protecting striped data from disk failure without the cost of mirroring.

A

Parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is Nested RAID?

A

Nested RAID is mirroring implemented with striped RAID, where entire stripes of a disk set are mirrored to stripes on the other disk set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why is mirroring expensive?

A

Because mirroring involves duplication of data - the amount of storage capacity required is twice the amount of data being stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why does mirroring improve read performance?

A

Because read requests are serviced by both disks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Why does write performance deteriorate with mirroring?

A

Because each write request manifests as two writes on the disk drives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

RAID technique that improves performance because read requests are serviced by both disks, but results in diminished write performance.

A

Mirroring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

RAID technique where data is stored on two different disk drives, yielding two copies of data.

A

Mirroring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Benefit of RAID striping

A

Allows more data to be processed in a shorter time. Performance increases, when compared to writing / retrieving data to / from one disk at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

True or False: With RAID striping, all read-write heads work simultaneously.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Does RAID striping provide fault tolerance?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

RAID technique of spreading data across multiple drives in order to use the drives in parallel.

A

Striping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Helps implement RAID techniques of striping, mirroring, and parity.

A

RAID controller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

RAID techniques that form the basis for defining various RAID levels and determine the data availability and performance of a RAID set.

A

Striping, mirroring, and parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How does RAID technology improve storage system performance?

A

By serving I/Os from multiple disks simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Benefits of RAID technology

A

1) Data protection against drive failures 2) Improved storage system performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Three RAID techniques

A

1) Striping 2) Mirroring 3) Parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Improves storage system performance by serving I/Os from multiple disks simultaneously.

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Technology which utilizes multiple disk drives as a set to provide protection, capacity, and/or performance benefits.Overcomes limitations of disk drives.

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Provides ultra high performance required by mission-critical applications.Very low latency per I/O.Low power requirements.Very high throughput per drive.

A

Solid State Drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Random read/write access.Uses mechanical parts for data access.Most popular storage device with large storage capacity.Will eventually fail.

A

Disk Drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Write Once and Read Many (WORM)Limited in capacity and speedPopular in small, single-user environments

A

Optical Disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Low cost solution for long term data storage.Sequential data access.Subject to physical wear and tear.Subject to storage / retrieval overheads.

A

Tape Drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Four Basic Storage Device Options

A

1) Tape Drive 2) Optical Disk 3) Disk Drive 4) Solid State Drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Types of media that may be used by a storage device

A

Magnetic Media - Optical Media - Solid State Media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Type of storage device used is based on what?

A

1) Type of data 2) Rate at which it is created and used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

A resource that stores data persistently for subsequent use.

A

Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Enables the OS to recognize a device and to use a standard interface (provided as an API) to access and control devices.

A

Device driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Special software that permits the OS to interact with a specific device (e.g., printer, mouse, or hard drive).

A

Device driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Provides a set of OS commands, library subroutines, and other tools that enable the creation and control of logical storage.

A

Logical Volume Managers (LVM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

True or False: The logical storage structures appear contiguous to the OS and applications.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Have the ability to define logical storage structures that can span multiple physical devices.

A

Logical Volume Managers (LVM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Introduce a logical layer between the OS and physical storage.

A

Logical Volume Manager (LVM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Provides basic security for the access and usage of all managed resources.

A

Operating System (OS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Performs basic storage management tasks while managing other underlying components, such as the file system, volume manager, and device drivers.

A

Operating System (OS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

One of the most important services provided by the OS to the application.

A

Data access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Works between the application and physical components of the compute system

A

Operating System (OS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Monitors and responds to user actions and the environment.

A

Operating System (OS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Controls all aspects of a computing environment.

A

Operating System (OS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Where can files reside?

A

Within a disk drive, a disk partition, or a logical volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Hierarchical structure of files

A

File system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Four Logical Components of a Compute System

A

1) File System 2) Operating System 3) Volume Manager 4) Device Drivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Checkup mechanism between two nodes in a cluster to see whether a node is up and running

A

Exchange Heartbeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Software that connects the nodes in the cluster and provides a single-system view to the clients that are using the cluster.

A

Cluster service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Method of grouping two or more servers (also known as Nodes) and making them work together as a single system.

A

Server Clustering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Benefits of blades server technology

A

1) Greatly increased server density. 2) Lower power and cooling costs. 3) Easier server expansion. 4) Simplified datacenter management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Provides increased server performance and availability without increase in size, cost, or complexity.

A

Blade server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Enables the addition of server modules as hot-pluggable components

A

Blade server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Consolidates power- and system-level function into a single integrated chassis.

A

Blade server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Commonly used to deploy compute systems in a CDC

A

Blade server technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Examples of compute systems

A

laptops / desktops - blade servers - complex cluster of servers - mainframes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Connectivity outlet on a HBA

A

Port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Provide connectivity outlets, known as ports, to connect the compute systems to the storage device.

