CIK Questions

Question 1

Your prompt initial action at a serious crime scene has led to the apprehension of a male nearby who is acting suspiciously. During a preliminary interview with him you should: Choose 2.

a) Make a notebook entry of his details and his demeanour.
b) Get him to draw a sketch to aid your scene reconstruction.
c) Give him his rights and gather sufficient information to details.

OR

d) arrest him and transport him to the Police Station
e) ask him to show you where he has been in the crime scene
f) consider conducting a preliminary interview

Answer 1

a) Make a notebook entry of his details and his demeanour.

and/or

f) consider conducting a preliminary interview

Question 2

If a suspect’s right to ‘consult and instruct a lawyer without delay and in private’ cannot be facilitated immediately by Police, what action is required first?

a) Arrange for their lawyer to attend at a time suiting the circumstances
b) Advise the suspect of that fact and proceed to interview
c) Advise the suspect of that fact and the reason for the delay

Answer 2

c) Advise the suspect of that fact and the reason for the delay

Question 3

Which of the following behaviours demonstrated by a lawyer at interview would be unacceptable?

a) Challenging the interviewer on the validity of the allegations made
b) Challenging a question put to their client that they believe to be improper
c) Challenging the manner in which a question is put to their client

Answer 3

a) Challenging the interviewer on the validity of the allegations made.

Question 4

You have arrested an adult male and want to interview him further. Which of the following statements is most correct?

a) You can interview him while being mindful of the need to proceed to court as soon as possible
b) You can interview him at length to gather any evidence with which to progress the charge against him
c) You can interview him for a short time only as he must be fairly and reasonably treated while in custody

Answer 4

a) You can interview him while being mindful of the need to proceed to court as soon as possible.

Question 5

After charging a shoplifter with theft and lodging her in the cells, you receive information leading you to suspect her of further thefts. According to Chief Justice Practice Note Guideline 2 you should:

a) Reconvene the interview, caution her and ask questions relating to both offences
b) Interview her again on video, caution again and question her about the new allegations
c) Reconvene the interview, question her further about all the stolen items

Answer 5

b) Interview her again on video, caution again and question her about the new allegations

Question 6

When a witness signs the declaration on a witness statement the interviewer must ensure the witness understands they are agreeing that - To the best of their knowledge and belief their statement is true and:

a) They have read over what is written, agree they have been fairly treated but have nothing more to add
b) They know how the statement may be used and the consequences of giving false or misleading information
c) They have been told how their statement will be used and are prepared to give evidence in court if required

Answer 6

b) They know how the statement may be used and the consequences of giving false or misleading information

Question 7

In relation to cross examination which of the following answers is correct?

a) Where it is obvious that a person is lying, repetitive questions will elicit the truth
b) Questions aimed at establishing further facts from answers give are acceptable
c) Police may use any means of questioning to elicit the truth from an offender

Answer 7

b) Questions aimed at establishing further facts from answers give are acceptable

Question 8

When planning an interview with a special consideration witness (vulnerable) witness the investigator should:

a) Consult a supervisor to make decisions about the interview
b) Conduct the interview promptly to avoid memory loss
c) Prepare to use Conversation Management to maximise the witness account

Answer 8

a) Consult a supervisor to make decisions about the interview

Question 9

Representation refers to the behaviour of the interviewer who:

a) Promises a favour in return for a requested action
b) Does not advise the suspect of the right to a lawyer
c) Allows the suspect to have a support person in the interview

Answer 9

a) Promises a favour in return for a requested action

Question 10

The ‘truth may be elusive, so you may need to be persistent’. In this statement ‘persistent’ refers to interviewer behaviour and means.

a) Asking questions for as long as it takes to get a full and truthful account from the suspect. ?????
b) Asking a question in many different ways so that any lies told will become more apparent.
c) Asking questions in a manner that will stand up to the scrutiny of the court.

Answer 10

Asking questions in a manner that will stand up to the scrutiny of the court

Question 11

You are interviewing an offender arrested for ‘receiving’. While attempting to establish the identity of the original thief the offender begins to tell conflicting accounts. You now decide to change interview styles and being to very strongly put questions to him demanding explanations and answers to your questions. He eventually gives the identity of the thief and other evidence against himself. Would the above evidence by your offender be admissible in Court?

a) No, because the offender was in custody and questions must not amount to cross-examination.
b) Yes, because demanding answers to questions and using your personality.
c) No, once a person has been arrested for an offence they cannot be interviewed about the original offence.

Answer 11

a) No, because the offender was in custody and questions must not amount to cross-examination.

Question 12

When explaining the caution to an adult suspect who suffers from an intellectual disability you should give them their rights and:

a) Ask them to repeat the caution so you can check their understanding
b) Ask their support person to repeat the caution to confirm the suspect understands
c) Ask them to tell you in their own words what the caution means to them

Answer 12

c) Ask them to tell you in their own words what the caution means to them

Question 13

According to Criminal Justice Practice Note Guideline 4, when you are questioning a suspect about statements made by a witness you should:

a) Explain the substance or nature of the witness statements to them
b) Tell the suspect you have a witness statement that incriminates them
c) Read the entire witness’s statement word for word to the suspect

Answer 13

a) Explain the substance or nature of the witness statements to them

Question 14

When a DVD of an adult witness interview is to be used as evidence-in-chief then the O/C case must ensure:

a) All matters that may be the subject of cross-examination are covered in the video
b) A support person was present in the interview room during the interview
c) The witness has viewed the video and given their signed consent for it to be used

Answer 14

c) The witness has viewed the video and given their signed consent for it to be used

Question 15

When conducting a suspect interview at the police station you are informed that a lawyer has arrived saying she is to act for the suspect and asking to see him. The suspect has given you no indication that he wishes to speak to a lawyer. What action should you take?

a) Ask the suspect if he wants a lawyer, and if not, advise the lawyer of that fact
b) Ensure the lawyer is told the suspect has not asked for a lawyer and continue
c) Tell the suspect the lawyer is at the station to see him and act on the suspect’s wishes

Answer 15

c) Tell the suspect the lawyer is at the station to see him and act on the suspect’s wishes

Question 16

Immediately before you ask a suspect to give their account of the events in question, you should explain:

a) The evidence you have and its significance for the suspect.
b) The events leading to the suspect agreeing to be interviewed.
c) What will happen with the video record after the interview.

Answer 16

b) The events leading to the suspect agreeing to be interviewed.

Question 17

When should an investigator visually record a witness interview?

a) Whenever an interviewing suite and required resources are available.
b) Whenever the witness is identified as a special consideration witness.
c) When the interview is needed for completeness and accuracy of evidence.

Answer 17

a) Whenever an interviewing suite and required resources are available.

