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Veterinary Physiology > Circulatory System > Flashcards

Circulatory System Flashcards

1
Q

What is blood?

A

A suspension of cells in extracellular fluid

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2
Q

What is the main component of blood?

A

Plasma

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3
Q

What are electrolytes?

A

Ionised constituents of blood which diffuse across capillaries

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4
Q

Which plasma protein is responsible for clotting?

A

Fibrinogen

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5
Q

What 2 proteins in plasma are involved in immune response?

A

Globulin and Albumin

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6
Q

What is hypoalbuminaemia and what does it cause?

A

Low levels of the protein albumin in blood which causes increased movement of fluid out of vessels (oedema)

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoalbuminaemia?

A

Ascites, pitting oedema, hypoperfusion, hypotension, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, localised cell inflammation

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8
Q

State 3 causes of hypoalbuminaemia.

A

1)liver disease
2)GIT protein loss
3)kidney protein loss

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9
Q

State 4 treatment routes of hypoalbuminaemia

A

1)physiotherapy
2)colloid administration
3)monitor body weight
4)abdominal girth
5)blood testing

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10
Q

What are the 3 cell components of blood?

A

Leukocytes, erythrocytes and thrombocytes

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11
Q

What are the difference in shapes of erythrocytes (RBCs) in canines vs felines?

A

canine=biconcave + uniform
feline=variable in size and shape, smaller

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12
Q

How long do canine erythrocytes last in comparison to feline erythrocytes?

A

Canine=110-120 days
Feline=65-76days

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13
Q

What unique feature do avian erythrocytes have?

A

nuclei

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14
Q

How are erythrocytes formed?

A

Erythropoeisis

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15
Q

What are the 3 types of haemoglobin?

A

Embryo, foetal, adult

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16
Q

Is blood type inherited in dogs?

A

No

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17
Q

What are the 2 blood types of dog?

A

DEA 1.1 + vs DEA1.1 -

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18
Q

What blood types do cats have?

A

A, B, AB

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19
Q

What is fading kitten syndrome?

A

Type A kitten inherits type A antibodies from mother(who is type B)

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20
Q

What is Immune Mediated Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

Low RBC count (due to destruction)

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21
Q

What is the treatment of IMHA?

A

Transfusion
Packed RBCs
Steroids
IV fluids
Monitoring

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22
Q

What are the 5 types of leukocytes?

A

1)Basophil
2)Neutrophil
3)Eosinophil
4)Lymphocyte
5)Monocyte

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23
Q

What occurs when there is too little thrombocytes?

A

Thrombocytopaenia

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24
Q

What occurs when there is too many thrombocytes?

A

Thromboembolism

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25
Q

What are the three steps of clotting?

A

Contraction of blood vessel, formulation of platelet plug, coagulation of the blood

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26
Q

Which layer of skin do platelets attach to?

A

Endothelial layer

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27
Q

What is the von willebrand factor?

A

Glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion

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28
Q

Which protein in plasma reinforces the platelet plug?

A

Fibrin

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29
Q

What converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

Thrombin

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30
Q

What converts prothrombin to thrombin?

A

Factor X

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31
Q

What angle do you administer intramuscular injections?

A

90 degrees

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32
Q

Which nerve in the quadriceps must we avoid?

A

Sciatic nerve

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33
Q

Where is safe to inject a dog?

A

Trapezius, Triceps, Quadriceps, Hamstrings and epaxial

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34
Q

Where is safe to inject a horse?

A

Trapezius, pectoral mucsles and gluteal muscles

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35
Q

Why are cows only injected in trapezius?

A

It would damage to meat elsewhere

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36
Q

What is immunity?

A

Resistance possessed by the body to infectious diseases and substances

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37
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

The body’s first line of defence against microorganisms

38
Q

Is innate immunity specific or non specific?

A

non specific

39
Q

Is innate immunity rapid or slow?

A

Rapid

40
Q

What are the 3 functions of innate immunity?

A

To kill microorganisms, phagocytosis, to stimulate immune response

41
Q

What are the 8 innate immunity cells?

A

Neutrophil
Basophil
Eosinophil
Monocyte
Mast cell
Natural killer
Macrophage
Dentritic cell

42
Q

What is the function of a monocyte?

A

Produces toxic oxygen species

43
Q

What is the function of a macrophage?

A

Phagocytosis

44
Q

What is the function of a Neutrophil?

A

Produce antimicrobial substances and enzymes

45
Q

What is the function of a Basophil?

A

releases histamine and heparin

46
Q

What is the function of eosinophil?

A

Release peptides, lipids and other cytokine indicators

47
Q

Which leukocyte responds to an allergic reaction?

A

Basophil

48
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Immunity which occurs after the body has been exposed to a foreign antigen

49
Q

What are dendric cells?