A

Host Bus Adapter (HBA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Example of a host controller that connects compute systems to Fibre Channel storage devices.

A

Host Bus Adapter (HBA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Type of communication handled by basic I/O devices such as keyboard, mouse, etc.

A

User to compute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Type of communication enabled using host controller or host adapter

A

Compute to compute / storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Type of compute facilitated by I/O devices

A

1) User to compute 2) Compute to compute / storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Physical components of compute

A

CPUMemory - Input/Output (I/O) devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Consists of physical components (hardware devices) and logical components (software and protocols).

A

Compute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Resource that runs applications with the help of underlying computing components.

A

Compute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Examples of DBMSs

A

MySQL - Oracle RDBMS - SQL Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Collection of computer programs that control the creation, maintenance, and use of databases.Processes an application’s request for data.Instructs the OS to retrieve the appropriate data from storage.

A

Database Management System (DBMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Structured way to store data in logically organized tables that are interrelated.

A

Database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Three tiers of a typical business application that uses databases.

A

1) Front-end tier: the application user interface. 2) Middle tier: the computing logic or the application itself. 3) Back-end tier: the underlying databases that organize the data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Four types of business applications

A

1) Email 2) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) 3) Decision Support System (DSS) 4) Data Warehouse (DW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Two types of management applications

A

1) Resource management 2) Performance tuning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Two types of data protection applications

A

1) Backup 2) Replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Four Types of Applications Commonly Deployed in a CDC

A

1) Business applications 2) Management applications 3) Data protection applications 4) Security applications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Two key I/O characteristics of an application

A

1) Read intensive vs. write intensive 2) Sequential vs. random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How can manageability be achieved?

A

Through automation and reduction of manual intervention in common tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Seven Key Requirements of a Data Center

A
  1. Manageability 2. Availability 3. Performance 4. Flexibility 5. Scalability 6. Security 7. Data Integrity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Product which offers CDP and CRR functionality

A

EMC Recover Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

VNX based local replication software that creates point-in-time views or point-in-time copies of logical volumes.

A

EMC Snapview

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Family of products used for full volume and pointer-based local replication in Symmetrix storage arrray

A

EMC Timefinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Symmetrix software that performs SAN-based remote replication between Symmetrix and qualified storage arrays.Has full or incremental copy capabilities.

A

EMC Open Replicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

VNX-basaed software that enables storage array based remote replication

A

EMC MirrorView

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Offers a family of technology solutions to implement storage array based remote replication technologies.

A

EMC Symmetrix Remote Data Facility (SRDF)

162
Q

SRDF

A

Symmetrix Remote Data Facility

163
Q

Works with EMC Avamar and EMC Data Domain

A

EMC Networker

164
Q

Provides centralized, automated backup and recovery operations across an enterprise.Provides both source-based and target-based deduplication capabilities by integrating with Avamar and Data Domain, respectively.

A

EMC Networker

165
Q

Target-based data deduplication solution with Data Invulnerability Architecture

A

EMC Data Domain

166
Q

How does Avamar differ from traditional backup and recovery solutions?

A

Avamar identifies and stores only the unique sub-file data objects.

167
Q

Disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based data deduplication

A

EMC Avamar

168
Q

Key ability of multi-protocol switches in a SAN environment

A

They can bridge FC-SAN and IP SAN, a feature that enables these devices to provide connectivity between iSCSI initators and FC storage targets. They also can extend a FC SAN over long distances through IP networks.

169
Q

EMC Connectrix Family

A

1) Enterprise directors (MDS-9513, DCX) 2) Departmental switches 3) Multi-protocol routers (MP-7800B)

170
Q

Key components of a SAN environment

A

Fibre Channel switches and directors

171
Q

Provides simplified storage management and provisioning, and options such as additional replication, migration and volume configuration.

A

Enginuity

172
Q

Operating environment for Symmetrix VMAX

A

Enginuity

173
Q

Intelligent storage system built on Virtual Matrix architecture

A

EMC Symmetrix VMAX

174
Q

Proactive strategy that enables an IT organization to effectively align the business value of information with the most appropriate and cost-effective infrastructure, from the time information is created, through its final disposition.

A

Information Lifecycle Management (ILM)

175
Q

Used to restrict unauthorized HBAs in a SAN environment

A

Configuration of Zoning

176
Q

Prevents data corruption on the storage array by restricting compute access to a defined set of logical devices.

A

LUN Masking

177
Q

Key Capacity Management Activities

A

Trend and Capacity Analysis - Storage Provisioning

178
Q

Types of Reports

A

Capacity Planning Report - Chargeback Report - Performance

179
Q

Ensures adequate availability of resources based on their service level requirements.Manages resources allocation.