Question 18

When a witness has provided a description that matches the suspect, the best way to present this as a challenge during the suspect interview is to say:

a) “We have evidence from witnesses that you were at the scene”
b) “A witness has identified you as the person who committed the offence”
c) “A witnesses has provided details of an offender that fits your description”.

Answer 18

c) “A witness has provided details of an offender that fits your description”.

Question 19

You and a colleague are separately interviewing two suspects at the station. Your suspect is uncooperative so you leave the room, return five minutes later and tell him that his friend has admitted taking part in the burglary. He shrugs, readily admits his involvement and later pleads guilty. Would the above admission by your suspect be admissible in Court?

a) No, because your suspect was not given a written statement from the other suspect.
b) No because the admission was obtained by misrepresenting the truth to your suspect.
c) Yes, because there was no duress and the suspect freely made the admission of guilt.

Answer 19

b) No because the admission was obtained by misrepresenting the truth to your suspect.

Question 20

Which of the following statements about the Free Recall (FR) model is generally true? When using the FR model the interviewer:

a) Does not explain the ground rules
b) Does not include a challenge phase
c) Does not ask probing questions

Answer 20

b) Does not include a challenge phase

Question 21

According to the investigative interviewing doctrine which of the following statements about probing questions is correct.

a) An interviewer must follow a witness account with probing questions.
b) An interviewer should initiate a suspect account with a probing question.
c) An interviewer should avoid asking probing questions beginning with why.

Answer 21

c) An interviewer should avoid asking probing questions beginning with why.

Question 22

An appropriate support person for a special consideration adult witness should be present in the room during interview when the interviewer:

a) Requires the support person to interpret
b) Decides it is in the interest of the witness.
c) Decides it is in their own interests.

Answer 22

b) Decides it is in the interest of the witness.

Question 23

After witnessing an assault you approach and arrest the offender. He refuses to say anything to you. 30 minutes later at the station the offender states that he wishes to speak to you about the incident. When interviewed he tells you why the assault took place. At what point during this incident should this offender have received the Rights/Caution/.

a) At the time the offender was arrested for assaulting the other person, and prior to any interview when he was in custody.
b) At this time of arrest only because once an offender is arrested the Rights/Caution lasts for the next two hours.
c) At the start of the interview while he was in custody and upon the offender eventually admitting the assault.

Answer 23

a) At the time the offender was arrested for assaulting the other person, and prior to any interview when he was in custody.

Question 24

Should a person who is intoxicated at interview be treated as a special consideration witness?

a) Yes because their ability to give accurate information is affected.
b) No because alcohol only temporarily impairs their ability to talk.
c) Yes because they will not fully understand the reason for the interview.

Answer 24

c) Yes because they will not fully understand the reason for the interview.

Question 25

Which example is incorrect? A written statement from a witness interview:

a) Cannot include slang, swearing or colloquialisms as it is a legal document
b) Should ideally be recorded on Police investigative interviewing form II
c) Must record the witness narrative of events in the chronological order they occurred.

Answer 25

b) Should ideally be recorded on Police investigative interviewing form II

Question 26

After charging an offender with burglary and placing him in the police cells, he later decides to tell you where he has hidden the property he stole during the burglary. According to the Chief Justice Practice Note Guidelines, you should:

a) Reconvene the interview to gain an account but refrain from asking him any questions.
b) Reconvene the interview, caution him, gain his account and question him further.
c) Reconvene the interview and question him about the information he is now offering

Answer 26

b) Reconvene the interview, caution him, gain his account and question him further.

Question 27

In the engage and explain phase of an interview with a witness who is fearful or distressed about the consequences of making a statement you should:

a) Considered their concerns, assess their reasons, discuss with your supervisor if a visually recorded interview is required.
b) Consider their concerns and do not proceed with the interview if they do not have a support person.
c) Alert a supervisor to their status as a special consideration witness and the need for a specialist interviewer.

Answer 27

c) Alert a supervisor to their status as a special consideration witness and the need for a specialist interviewer.

Question 28

Who is responsible for filing formal statements?

a) The Prosecutor
b) The Registrar
c) The OC case

Answer 28

a) The Prosecutor

Question 29

The Judge must exclude a defendant’s statement if they are satisfied the statement was improperly obtained. What is the standard of proof required?

a) Probable cause
b) Balance of probabilities
c) Beyond reasonable doubt

Answer 29

b) Balance of probabilities

Question 30

When interviewing a person suspected of committing an offence, when should the caution be administered?

a) When you have sufficient evidence to charge a person with an offence.
b) As soon as a substantial case is established against the suspect.
c) When there are grounds to believe the suspect committed the offence.

Answer 30

a) When you have sufficient evidence to charge a person with an offence.

Question 31

A good charging decision is made when the charges chosen adequately reflect the nature and extent of the criminal conduct and.

a) The defence is provided with the total evidence at disclosure
b) The court is provided with an appropriate basis for sentence
c) The prosecution is provided with sufficient admissible evidence

Answer 31

b) The court is provided with an appropriate basis for sentence

Question 32

In applying the evidential test you must determine if there is a reasonable prospect of conviction through examining the:

a) Validity of the admissible evidence
b) Completeness of the admissible evidence
c) Sufficiency of the admissible evidence

Answer 32

c) Sufficiency of the admissible evidence

Question 33

The meaning of the term ‘arbitrary detention’ as explained in the case R v Goodwin (1993) is:

a) When words or conduct of an officer cause a person to believe that he or she is not free to go
b) When an officer tells a person in no certain words or conduct that they are not free to go.
c) When words or conduct of an officer cause a reasonable person to believe that they are not free to go.

Answer 33

a) When words or conduct of an officer cause a person to believe that he or she is not free to go

Question 34

Are pre-trial admissibility hearings available before both Judge-alone and jury trials?

a) No
b) Pre-trial hearings are only for jury trials
c) Yes

Answer 34

c) Yes

Question 35

Johnny Smith is served with a summons to appear in Court in 2 months’ time. The Charging Document has not yet been filed. When must the Charging Document be filed?

a) As soon as reasonably practicable after the service of the summons
b) Within 7 days of the issuing of the summons
c) Anytime up to and including the first appearance date on which the defendant is required by the summons to appear

Answer 35

a) As soon as reasonably practicable after the service of the summons

Question 36

Although judge may exclude an interview based on unreliability, this does not exclude the interview being offered as evidence of the:

a) Inconsistency of any prior statements.
b) Views allegedly made by the defendant.
c) Defendant’s physical or mental condition.

Answer 36

c) Defendant’s physical or mental condition.