A

Antigen presenting cells which mature in contact with antigens and migrate to lymph nodes

50
Q

Which lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid tissue?

A

T cells and B cells

51
Q

What are the 3 steps to adaptive immunity

A

Recognition of foreign antigen, processing of antigen and presenting it to T and B cells

52
Q

What is humoral immune response?

A

Recognition of antigens by B cells

53
Q

What is a naive animal?

A

An animal that is exposed to an antigen for the first time

54
Q

What is a primed animal?

A

Second exposure to antigen, memory cells are present so faster immune response

55
Q

When is 1st vaccine given?

A

When maternal antibodies have declined

56
Q

What are the 3 type of T lymphocytes?

A

Helper T cells
Killer T cells
Suppressor T cells

57
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Where antibodies and memory cells are formed as a response to an antigen

58
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Antibodies or activated T cells are received from another individual

59
Q

Why is colostrum needed?

A

No antibodies are transferred to foetuses in utero

60
Q

How quickly does colostrum need to be consumed after birth for dogs, cats and calves?

A

Dog=24hr
Cat=16hr
Calf=12hr

61
Q

What is the result of colostrum deficieency?

A

Increased risk of infection
Neonatal Septicaemia

62
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A

Remove excess tissue fluid
Transport proteins
Transport waste
Filter Lymph

63
Q

What are primary lymphoid organs responsible for?

A

Maturation of lymphocytes, e.g T lymphocytes mature in the thymus

64
Q

What are secondary lymphoid organs responsible for?

A

Site where lymphocytes interact with Antigen presenting cells (APCs). Exposure to T cells, B cells, Dendrites and Macrophages

65
Q

Where does excess tissue fluid come from?

A

Arterial pressure pushes fluid out but osmotic pressure is not enough to draw it all back in

66
Q

How can the lymphatic system prevent oedemas from forming?

A

Lymphatic drainage occurs

67
Q

What is lymph

A

Plasma that has left blood, it has no large proteins, more water, sugar and electrolytes

68
Q

What is the structure of lymph vessels?

A

Valves, beaded appearance but no muscular tunica so if there is no muscle contractions elsewhere in the body fluid may accumulate and cause pneumonia

69
Q

State 3 major lymphatic ducts

A

Thoracic, tracheal (vena cava), Right lymphatic duct (right subclavian vein)

70
Q

Where are lymph nodes situated in the body?

A

Near major organs for drainage

71
Q

Name the 6 lymph nodes in an animal

A

Submandibular, paratoid,pre-scapular axillary, inguinal, popliteal

72
Q

What is the role of the lymph nodes?

A

They add lymphocytes to the lymph and halt spread of disease

73
Q

State 3 locations of primary lymphoid tissue

A

Bone marrow
Thymus gland
Appendix

74
Q

State 3 locations of secondary lymphoid tissue

A

Spleen
Tonsils
MALT

75
Q

Why is the thymus large in young animals?

A

This is where lymphocytes mature, and they have an immature immune system so require more

76
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

It is a reservoir for blood

77
Q

What does white pulp store?

A

Lymphocytes

78
Q

Function of red pulp?

A

stores RBCs ,and removes dead RBCs and foreign material via macrophages

79
Q

What does MALT stand for?

A

Muscosal Assosiated Lymphoid Tissue

80
Q

What does BALT stand for (hint:tonsils)

A

Bronchial Associated Lymphoid Tissue

81
Q

What are the 5 regions of the tube (heart)?

A

Truncus arteriosis
Bulbus cordis
Ventricle
Atrium
Sinus venosus

82
Q

How does the heart form from a tube?

A

Tube lengthens and folds in on itself. Venous return is shifted to the right side and atrioventricular opening is partitioned.

83
Q

What is formed first the atria or ventricles?

A

The ventricles

84
Q

What is the final stage in heart formation?

A

Formation of aorta and pulmonary trunk

85
Q

What is the difference between a foetal and newborn heart?

A

Foetal heart has mixed blood due to the opening of ductus arteriosus

86
Q

What is Patent Ductus Arteriosus?

A

Blood shunting from aorta into pulmonary artery- causing atrial fibrilation, left sided heart failure, pulmonary oedema and heart murmur.

87
Q

What are 4 defects of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defects, overriding aorta and hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

88
Q

What are the signs of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Lethargy
Cyanosis
Stunted growth
Exercise intolerance
Seizures

89
Q

What is Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Thickening of ventricle walls, reducing volume of blood in ventricles + pumped out

90
Q

What is Dilated Cardiomyopathy?

A

Weakened heart muscles so ventricles and atria are dilated and enlarged so cannot contract effectively causing backup of blood

91
Q
A

Veterinary Physiology (2 decks)

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