A

Capacity Management

180
Q

Three Levels of Alerts Based on Severity

A

Information Alert - Warning Alert - Fatal Alert

181
Q

Integral part of monitoring

A

Alerting

182
Q

Key components of a CDC that should be monitored

A

Compute systems, network, and storage

183
Q

Four Key Parameters to be monitored

A

1) Accessibility 2) Capacity 3) Performance 4) Security

184
Q

6 Key Management Activities in a CDC

A

1) Monitoring and Alerting 2) Reporting 3) Availability Management 4) Capacity Management 5) Performance Management 6) Security Management

185
Q

Dedicated volume on the SAN-attached storage at each site which stores configuration information about the CDP appliance.

A

Repository Volume

186
Q

Store all data changes on the primary storage

A

Journal volumes

187
Q

Intercepts write from initiator and splits each write into two copies

A

Write Splitter

188
Q

Storage Volumes

A

Repository volume, journal volume, and replication volume.

189
Q

Runs the CDP software and manages all the aspects of local and remote replication.

A

CDP Appliance

190
Q

All data changes are stored in a location separate from the primary storage.Recovery point objectives are arbitrary and need not be defined in advance of the actual recovery.

A

Continuous Data Protection (CDP)

191
Q

CDP Elements

A

CDP Appliance - Storage Volumes - Write Splitters

192
Q

Captures all writes and maintains consistent point in time images.

A

Continuous Data Protection (CDP)

193
Q

CDP

A

Continuous Data Protection

194
Q

Changes to data are continuously captured or tracked.

A

Continuous Data Protection (CDP)

195
Q

Allows replication between heterogeneous vendor storage arrays over SAN/WAN

A

SAN Based Replication

196
Q

Eliminates disadvantages of two site replication.Replicates data to two remote sites.

A

Three Site Replication

197
Q

Combination of local and remote replications.RPO usually on the order of hours.Low bandwidth requirements.Extended distance solution.

A

Disk Buffered Storage Array Based Remote Replication

198
Q

Three Modes of Operation for Storage Array Based Remote Replication

A

1) Synchronous Replication 2) Asynchronous Replication 3) Disk Buffered Replication

199
Q

Replication is performed by the array operating environment

A

Storage Array based Remote Replication

200
Q

Transactions to the source database are captured in logs, which are periodically transmitted by the source compute system to the remote compute system.Remote compute system applies these logs to the remote database.

A

Database Log Shipping Remote Replication

201
Q

All writes to the source Volume Group are replicated to the target Volume Group by the LVM.Can be in synchronous or asynchronous mode

A

LVM-based remote replication

202
Q

Two Compute Based Remote Replication Methods

A

1) LVM-based 2) Database Log Shipping

203
Q

Replication is done by using the CPU resources of the compute system, using software that is running on the compute.

A

Compute-based remote replication

204
Q

Replication model deployed over long distances.

A

Asynchronous Replication

205
Q

Write committed to the source and immediately acknowledged to the compute system.Data is buffered at the source and transmitted to the remote replica later.Application response time is unaffected.Needs only average network bandwidthNon-zero RPO

A

Asynchronous Replication

206
Q

Replication model rarely deployed beyond 200 km.

A

Synchronous replication

207
Q

A write must be committed to the source and remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system.Application response time will be extended.Maximum network bandwidth must be provided at all times to minimize impact on response time.

A

Synchronous replication

208
Q

Replica is behind the source by a finite time - finite RPO.

A

Asynchronous Replication

209
Q

Replica is identical to source at all times - near zero RPO

A

Synchronous Replication

210
Q

Two modes of remote replication

A

1) Synchronous2) Asynchronous

211
Q

Addresses risks associated with regionally driven outages.Network infrastructure is required between source and target.

A

Remote Replication

212
Q

Process of creating and maintaining copies of data from a production site to remote site(s).

A

Remote Replication

213
Q

Targets do not hold actual data, but hold pointers to where the data is located.Target requires only a small fraction of the size of the source volumes.Target devices are accessible at the start of session activation.Uses CoFW technology.

A

Pointer Based Virtual Replication

214
Q

Two modes of pointer based full volume replication

A

1) Copy on First Access (deferred) 2) Full Copy Mode

215
Q

Target device is at least as large as the source device.

A

Pointer-Based Full Volume Replication

216
Q

Provides a full copy of the source data on the target.Target device is accessible for business operations as soon as the replication session has started.Point-in-Time is determined by the time of session activation.

A

Pointer-Based Full Volume Replication

217
Q

Target is a full physical copy of the source device.Target is attached to the source and data from the source is copied to the target.Target is unavailable while it is attached.Target device is as at least as large as the source device.