Question 37

If no Police Bail conditions are imposed, the date of the defendant’s first appearance must be which of the following?

a) No more than 10 working days from the date bail was granted.
b) No more than 7 consecutive days from the date bail was granted.
c) No more than 14 days from the date bail was granted.

Answer 37

c) No more than 14 days from the date bail was granted.

Question 38

Under section 23 of the Bill of Rights Act 1990 a person has the right to be treated with humanity and with respect for their inherent dignity. Who does this section apply to:

a) everyone
b) everyone charged with an offence
c) everyone arrested or detained

Answer 38

c) everyone arrested or detained

Question 39

At 1400 hours you gave Jimmy (aged 15) his rights pursuant to section 215 of the Children, Young Persons and Their Families Act 1989. At 1445 hours he asks you whether he has to answer the question you just asked him. The most appropriate thing for you to do is

a) Advise him that he may withdraw his consent to make a statement at any time.
b) Advise him he must continue to answer all questions put to him.
c) advise him again of all his rights pursuant to section 215 of the CYPF Act

Answer 39

c) advise him again of all his rights pursuant to section 215 of the CYPF Act

Question 40

Late at night you are called to a suspicious fire at a school. While cordoning the scene you locate and search a male teenager. Newspaper and a can of accelerant are found in his carry bag. He refuses to tell you his name. Your caution should make sure he understands:

a) You just want to ask him some questions before deciding what you should do
b) You can arrest him if he continues to refuse to give you his name and address
c) You know he has something to do with the fire so he should start talking now

Answer 40

b) You can arrest him if he continues to refuse to give you his name and address

Question 41

A youth (16 years) who is to be interviewed about stolen property insists on his uncle as his nominated person. On contacting the uncle you find that he is willing to attend an interview but due to work commitments is not available until the next day. You should advise the youth in this situation that:

a) His nominated person is not available within the required timeframes and request he nominates another
b) The interview will be delayed until his uncle can attend and that the youth will be released conditionally
c) You are obligated to inform his parents of the matter so a parent may as well be his nominated person

Answer 41

a) His nominated person is not available within the required timeframes and request he nominates another

Question 42

Which of the following people may not act as nominated persons, even if the young person specifically requests them?

a) A patched gang member with previous convictions who is a member of the youth’s whanau or their guardian
b) A person you believe on reasonable grounds is a witness or has some knowledge of the matter being investigated
c) A person you believe on reasonable grounds would attempt to pervert the course of justice if permitted to consult with the young person.

Answer 42

b) A person you believe on reasonable grounds is a witness or has some knowledge of the matter being investigated

Question 43

In general, should an investigator regard a child or youth under the age of 18 years as a special consideration witness?

a) Yes, because a specialist interviewer is always required for children and young people.
b) Yes, because their age and maturity level may mean they are vulnerable in an interview situation.
c) Yes, because the government agency Oranga Tamariki sets requirements for their interview.

Answer 43

b) Yes, because their age and maturity level may mean they are vulnerable in an interview situation.

Question 44

When deciding on the admissibility of a youth’s interview, an overriding principle that will guide the judge is:

a) That the interview was conducted in compliance with the terms of the Chief Justice Practice Note
b) Whether the interview was fairly conducted in acceptance of the CYP’s vulnerability which entitles them special protection
c) Whether the youth was fully informed of their rights according to s215 of CYP and their Families Act 1989.

Answer 44

c) Whether the youth was fully informed of their rights according to s215 of CYP and their Families Act 1989.

Question 45

When a nominated person arrives to support a youth for interview you should give the nominated person the ‘Advice and Duties Nominated Person’ booklet and:

a) Ascertain they have read it, get them to sign they understand and agree to their role requirements
b) Commence the interview, stating who is present and their role and explain the youth’s rights on video
c) Explain its contents to the nominated person and allow them time alone to discuss it with the youth

Answer 45

c) Explain its contents to the nominated person and allow them time alone to discuss it with the youth

Question 46

Victim Impact Statements are required:

a) In every case involving an identifiable victim.
b) In some cases when the judge requests the victim’s views are to read to the court.
c) In most cases where there is an identifiable victim and others affected by the offence.

Answer 46

c) In most cases where there is an identifiable victim and others affected by the offence.

Question 47

When must a victim of a Section 29 offence be advised of their right to be on the Victim Notification System (VNR)?

a) At first contact with the victim of a Section 29 offence
b) Following the offender’s conviction and sentencing
c) At the time of the offenders arrest (if practicable)

Answer 47

c) At the time of the offenders arrest (if practicable)

Question 48

Victim Rights Act 2002 Section 29 offences are defined as:

a) Serious assault resulting in injury, death or a person being rendered incapable (including road accidents) where the victim is entitled to specialist support.
b) Sexual or serious assault resulting in injury, death or being rendered incapable or leading to the victim having fears for their safety or the safety of their family.
c) Sexual and or physical, emotional violence offences against another person in a relationship as defined by the New Zealand Police Domestic Violence Policy.

Answer 48

b) Sexual or serious assault resulting in injury, death or being rendered incapable or leading to the victim having fears for their safety or the safety of their family.

Question 49

Simon is having an extremely noisy party at his house. A noise abatement notice has been served on Simon but he decides to ignore it and turn the stereo up louder. The local council agent returns to the address to seize the stereo. Simon picks up a golf club, holds it up in the air and states to the agent “the stereo is not going anywhere and if you come any closer I will smack your head in”. What is the most appropriate Crimes Act 1961 assault offence?

a) aggravated assault (section 192)
b) assault with intent to injure (section 193)
c) common assault (section 196)

Answer 49

b) assault with intent to injure (section 193)

Question 50

In relation to section 188 of Crimes Act 1961 the difference between subsections (1) and (2) relates to:

a) The recklessness of the suspect in relation to the injuries caused.
b) The seriousness of the injuries caused by the suspect.
c) The intent of the suspect when causing injuries.

Answer 50

c) The intent of the suspect when causing injuries.

Question 51

After being evicted from a party Steve drives his car into a crowd gathered outside of the address, injuring three people. In order to prove ‘recklessness’ under section 189(2) Crimes Act 1961, you must prove that Steve:

a) took a risk while not aware of the probable consequences
b) consciously and deliberately took an unjustified risk
c) consciously and deliberately took a reasonable risk

Answer 51

b) consciously and deliberately took an unjustified risk

Question 52

Last week you were called to large department store where security advises they have CCTV evidence of a female (18 years) shoplifting clothing. On further investigation you find the young woman has an extensive youth file which includes numerous incidents of dishonesty and theft. Which one of the following public interest factors most supports prosecution in this case?

a) The likelihood of the offence being repeated.
b) The circumstances of the defendant.
c) The seriousness of the offence.