A

Full Volume Mirroring

218
Q

Used to indicate the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS.

A

Blockmap

219
Q

Used to keep track of blocks that are changes on the production FS after creation of the snapshot.

A

Bitmap

220
Q

Briefly describe a Copy on First Write (CoFW) mechanism

A

If a write I/O is issued to the production FS for the first time after the creation of a snapshot, the I/O is held, and the original data of the production FS corresponding to that location is moved to the snap FS (replica). Then, the new data is allowed to write on the production FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Any subsequent write to the same location will not initiate the CoFW activity.

221
Q

Pointer-based local replication which uses Copy on the First Write (CoFW) principle.Uses bit map and block map.Requires a fraction of the space used by the production file system (FS).

A

File System Snapshot

222
Q

Form of compute based replication where each logical partition in a logical volume is mapped to two physical partitions on two different physical volumes.Write to a logical partition is written to the two physical partitions.

A

Logical Volume Manager based mirroring

223
Q

Types of Storage Array based replication techniques

A

1) Full volume mirroring 2) Pointer based full volume replication 3) Pointer based virtual replication

224
Q

Two type of compute based replication

A

1) LVM-based mirroring 2) File system snapshot

225
Q

Two Classifications of Local Replication

A

1) Compute based replication 2) Storage array based replication

226
Q

Process of replicating data within the same array or the same data center.

A

Local Replication

227
Q

Objective of any continuous replication process

A

Reduce the RPO to zero.

228
Q

Three Characteristics of a Good Replica

A

1) Recoverability 2) Restartability 3) Consistency

229
Q

Two Types of Replicas

A

1) Point-in-Time (PIT) Replica (has non-zero RPO) 2) Continuous Replica (has near-zero RPO)

230
Q

Drives choice of replica type

A

RPO

231
Q

Primary purpose of replication

A

To enable users to have the designated data at the right place, in a state appropriate to the recovery needs.

232
Q

Two Classifications of Replication

A

Local Replication - Remote Replication

233
Q

Drivers for replication

A

Alternate source for backup - Fast recovery - Decision support - Testing platform - Restart from replica

234
Q

Process of creating an EXACT COPY of data

A

Replication

235
Q

3 Methods for Implementing Deduplication

A

1) Single Instance Storage (SIS) 2) Sub-file Deduplication 3) Compression

236
Q

3 Benefits of Deduplication

A

1) Far less infrastructure is required to hold the backup images, due to the elimination of redundant data. 2) Reduces the amount of redundant content in the daily backup, enabling longer retention periods. 3) Reduces backup window and enables faster restore, enabling creation of daily full backup images.

237
Q

True or False: Deduplication can be source-based (client) or target based (storage device).

A

TRUE

238
Q

Levels of Deduplication Implementation

A

File LevelBlock / Chunk Level

239
Q

Technology that conserves storage capacity and/or network traffic by eliminating duplicate data.

A

Deduplication

240
Q

Three Backup Technology Options

A

1) Backup to Tape 2) Backup to Disk 3) Backup to Virtual Tape (VTL)

241
Q

VTL

A

Virtual Tape Library

242
Q

Restore Operation Steps

A

1) Backup client initiates the restore. 2) Backup server scans backup catalog to identify data to be restored and the client that will receive the data. 3) Backup server instructs storage node to load backup media. 4) Storage node restores the backup data to the client and sends metadata to the backup server.

243
Q

Backup Operation Steps

A

1) Backup server initiates a scheduled backup. 2) Backup server instructs storage node to backup media and instructs clients to send backup data to the storage node. 3) Storage node sends backup data to backup device and media information to the backup server. 4) Backup server updates catalog and records the status.

244
Q

True or False: Typically, the storage node is integrated with the backup server and both are hosted on the same physical platform.

A

TRUE

245
Q

Contains information about the backup process and backup metadata.

A

Backup Catalog

246
Q

Stores backup data

A

Backup device

247
Q

Responsible for writing data to backup device.

A

Storage Node

248
Q

Manages backup operations and maintains backup catalog

A

Backup Server

249
Q

Sends backup data to backup server or storage node

A

Backup Client

250
Q

Four Backup Components

A

1) Backup Client 2) Backup Server 3) Storage Node 4) Backup Device

251
Q

Enables a full backup copy to be created offline without disrupting the I/O operation on the production volume.

A

Synthetic (or constructed) full backup

252
Q

How backups can be categorized, based on granularity

A

1) Full 2) Cumulative 3) Incremental

253
Q

Backup Purposes

A

Disaster Recovery - Operational Backup - Archival

254
Q

Solutions & Technologies Which Enable Business Continuity

A

Eliminating Single Points of Failure - Multi-pathing software - Backup - Replication (local and remote)

255
Q

RTO

A

Recovery Time Objective

256
Q

Goal of a business continuity solution

A

Ensure the information availability required to conduct vital business operations.