Answer 52

c) The seriousness of the offence.

Question 53

Joe and Steve break into a vehicle parked up a residential driveway. They rip the GPS system from the dashboard and take a mountain bike from the boot of the vehicle. As they run down the driveway they are confronted by the owner who attempts to stop them getting away. Steve punches the homeowner in the face causing him to fall to the ground and Joe and Steve run away. What is the most appropriate assault offence?

a) aggravated assault (section 192 Crimes Act 1961)
b) injuring with intent (section 189 Crimes Act 1961)
c) common assault (section 9 Summary Offences Act 1981)

Answer 53

a) aggravated assault (section 192 Crimes Act 1961)

Question 54

Harry and Ben argue on the street outside a local bar. Harry grabs a glass bottle from the rubbish bin, shouts “I hope this hurts”, and swings the bottle at Ben’s head. Ben ducks and the bottle shatters against the bar wall. The most appropriate charge in relation to Harry’s actions is:

a) ‘assault with intent to injure’ because Harry intended to injure Ben with the bottle
b) ‘common assault’ because Harry did not succeed in hitting Ben with the bottle
c) ‘assault with intent to injure’ because Harry was reckless as to whether or not the bottle hit Ben

Answer 54

a) ‘assault with intent to injure’ because Harry intended to injure Ben with the bottle

Question 55

It must be established that an offender must have formed the intention to rob in relation to the offence ‘assault with intent to rob’:

a) immediately after the assault
b) at a time proximate to the planned robbery
c) at the time of the assault

Answer 55

c) at the time of the assault

Question 56

An offender kicks a victim several times in the torso and splits their spleen. Which of the following charges is the most appropriate?

a) With intent to cause grievous bodily harm, maims.
b) With intent to injure, wounds.
c) With intent to injure, injures.

Answer 56

b) With intent to injure, wounds.

Question 57

Tessa and Jean want Lisa’s MP3 player. Tessa is aware that Jean has a knife and is prepared to use it when they confront Lisa. Jean brandishes the knife and threatens to stab Lisa unless she gives her the MP3 player. Lisa is scared but doesn’t want to hand over her MP3 player so gives Jean some money instead. Which of the following is correct in relation to the “being armed with an offensive weapon” ingredient of ‘aggravated robbery’?

a) Tessa and Jean are both liable for ‘aggravated robbery’ as it can be said that they are both armed with a knife
b) Jean is liable for ‘aggravated robbery’ and Tessa is a party to ‘aggravated robbery’ as she did not have possession of the knife
c) only Jean is liable for ‘aggravated robbery’ as she was the person armed with a knife and had control over it

Answer 57

b) Jean is liable for ‘aggravated robbery’ and Tessa is a party to ‘aggravated robbery’ as she did not have possession of the knife

Question 58

Doug and Colin have no money so decide to hide in the bushes and wait for a pedestrian to go by so they can steal that person’s cash. As a pedestrian approaches Doug changes his mind and takes off. Colin hits the pedestrian and searches his pockets. He finds no money but takes an MP3 player instead. Colin is liable for which of the following?

a) ‘robbery’ as he has used violence on the pedestrian and stolen the MP3 player
b) ‘theft’ as the intention to steal the MP3 player was only conceived after he realised that the pedestrian had no money
c) ‘aggravated robbery’ as he was together with Doug when they first hid in the bushes and made the plan

Answer 58

a) ‘robbery’ as he has used violence on the pedestrian and stolen the MP3 player

Question 59

Brad goes up to Kevin and threatens him with “a hiding” if the sunglasses Kevin is wearing are not handed over to him immediately. Kevin refuses to comply and Brad punches him in the head. The sunglasses break. Brad, no longer interested in glasses, walks away empty-handed.

a) Attempted robbery
b) Robbery
c) Assault with intent to rob

Answer 59

c) Assault with intent to rob

Question 60

Which of the following scenarios does constitute a robbery?

a) Knocking the victim to the ground whilst grabbing a cash bag.
b) Struggling with a victim who is hanging onto a cash bag.
c) Snatching a cash bag from a victim.

Answer 60

a) Knocking the victim to the ground whilst grabbing a cash bag.

Question 61

Sandra is 18 years old and has a reputation for being a fighter. Aroha is sitting at the bus stop when Sandra comes up and tells Aroha that she likes the jacket she is wearing. Aroha knows Sandra was involved in a fight last week so takes off her jacket, gives it to Sandra and then runs away. What offence has Sandra committed?

a) Demanding with menaces.
b) No offence.
c) Theft.

Answer 61

b) No offence.

Question 62

You have arrested John for aggravated robbery but would like to obtain further information from him. Which of the following statement is most correct?

a) you can continue to interview him but your questions must not amount to cross-examination.
b) you can cross examine him for as long as necessary to gather further evidence against him.
c) you can only question an arrested person to clear up any ambiguities in their previous statements.

Answer 62

a) you can continue to interview him but your questions must not amount to cross-examination.

Question 63

Jo Brown heading home after a night in town is kicked and punched by a group of offenders. As a result of the assault Jo suffers severe bruising to his face but develops severe and ongoing depression and is unable to be left alone at night. In relation to sections 188-193 of the Crimes Act 188-193 of the Crimes Act 1961 Jo is considered to have been:

a) Disfigured
b) Injured
c) Maimed

Answer 63

b) Injured

Question 64

George is running down a crowded street. He grabs the shoulder bag of a passing female. He twists her arm as she tries to hold on to her bag. The pain causes her to let go of the bag and George takes off. The most appropriate offence in relation to the action of George is:

a) ‘theft’ as the violence used was minimal and would not constitute robbery
b) ‘theft’ in relation to the stolen property and ‘assault’ in relation to the violence
c) ‘robbery’ as the theft was accompanied by a sufficient level of violence

Answer 64

c) ‘robbery’ as the theft was accompanied by a sufficient level of violence

Question 65

Stan sees Nigel walking along the road with Gloria, Stan’s ex-girlfriend. Stan is furious. He steps in front of them and says menacingly “Get off my street or you’ll get this”. Gloria and Nigel

are frightened. Stan then raises his fist and demonstrates a punching movement. Can Stan be charged with assault?

a) Yes, because to threaten another is an indirect application of force.
b) Yes, because Bert and Gloria have reason to believe Stan can harm them.
c) No, because Stan has not actually applied any force to Bert or Gloria.

Answer 65

b) Yes, because Bert and Gloria have reason to believe Stan can harm them.