257
Q

Object Level Protocols

A

REST, SOAP

258
Q

Block Level Storage Protocols

A

iSCSI, FC, and FCoE

259
Q

File Level Storage Protocols

A

NFS, CIFS

260
Q

Benefits of Unified Storage

A

Provides consolidated multi-protocol storage. Simplifies administration. Reduces cost of storage assets, along with power, cooling, and space. Provides a highly scalable architecture.

261
Q

Scenarios appropriate for Object Based storage

A

Multimedia content rich Web applications- Archives - Cloud

262
Q

7 Benefits of Object Based Storage

A

1) Automates & simplifies storage management. 2) Ensures data integrity (!!!). 3) Ensures compliance and auditability. 4) Enables easy data migration. 5) Enables self healing. 6) Facilitates intelligent replication. 7) Allows flexible scalability.

263
Q

Communication standard used by Object Based Storage

A

HTTP

264
Q

Way of exchanging messages between peers on a distributed network.

A

Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)

265
Q

Used to retrieve information from a web site by reading web pages.

A

Representational State Transfer (REST)

266
Q

Used for communication between peers in a distributed environment.Uses XML framework.

A

Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)

267
Q

Common protocols used in object based communication

A

SOAPREST

268
Q

6 NAS Components

A

1) NAS Head (CPU & Memory) 2) NICs (one or more) 3) Optimized OS for managing NAS functionality 4) NFS & CIFS protocols for file sharing 5) Standard protocols to connect & manage physical disk resources (ATA, SCSI, FC) 6) Storage Array

269
Q

NAS Head Components

A

CPUMemory

270
Q

Remote file services protocols used by NAS

A

CIFSNFS

271
Q

Dedicated high performance file server with a storage system.

A

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

272
Q

Storage device connected to a network that provides FILE LEVEL data access to heterogeneous clients.

A

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

273
Q

Components of FCoE

A

1) Converged Network Adapter (CNA) 2) FCoE Switch (Ethernet bridge + FCF) 3) Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) (a.k.a. Data Center Ethernet)

274
Q

Part of FCoE switch which encapsulates FC frames into FCoE frames and de-capsulates FCoE frames to FC frames.

A

Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)

275
Q

Contains Ethernet bridge and Fibre Channel Forwarder.

A

FCoE Switch

276
Q

Combines LAN and SAN traffic over a single 10GigE connection.

A

FCoE

277
Q

Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames for transport over Enhanced Ethernet networks.Enables consolidation of SAN traffic and Ethernet traffic onto a common 10GigE infrastructure.Consolidates compute and storage communication over a single channel.

A

Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

278
Q

Transports FC block data over an existing IP infrastructure

A

FCIP

279
Q

Used for data sharing over geographically dispersed SAN.

A

FCIP

280
Q

IP-based storage networking technology.Combines advantages of Fibre Channel and IP.Creates virtual FC link that connects devices in a different fabric.Distance extension solution.Tunneling protocol.

A

Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP)

281
Q

Device that issues commands to a target device to perform a task.

A

Initiator

282
Q

iSCSI topology with the following attributes:1) Translates iSCSIP/IP to FC,2) iSCSI initiator configured with bridge as target,3) Bridge acts as a virtual FC initiator, and4) Less common iSCSI topology

A

Bridged iSCSI Topology

283
Q

iSCSI topology with:1) No FC components, and2) iSCSI initiators connect directly to the storage array.

A

Native iSCSI Topology

284
Q

Two iSCSI topologies

A

1) Native 2) Bridged

285
Q

Used extensively in Disaster Recovery (DR) implementations, where data is duplicated to an alternate site.

A

FCIP

286
Q

Widely adopted for connecting compute systems to storage because it is relatively inexpensive and easy to implement, especially in environments where an FC SAN does not exist.

A

iSCSI

287
Q

Uses a pair of bridges (FCIP gateways) communicating over TCP/IP

A

Fibre Channel over IP

288
Q

Three network adapters used in an iSCSI environment

A

1) Ethernet NIC card 2) TCP/IP Offload Engine (TOE) card 3) iSCSI HBA

289
Q

Compute-based encapsulation of SCSI I/O over IP using an Ethernet NIC, TCP/IP Offload Engine, or iSCSI HBA in the compute system.

A

iSCSI

290
Q

Two primary protocols that leverage IP as the transport mechanism for block level data transmission

A

1) iSCSI (SCSI over IP) 2) FCIP

291
Q

A technology that provides transfer of block level data over an IP network

A

IP-SAN

292
Q

Zoning that enables a specific port to be tied to the WWN of a node.Combines qualities of both WWN zoning and port zoning.

A

Mixed zoning

293
Q

Also known as soft zoning.Allows the FC SAN to be re-cabled without reconfiguring the zone information.Uses World Wide Names to define zones.

A

WWN Zoning

294
Q

Zoning that uses the FC addresses of the physical ports to define zones.Access to data is determined by the physical switch port to which a node is connected.Also called hard zoning.

A

Port zoning

295
Q

3 type of zoning

A

1) Port zoning 2) WWN zoning 3) Mixed zoning

296
Q

LUN Masking is done at what level?

A

Array Level

297
Q

Zoning takes place at what level?

A

Fabric level

298
Q

In an FC environment, used to control server access to storage.

A

Zoning in conjunction with LUN masking

299
Q

A Fibre Channel switch function that enables nodes within the fabric to be logically segmented into groups that can communicate with each other.

A

Zoning

300
Q

Used to identify a group of switch ports used to connect nodes.

A

Area ID

301
Q

Unique identification number provided to each switch in an FC SAN.

A

Domain ID

302
Q

Unique 64 bit identifier.Static to the port, similar to a NIC’s MAC address.Used to physically identify ports or nodes within an FC SAN.

A

World Wide Name

303
Q

Two types of addresses used for communication in an FC SAN environment

A

1) Channel Address 2) World Wide Name

304
Q

Three Components of a Fibre Channel Address

A

Domain ID (switch) - Area ID (port group) - Port ID (port)

305
Q

Used to communicate between nodes within a FC SAN.Similar in functionality to an IP address on NICs.24-bit address, dynamically assigned.

A

Fibre Channel Address

306
Q

A generic port that can operate as an E_port or and F_port and determines its functionality automatically during intialization.

A

G_port

307
Q

A port on an FC switch that connects to an N_port

A

F_porta.k.a., fabric port

308
Q

An FC port that forms the connection between two FC switches

A

E_porta.k.a. expansion port

309
Q

Typically, a compute system port (HBA) or a storage array port that is connected to a switch in a switched fabric.

A

N_port (node port)

310
Q

An end point in an FC fabric

A

N_port

311
Q

In a switched fabric, the link between any two switches

A

Inter Switch Link (ISL)

312
Q

One or more interconnected FC switches through which multiple SAN nodes can communicate.

A

Fibre Channel Fabric

313
Q

Six Components of an FC SAN

A

1) Node Ports 2) Cables 3) Connectors 4) Interconnecting Devices 5) Storage arrays 6) SAN Management Software

314
Q

Base protocol of FC SAN

A

SCSI (modified)

315
Q

SCSI data encapsulated and transported within Fibre Channel frames

A

Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP)

316
Q

FC SAN Scaling Limit

A

15 million devices

317
Q

Four Benefits of FC SAN

A

1) Enables storage consolidation and sharing. 2) Enables centralized management. 3) Provides scalability and high performance. 4) Reduces storage and administration cost.

318
Q

Dedicated high speed network of compute systems and shared storage devices which uses the SCSI over FC protocol.Provides block level data access.

A

FC SAN

319
Q

Protocol-based storage networking technologies

A

Fibre Channel SAN (FC SAN) - Network Attached Storage (NAS) - Internet Protocol SAN (IP SAN) - Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

320
Q

Concept-based storage network technologies

A

Object Based StorageUnified Storage

321
Q

Six Storage Networking Technologies

A

1) Fibre Channel SAN (FC SAN) 2) Network Attached Storage (NAS) 3) Internet Protocol SAN (IP SAN) 4) Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) 5) Object Based Storage 6) Unified Storage

322
Q

DAS Challenges

A

1) Limited scalability 2) Limited ability to share resources (islands of over and under utilized storage resources)

323
Q

Benefits of DAS

A

1) Simple to deploy and ideal for local data provisioning 2) Low capital expense and less complexity.

324
Q

Two classifications of DAS

A

1) Internal 2) External (w.r.t. the compute system)

325
Q

Internal or external storage device, which connects directly to a compute system.

A

Direct Attached Storage (DAS)

326
Q

Physical drive addressing that refers to specific locations on a drive.

A

Cylinder, Head, and Sector (CHS)

327
Q

Simplifies addressing by using a linear address to access physical blocks of data.

A

Logical Block Addressing (LBA)

328
Q

CHS

A

Cylinder, Head, and Sector

329
Q

LBA

A

Logical Block Addressing

330
Q

True or False: File-level access has higher overhead than block-level access.

A

TRUE

331
Q

In file level access where is the file system created?

A

On a network or at the storage

332
Q

Two ways data can be accessed over a network

A

1) File Level 2) Block Level

333
Q

In block-level access, where is the file system created?

A

On a compute system.

334
Q

Protocols used for accessing data from an external storage device (or subsystems).