Question 66

Billy strikes Mike over the head with a hammer then runs to his car with the hammer and drives off. A short time lawyer you locate Billy driving the car and stop the car under s121 to search Billy and the car for the hammer. As you attempt to speak to him, Billy leaps out of the car and sprints off. Can you search the car for the hammer?

a) Yes, because you saw Billy run away from the car and you have RGTS the hammer is still in the car
b) No, because with Billy running away you have no RGTB that the hammer will be CADD.
c) No, because likely is no longer in or on the vehicle so therefore power to search it does not apply.

Answer 66

b) No, because with Billy running away you have no RGTB that the hammer will be CADD.

Question 67

Steve goes to his local pub where after a few drinks he gets in to an argument with his friend Gerry. Gerry becomes so enraged with Steve that he yells out “you really deserve this” and smashes his glass twice on Steve’s face causing the glass to shatter. Steve suffers severe lacerations to his cheek and lip and a fractured eye socket. What is the most appropriate Crimes Act 1961 assault offence?

a) injuring with intent (Section 189(1)
b) wounding with intent (Section 188(1)
c) assault with a weapon (Section 202C)

Answer 67

b) wounding with intent (Section 188(1)

Question 68

Steve and Keith are walking down the road together. Steve is wearing an All Whites football jersey. Henry wants the football jersey so walks up to Keith, punches him in the face, and yells at him to tell Steve to give up his jersey otherwise he will punch him again. Steve fearing that Keith might be hurt takes off his jersey and gives it to Henry. What offence has Henry committed?

a) ‘aggravated robbery’ as Henry has used violence on more than one person and stolen property.
b) ‘theft’ as the violence was used on Keith but the property was taken from Steve.
c) ‘robbery’ as Henry has used violence and stolen property.

Answer 68

c) ‘robbery’ as Henry has used violence and stolen property.

Question 69

Jo has an argument with his neighbour and is so enraged that he burns his cigarette into his neighbour’s face repeatedly causing in excess of 10 burns. However, 12 months later and before the jury trial in relation to the incident, the burn marks have faded so much that they are no longer visible. Which of the following charges is the most appropriate?

a) with intent to injure anyone, maims.
b) with intent to injure anyone, disfigures.
c) with intent to cause grievous bodily harm to anyone, wounds.

Answer 69

b) with intent to injure anyone, disfigures.

Question 70

You may search a person without warrant for a controlled drug if you have:

a) RGTB an offence has occurred and RGTB they are in possession of a controlled drug.
b) RGTS an offence has occurred and RGTS they are in possession of a controlled drug.
c) RGTS an offence has occurred and RGTB they are in possession of a controlled drug.

Answer 70

c) RGTS an offence has occurred and RGTB they are in possession of a controlled drug.

Question 71

You are in the carpark of the shopping mall when you hear a woman crying out that her handbag has been snatched. She tells you the offender ran off and got circumstances you would use s8 to enter the van to:

a) Seize the handbag.
b) Arrest the offender.
c) Search the van.

Answer 71

b) Arrest the offender.

Question 72

While on patrol you see a man waiting at a taxi rank who matches Comms description of one of two men who robbed a shop assistant one hour ago. The men are reported to have stolen two iPhones. Which power of search is most appropriate in the circumstances?

a) s27 Warrantless search of a person in a public place for an offensive weapon
b) s88 Warrantless search of arrested or detained person for evidential material
c) s16 Warrantless search of a person for evidential material relating to certain offences

Answer 72

c) s16 Warrantless search of a person for evidential material relating to certain offences

Question 73

Under the S & S Act 2012 which of the following could be an example of ‘privileged information’?

a) DVD record of a special consideration witness interview
b) Patient records kept by a GP or psychologist
c) CCTV video evidence from a camera in a bar

Answer 73

b) Patient records kept by a GP or psychologist

Question 74

You arrest a young woman in the crowded smoking area outside a bar as you have RGTB she is in possession of drugs and RGTS she is distributing drugs to others. You give your obligations and conduct a rub-down search including putting your hands inside the pockets of the zipped up jacket she is wearing. She is abusive and uncooperative. You demand she removes her jacket

and when she does you find she is wearing only underwear. A lawyer might challenge your search on the principle of:

a) Reasonableness
b) Reasonable grounds
c) Lawfulness

Answer 74

a) Reasonableness

Question 75

John has escaped from a prison van transporting him from the local court to prison. You see him run into someone’s garden. Can you enter the property to arrest John?

a) Yes, because John is unlawfully at large and you have RGTS he is on the property
b) Yes, because John is unlawfully at large and you have RGTB he is on the property
c) No, because even though you have RGTB he is on the property John is not unlawfully at large

Answer 75

b) Yes, because John is unlawfully at large and you have RGTB he is on the property

Question 76

You search a person for Cannabis under section 21 of the S&S Act 2012. What statutory requirements (if any) do you have to fulfil after the search?

a) submit a Police 101 form to officially record the search.
b) none, as you did not find anything.
c) submit a notification to the Commissioner within three days

Answer 76

c) submit a notification to the Commissioner within three days

Question 77

Before applying for a SW, you must be sure that the offence you suspect is being, has been or is about to be committed is:

a) an offence punishable by imprisonment
b) an offence under any enactment
c) any type of Category 1 offence

Answer 77

a) an offence punishable by imprisonment

Question 78

One night you attend an aggravated burglary. Witnesses give a detailed description of the car the offender left in. You QV the registration number and identify an address for the vehicle. At the address you locate the vehicle parked in the driveway beside the house. The house is in darkness and the offender is nowhere in sight. Can you now undertake a warrantless search of the vehicle (s17) for the weapon used?

a) No, because the car that may contain evidential material is not in a public place
b) Yes, because there are RGTB that evidential material will be CADD
c) Yes, because you have RGTB that the evidential material is in the car

Answer 78

c) Yes, because you have RGTB that the evidential material is in the car

Question 79

When applying for a SW, you must provide details of any other applications for the target of the warrant that have been made during the previous:

a) 1 month
b) 6 moths
c) 3 months

Answer 79

c) 3 months

Question 80

In relation to some MODA 1975 offences, s20 allows you to search which of the following:

a) any vehicle and place
b) any place and people therein
c) any vehicle and people therein

Answer 80

a) any vehicle and place

Question 81

You respond to a call from Comms about people in a car who are reported to have pointed a rifle at passengers in another car. Comms gives you a vehicle description and registration. You locate the car in a public car park. There are three males in the vehicle. You have a power to search the vehicle without warrant because you have:

a) RGTS the passengers have a firearm in the vehicle and RGTS they are committing an offence against the Arms Act 1983

Answer 81

a) RGTS the passengers have a firearm in the vehicle and RGTS they are committing an offence against the Arms Act 1983

Question 82

The salesman notices a man acting suspiciously at a computer display and a short time later he discovers a laptop is missing. Police are called and they promptly view the CCTV record of the carpark which show the man, who is carrying a laptop getting into a blue car, QSY432. Comms alerts all cars and a short time later you stop the vehicle under s121 but, as you approach, the driver runs off. Can you proceed to search the vehicle for the missing laptop?

a) Yes, because you have RGTB the evidential material will be CADD.
b) No, because you must first arrest the driver before you can search.
c) Yes, because you have RGTB the missing laptop is in the vehicle.

Answer 82

c) Yes, because you have RGTB the missing laptop is in the vehicle.

Question 83

Jake is arrested for burglary by Porirua police. He states that evidential material from that offence can be found at an address in Rotorua. Jake says his mates are on their way to pick it up. What course of action should Porirua police take?

a) Apply for a SW and ask Rotorua police secure the address under s117
b) Ask Rotorua police conduct a warrantless s83 search on the address
c) Ask Rotorua police carry out a consent search on the address

Answer 83

b) Ask Rotorua police conduct a warrantless s83 search on the address

Question 84

You stop a vehicle for the purpose of searching it. There are four occupants in the car. Your partner deals with the driver. The backseat passenger asks you why the car has been stopped. What obligations do you have to him?

a) None You are only obliged to tell the passenger of the vehicle the reason for the stop
b) You must identify yourself by name, tell him the reason for the search, state the Act and Section under which the search is taking place and the reason for it, unless it is impracticable to do so in the circumstances, and produce evidence if ID if not in uniform
c) You must identify yourself by name or QID, and state the Act under which the search is taking place and the reason for it, unless it is impracticable to do so in the circumstances, and produce evidence if ID if not in uniform

Answer 84

a) None You are only obliged to tell the passenger of the vehicle the reason for the stop

Question 85

You are en route to the scene of an armed robbery where it is believed that an air rifle has been used. You locate a person you believe to be the offender a couple of blocks from the scene. Can you lawfully stop and search him under section 18 of the S&S Act 2012?

a) Yes, providing you have reasonable grounds to suspect they are in possession of it.
b) No, suspicion is insufficient. You must have ‘reasonable ground to believe’ before conducting a search.
c) Yes, but you should obtain his consent first.

Answer 85

a) Yes, providing you have reasonable grounds to suspect they are in possession of it.

Question 86

Risk assessment is essential in the Search Warrant process. When should risk assessment occur?

a) Before the SW application is completed and before SW reporting.
b) Before the SW is executed on this occasion and any other occasion.
c) Before the SW application is completed and prior to execution.

Answer 86

b) Before the SW is executed on this occasion and any other occasion.

Question 87

As part of the SW application process you must check that your NIA target is valid. You need to do this because details of any SW applications made on your target:

a) in the last 6 months will be attached to your application
b) in that location will be attached to your application
c) in the last 3 months will be attached to your application

Answer 87

c) in the last 3 months will be attached to your application

Question 88

When completing a search warrant application, you must describe:

a) your own personal belief that the warrant is justified and the facts on which this is based
b) the belief of the Approving Officer that the warrant is justified and the facts on which this is based
c) the belief of the Police that the warrant is justified and the facts on which this is based

Answer 88

a) your own personal belief that the warrant is justified and the facts on which this is based

Question 89

You wish to install a 24 hour camera across the road from a suspected tinnie house to record the comings and goings at the front door. Which of the following do you need?

a) Search Warrant issued under the Search and Surveillance Act 2012
b) No warrant is needed as the camera is being installed on private property by consent of the owner of that property
c) Surveillance Device Warrant issued under the Search and Surveillance Act 2012

Answer 89

a) Search Warrant issued under the Search and Surveillance Act 2012

Question 90

As a condition of the authorisation of your SW application, an IO may require you to complete:

a) A S & S system SW outcome
b) A s104 search warrant report
c) A post warrant intelligence report.

Answer 90

b) A s104 search warrant report

Question 91

What is the maximum duration of time that an authorisation for a road block granted under section 30 is valid without renewal by a District Court Judge?

a) 24 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 48 hours

Answer 91

a) 24 hours

Question 92

Section 110 allows you to use reasonable force for the purposes of carrying out a search and seizure in respect of:

a) Any property you can lawfully search
b) Any person hindering your search
c) Property and any person hindering your search

Answer 92

a) Any property you can lawfully search

Question 93

You and several other officers are called to a party that has got out of control. A young woman at the party tells you that she was sexually assaulted in the bedroom of the house. One of your colleagues leaves to apply for a SW. Could you use s117 in these circumstances?

a) Yes, because a SW is being sought and you believe the evidential material may be CADD or removed.
b) Yes, because a SW is being sought, you are at the place and suspect that evidential material may be CADD or removed.

Answer 93

a) Yes, because a SW is being sought and you believe the evidential material may be CADD or removed.

Question 94

The Issuing Officer has authorised your SW for a car used in a drive by shooting. An informant tells you that the car is now parked in the driveway of a suburban house. You drive by the house and see the car is there. The SW allows you to:

a) Enter the place and search it under the SW.
b) Enter the place to search the car and the place.
c) Enter the place to execute the SW on the car.

Answer 94

c) Enter the place to execute the SW on the car.

Question 95

You are dispatched to a P1 event where a man who is on work release from a psychiatric instruction has just threatened his neighbours with a small hand gun. On arrival you find the man sitting in his car in his driveway. Can you search without warrant for the gun?

a) Yes, you can search the man, his car, anything in his possession and his property.
b) Yes, you can search the man and his car and the neighbour’s property.
c) No, you cannot search the man or his vehicle as they are on private property.

Answer 95

a) Yes, you can search the man, his car, anything in his possession and his property.

Question 96

When executing a SW for stolen goods in or on a place or vehicle you must always comply with your s131 obligations to give notice except when:

a) circumstances exist that make it too dangerous or might prejudice the investigation
b) the occupant clearly consents to you executing the SW and you do not seize any items
c) the owner or occupier is not present at the place or vehicle to be searched.

Answer 96

c) the owner or occupier is not present at the place or vehicle to be searched.

Question 97

When is a search warrant deemed to be legally executed?

a) when the property specified in the warrant has been seized.
b) when the warrant has been endorsed.
c) when the premises specified in the warrant have been entered

Answer 97

a) when the property specified in the warrant has been seized.