A

Fibre ChanneliSCSI

335
Q

3 Key Infrastructure Components

A

1) OS (or file system) 2) Connectivity (network) 3) Storage

336
Q

In block level access, where does the file system reside?

A

On the Compute

337
Q

In file level access, where does the file system reside?

A

With the storage

338
Q

Serial version of SCSI

A

Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)

339
Q

Preferred storage connectivity option for high-end environments.Improved performance, scalability, and high cost when compared to ATA.

A

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

340
Q

Popular protocol to connect to disk drives.Supports 16-bit parallel transmission.Serial version is called Serial ATA (SATA).Both versions offer good performance at a relatively low cost.

A

IDE/ATA

341
Q

A multifunction adapter which consolidates the functionality of a NIC card AND a Fibre Channel HBA onto a single adapter.

A

Converged Network Adapter (CNA)

342
Q

ASIC board that performs I/O interface functions between the host and the storage, relieving the CPU from additional I/O processing workload.

A

Host Bus Adapter (HBA)

343
Q

More flexible than channel technologies

A

Network technologies

344
Q

Network Technology Characteristics

A

1) Compute system and peripheral devices are connected over a network. 2) High protocol overhead due to network connection. 3) Support transmission over long distances. 4) Protocol examples: iSCSI (SCSI over IP), FCoE, and FC

345
Q

Characteristics of channel technology

A

1) Compute system and peripheral devices are connected through channel. 2) Low protocol overhead due to tight coupling. 3) Supports transmission only over short distances. 4) Protocol examples: PCI, IDE/ATA, SCSI, etc.

346
Q

Five core elements of a CDC

A

1) Application 2) Database Management System (DBMS) 3) Compute 4) Storage 5) Network

347
Q

A facility containing physical IT resources including compute, network, and storage.

A

Classic Data Center

348
Q

Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?a. Scalabilityb. Flexibilityc. Securityd. Availability

A

d. Availability

349
Q

Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

A

a. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

350
Q

Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?a. Manageabilityb. Availabilityc. Capacityd. Flexibility

A

d. Flexibility

351
Q

Which statement is true about FC SAN?a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS.b. Has limited ability to share resources.c. Enables object level access to data.d. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes.

A

a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS.

352
Q

Which is a benefit of RAID?a. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set.b. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set.c. Improves storage system performance.d. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks.

A

c. Improves storage system performance.

353
Q

Width of a PCI bus

A

32 bits or 64 bits

354
Q

How can RPO by minimized in a PIT replication scenario?

A

By making periodic PIT replicas

355
Q

RPO2.55

A

Recovery Point Objective

356
Q

FC-AL

A

Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop

357
Q

Compute Before Virtualization

A
Runs single OS per machine
Couples software and hardware tightly
May have conflicts when multiple applications on same machine
Underutilized resources
inflexible and expensive
358
Q

Compute After Virtualization

A

Runs Multiple OSs per machine concurrently
Makes OS and applications hardware independent
Isolates VN from each other, hence no conflict
Improves Resource Utilization
Offers flexible infrastructure at low cost

359
Q

P2V Conversion Considerations

A

1) Some hardware-dependent drivers and mapped drive letters might not be preserved. 2) Source machine configuration remains unchanged. 3) Source and target machines will have the same identities. 4) Application that depend on characteristics of the hardware may not work.

360
Q

With transparent page sharing, what happens when attempts to write on the shared page are made?

A

1) Generates a minor page fault. 2) Creates a private copy after write and remaps the memory.

361
Q

Is a VM’s paging file which backs up the VM RAM contents.Exists ONLY when the VM is running.

A

Virtual Swap File

362
Q

Typical utilization for non-virtualized compute systems

A

15% to 20% utilization

363
Q

Phases in the transformation to a VDC

A

1) Classic Data Center 2) Virtualize Compute 3) Virtualize Storage 4) Virtualize Network 5) Virtualize Data Center

364
Q

Converts physical machines to VMs.Supports conversion of VM created third party software to VMware VM.Lets users convert Windows and Linux-based physical machines to VMware virtual machines.Converts VMs between VMware platoforms.

A

VMware vCenter Converter

365
Q

VMware vSphere Modules and Plug-ins

A

VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) - VMware High Availability (HA) - VMware Data Recovery

366
Q

Key vSphere Components

A

VMware ESXi - VMware vCenter Server - VMware vCenter Client - VMware vStorage VMFS

367
Q

Infrastructure virtualization suite that provides virtualization, resource mgmt & optimization, HA, and operational automation.