Question 98

Section 103 of the Evidence Act 2006 recognises the rights of a special consideration witness by:

a) Providing opportunity for their evidence in chief to be given to the court in an alternative way
b) Allowing them to have a support person in court to assist them to give their evidence
c) Protecting them from cross-examination by the defence who can question any witness

Answer 98

a) Providing opportunity for their evidence in chief to be given to the court in an alternative way

Question 99

When a person is to be locked up in Police custody, a search can be undertaken under s11. The primary purpose of this search is to:

a) seize any evidential material found
b) take items that may be used to self-harm
c) remove money or property for safekeeping

Answer 99

b) take items that may be used to self-harm

Question 100

Section 18 Warrantless searches associated with arms gives you the power to do which one of the following?

a) Search persons and place (excluding vehicle), enter place, seize and detain firearms, seize and detain firearms licence.
b) Search persons or possessions (including vehicle) and place, seize and detain firearms and detain firearms licences.
c) Search persons or possessions (including vehicle) and place, enter place or vehicle, seize and detain firearms, seize and detain firearms licence.

Answer 100

c) Search persons or possessions (including vehicle) and place, enter place or vehicle, seize and detain firearms, seize and detain firearms licence.

Question 101

Jimmy breaches the conditions of the Protection Order held by Jenny when he enters their home and assaults her. Jenny tells you that Jimmy has gone to his mate’s house to pick up his belongings because he says he’s leaving town. Which warrantless power could you use on Jimmy’s mate’s house?

a) s7 Warrantless entry to arrest Jimmy who is now unlawfully at large
b) s8 Warrantless entry to arrest Jimmy who has committed the offence of assault
c) s15 Warrantless entry to locate evidential material relating to the offence

Answer 101

b) s8 Warrantless entry to arrest Jimmy who has committed the offence of assault

Question 102

A morning’s fall in you are told that Tim failed to appear at court on several charges under the Land Transport Act and there is now a WTA in place. You are out patrolling when you see him drive past. You stop his car under s9. Which power of search would you use following your arrest of Tim?

a) s11 custody search for property and money
b) s85 search for items that could harm any person or facilitate escape
c) s88 search for evidential material

Answer 102

b) s85 search for items that could harm any person or facilitate escape

Question 103

An appreciation is the mental process, the written plan:

a) Is primarily for use in discussion or briefing events with colleagues and supervisors
b) Shows that investigator has done their job thoroughly and knows their responsibilities
c) Records decision making and shows why a certain course of action was decided

Answer 103

c) Records decision making and shows why a certain course of action was decided

Question 104

Which statement best describes hypotheses and why you might use them?

a) Hypotheses are the product of creative thinking. They are used to verify the collection of evidential material
b) Hypotheses suggest explanations for a group of facts. They can be used to generate lines of inquiry
c) Hypotheses suggest explanations for a group of facts. They are used to support the interpretation of evidence

Answer 104

b) Hypotheses suggest explanations for a group of facts. They can be used to generate lines of inquiry

Question 105

Appreciation technique, what is a factor?

a) An actual event that must be taken into consideration.
b) A statement of truth about a known influence or circumstance.
c) A consideration of something that is known or assumed.

Answer 105

b) A statement of truth about a known influence or circumstance.

Question 106

Which words best describe the Appreciation technique?

a) A four step process to identify problems and find appropriate solutions.
b) A four step problem solving process that informs decision making.
c) A four step process that is written down, not committed to memory.

Answer 106

b) A four step problem solving process that informs decision making.

Question 107

The “Golden hour” concept refers to the time when

a) Forensic specialists examine and uplift scene exhibits
b) Evidential material is more readily available at a crime scene
c) The offender is quickly located, questioned and arrested

Answer 107

b) Evidential material is more readily available at a crime scene

Question 108

Which of the following statements best describes an investigative mind-set?

a) The knowledge and skills that that investigation develop overtime mostly through on the job learning with a good mentor.
b) A principled approach to the way investigators examine material and make appropriate and reasonable decisions.
c) A statement of mind or attitude which is demonstrated through investigative knowledge and skills and continuously asking “so what”?

Answer 108

b) A principled approach to the way investigators examine material and make appropriate and reasonable decisions.

Question 109

In the appreciation technique, what is a factor?

a) A consideration of something that is known or assumed.
b) An actual event that must be taken into consideration.
c) A statement of truth about a known influence or circumstances.

Answer 109

c) A statement of truth about a known influence or circumstances.

Question 110

What is meant by an investigator’s ‘working rules’?

a) The investigation rules that are known but not always applied.
b) The knowledge and skills learnt from investigator experience
c) The rules set down in the NZP Police Code of Conduct.

Answer 110

b) The knowledge and skills learnt from investigator experience

Question 111

Which of the following statements best describes an investigative mind-set?

a) A state of mind or attitude which is demonstrated through investigative knowledge and skills and continually asking “so what”?
b) The knowledge and skills that that investigators develop overtime mostly through on the job learning with a good mentor.
c) A principled approach to the way investigator examine material and make appropriate and reasonable decisions.

Answer 111

b) The knowledge and skills that that investigators develop overtime mostly through on the job learning with a good mentor.

Question 112

For any investigation you should aim to collect:

a) The maximum amount of material and examine for its use
b) Evidence first then look for information and intelligence
c) Only material that you know is relevant and admissible.

Answer 112

a) The maximum amount of material and examine for its use

Question 113

Constables Jenkins and Tuigamala respond to a P1 home invasion where the victim says the offender has entered and exited through the door into the backyard and absconded over the fence into a neighbouring property. To protect the collection of forensic evidence they cordon the scene and establish a common entry pathway via:

a) The front door through which the constables entered
b) A small gateway opening to the next door property
c) Double glass doors to the deck at the rear of the house

Answer 113

a) The front door through which the constables entered

Question 114

Primary transfer occurs when

a) The O/C initial party hands over scene control to O/C case
b) There is direct transfer of material between one party and another
c) There is indirect transfer of material between a party and another

Answer 114

b) There is direct transfer of material between one party and another

Question 115

The Hot zone in a serious crime scene can be described as the part of the scene where scene examiners:

a) Conduct forensic analysis of items in the material collection
b) Reconstruct the scene and formulate a forensic strategy
c) Search for, uplift and package items for exhibits and analysis

Answer 115

c) Search for, uplift and package items for exhibits and analysis

Question 116

The Warm zone can be described as a place inside the scene cordon where:

a) Forensic material is identified, retrieved and examined
b) Exhibits are processed by a crime scene team member
c) The O/C scene briefs the examination team members

Answer 116

b) Exhibits are processed by a crime scene team member

Question 117

Which of the following actions is one way of preventing post incident cross contamination of a victim of a serious assault:

a) Ensuring different officers interview the victim and suspect.
b) Transporting the victim and offender in the same vehicle.
c) Taking photos of the victim as soon as possible.

Answer 117

a) Ensuring different officers interview the victim and suspect.

Question 118

The initial action party at the scene of a serious crime must work quickly to:

a) Collect sufficient information to brief the O/C scene.
b) Remove people from the scene to reduce further contamination
c) Establish hot, warm and cold zone.