A

VMware vSphere

368
Q

Cold Conversion Process

A
  1. Boot source machine from the converter boot CD and use the converter software to define conversion parameters and start the conversion. 2. Converter application creates a new VM on the destination physical machine. 3. Converter app copies volumes from the source machine to the destination machine. 4. Converter app installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot in a VM and personalizes the VM. 5. VM is ready to run on the destination server.
369
Q

Hot Conversion Process Steps

A
  1. Converter server prepares the source machine for the conversion by installing the agent on the source physical machine. 2. Agent takes a snapshot of the source volume. 3. Converter server creates a VM on the destination machine. 4. Agent clones the physical disk of the source machine (using snapshot) to the virtual disk of the destination virtual machine. 5. Agent synchronizes the data and installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot from a VM and personalize the VM. 6. VM is ready to run on the destination server.
370
Q

Occurs while physical machine is NOT running OS and application.Boots the physical machine using converter boot CD.Creates consistent copy of the physical machine.

A

Cold Conversion

371
Q

Occurs while machine is running.Performs synchronization; copies blocks changed during cloning period.Performs power off at source and power on at target VM.Changes IP address and machine name of target if both machines must exist on the same network.

A

Hot Conversion

372
Q

Two ways to migrate from a physical machine to a virtual machine

A

1) Hot Conversion2) Cold Conversion

373
Q

Bootable CD contains its OS and converter application.Converter application is used to perform cold conversion.

A

P2V Converter Boot CD

374
Q

Responsible for performing the conversion.Used in hot mode only.Installed on physical machine to convert it to a VM.

A

P2V Converter Agent

375
Q

Responsible for controlling conversion process.Used for hot conversion only (when source is running its OS).Pushes and installs agent on the source machine.

A

P2V Converter Server

376
Q

3 Key Components of P2V Converter

A

1) Converter Server 2) Converter Agent 3) Converter Boot CD

377
Q

Benefits of P2V Converter

A

Reduces time needed to setup a new VM. Enables migration of legacy machine to new hardware without reinstalling the OS or application. Performs migration across heterogeneous hardware.

378
Q

Clones data from physical machine’s disk to VM disk.Performs system reconfiguration of the destination VM such as change IP address and computer name, install required device drivers to enable the VM to boot.

A

Physical to Virtual Machine (P2V) Conversion

379
Q

Process through which physical machines are converted into VMs.

A

P2V Conversion

380
Q

Provides ability to manage physical machines running hypervisor.

A

Resource Management Tool

381
Q

Enables centralized management of resources from a management server.Enables pooling or resources and allocates capacity to VMs.Communicates with hypervisors to perform management.Provides operational automation.

A

Resource Management Tool

382
Q

VM to Physical Server Anti-Affinity

A

Allowing a VM to move on different hypervisors in a cluster (e.g, for high availability of performance requirements).

383
Q

VM to Physical Server Affinity

A

Specify whether selected VM can be placed only on a particular hypervisor (e.g., for licensing issues).

384
Q

VM to VM Anti-Affinity

A

Ensures that selected VMs are NOT together on a hypervisor (i.e., for availability reasons).

385
Q

VM to VM Affinity

A

Selected VMs should run on the same hypervisor, to improve performance if VMs are communicating with each other heavily.

386
Q

Last option because it causes notable performance impact.

A

Memory swapping

387
Q

Swap file size

A

Swap file size is equal to the DIFFERENCE between the MEMORY LIMIT and the VM MEMORY RESERVATION.

388
Q

Makes the guest OS free some of the virtual machine memory

A

Ballooning

389
Q

Transparent Page Sharing

A

Hypervisor detects identical memory pages of VMs and maps them to same physical page. For writes, hypervisor treats the shared pages as copy-on-write. Attempt to write on a shared page generates a minor page fault and CREATES A PRIVATE COPY after write and remaps the memory.

390
Q

True or False: VMs can be configured with more memory than physically available.

A

True. Referred to as memory overcommitment.

391
Q

Memory Management Techniques

A

Transparent Page Sharing - Memory Ballooning - Memory Swapping

392
Q

What is enabled by hyper-threading?

A

Allows the OS to schedule two threads or processes simultaneously.

393
Q

Makes a physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs (LCPUs).

A

Hyper-threading

394
Q

Features supported by hypervisors to optimize CPU resources

A

Multi-core - Hyper-threading - CPU load balancing

395
Q

Makes a physical CPU appear as two or more logical CPUs.

A

Hyper-threading

396
Q

Amount of CPU or memory resources a VM or a child resource pool can have with respect to its parent’s total resources.

A

Share

397
Q

Maximum amount of CPU and memory a VM or a child resource pool can consume.

A

Limit

398
Q

Amount of CPU and memory reserved for a VM or a child resource pool.

A

Reservation

399
Q

Used to control the resources consumed by resource pools or VMs

A

Reservation, limit, and share

400
Q

May be created from the parent resource pool

A

Child resource pool or virtual machine (VM)