Answer 118

b) Remove people from the scene to reduce further contamination

Question 119

Which of the following statements describes when contamination occurs?

a) The movement of exhibits is not recorded in the exhibit register.
b) Many people enter and leave the scene.
c) The crime scene is doused in continuous rain

Answer 119

b) Many people enter and leave the scene.

Question 120

The I car is first to the scene of a serious crash incident where 2 people in one car are injured and trapped. The constables’ first duty is to:

a) Ensure the crash scene is a safe as possible
b) Establish a pathway into and out of the scene
c) Assess the injured people and give first aid

Answer 120

a) Ensure the crash scene is a safe as possible

Question 121

Which of the following tasks is not the responsibility of an exhibits officer?

a) Prepare exhibits in the best manner for display to the court
b) Manage the receipt, control and storage of all exhibits
c) Establish the relevance of the exhibit to the enquiry

Answer 121

c) Establish the relevance of the exhibit to the enquiry

Question 122

In which zone would Police first photograph material?

a) Hot
b) Warm
c) Cold

Answer 122

a) Hot

Question 123

During crime scene examination you find a small amount of a dry substance in a jar. To determine if it is to be collected for analysis you can:

a) Smell and taste the substance.
b) Roll it on your fingertips and sniff it.
c) Examine it with gloved hands.

Answer 123

c) Examine it with gloved hands.

Question 124

If you are first at the scene where a body has been found your first response must be to:

a) Check for signs of life and render assistance accordingly.
b) Ensure the scene is safe to enter.
c) Mark the position of the body on the ground.

Answer 124

b) Ensure the scene is safe to enter.

Question 125

A victim of a sexual assault is transported in the same police vehicle as the offender is later in the day. What is this this called?

a) Loss of evidence
b) Deterioration
c) Cross-contamination

Answer 125

c) Cross-contamination

Question 126

A common approach path to and from the crime scene is established to:

a) Control access to the scene to prevent contamination.
b) Keep records of all people who enter and exit the scene.
c) Show where the scene examination zones are located.

Answer 126

a) Control access to the scene to prevent contamination.

Question 127

Contamination of DNA evidence is a real risk. The minimum standard of protective clothing to be worn by everybody entering a scene is:

a) Gloves and masks.
b) Masks and booties.
c) Gloves and booties.

Answer 127

a) Gloves and masks.

Question 128

The purpose of an initial reconnaissance by the first on the scene officers at a serious crime scene is to:

a) Generate a valid theory about the offender’s location.
b) Inform COMMs who is required for the scene examination
c) Survey the scene to establish the action required to secure

Answer 128

c) Survey the scene to establish the action required to secure

Question 129

Male A dances with Female B, who is wearing a blue jersey, and he gets blue fibres on his top. Later on that night Male A dances with Female C and some of the blue fibres are transferred to her shirt. Which of the following is an example of primary transfer?

a) Female B and Female C
b) Male A and Female B
c) Male A and Female C

Answer 129

b) Male A and Female B

Question 130

When making a reconstruction of a crime scene you must remember to:

a) Delay your reconstruction until all facts are established.
b) Revise your construction as new facts are obtained.
c) Always start at your initial point of entry to the scene.

Answer 130

b) Revise your construction as new facts are obtained.

Question 131

Because deleted images can very easily be recovered from digital camera, the guidelines direct:

a) Digital cameras are assigned to a named position or employee
b) The image taker should regularly reformat the camera
c) The image taker must promptly delete the images in the camera

Answer 131

c) The image taker must promptly delete the images in the camera

Question 132

COMMS will assist with serious scene coordination by contacting forensic specialists required. As a general rule, which forensic specialist will be called first to attend the scene?

a) A SOCO or Fingerprint expert
b) An ESR scientist
c) A photographer

Answer 132

a) A SOCO or Fingerprint expert

Question 133

Evidential Material, in relation to a particular offence, means evidence of the offence or any other item, tangible or intangible, of relevance to the investigation of the offence. A tangible item that could be evidential material is:

a) Online banking records
b) A locked iPhone
c) Image library in cell phone

Answer 133

b) A locked iPhone

Question 134

Ensuring the admissibility of forensic evidence presented to the court requires understanding of which of the following groups of words:

a) persistence, contaminate, inference, secure
b) relevance, oppression, veracity, reliability
c) contaminate, relevance, integrity, security

Answer 134

a) persistence, contaminate, inference, secure

Question 135

The O/C initial action party is responsible for effectively briefly and conducting handover to an O/C Scene on their arrival at a serious crime scene. What information is essential to the integrity of the crime scene examination?

a) All known details relating to the offender’s movements.
b) Records of notebook entries, observations and witness details.
c) Details of any post incident movement in the crime scene.

Answer 135

c) Details of any post incident movement in the crime scene.

Question 136

Ensuring that the continuity of the ‘Chain of evidence’ is maintained refers to the specific duties of the:

a) O/C investigation
b) ESR scene examiner
c) Exhibit officer

Answer 136

a) O/C investigation

Question 137

All material gathered during an investigation should be evaluated through the filters of:

a) Relevance, reliability, admissibility
b) Fact, assumption, hearsay
c) Corroboration, accuracy, fairness

Answer 137

a) Relevance, reliability, admissibility

Question 138

A women dances with a man, Male A, who is wearing a red jersey and she gets red fibres on her top. Late in the evening she dances with another man Male B and some of the red fibres are transferred to the shirt of that man. The scenario is an example of secondary transfer between:

a) Male A and Male B
b) The women and Male B
c) The women and Male A

Answer 138

b) The women and Male B

Question 139

The initial action party at the scene of a serious crime must work quickly to:

a) Uplift specific items of interest within the scene (e.g. weapons)
b) Conduct interviews with all witnesses present at the scene
c) Cordon the area to prevent any person entering the scene

Answer 139

c) Cordon the area to prevent any person entering the scene

Question 140

In a forensic sense, what does persistence refer to?

a) The length of time biological material can be detected following a crime
b) The way in which biological material adheres to a surface
c) The nature of the procedures undertaken by forensic specialists

Answer 140

a) The length of time biological material can be detected following a crime

Question 141

Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of the exhibits officer at a serious crime scene?

a) Managing the receipt, control and storage of all exhibits.
b) Establishing the relevance of an exhibit to the enquiry.
c) Analysing exhibits for forensic material.

Answer 141

a) Managing the receipt, control and storage of all exhibits.

Question 142

The hot zone in a serious crime is best described as:

a) a zone where scene guards record movements of staff to and from the scene
b) a zone where forensic analysis of exhibits takes place
c) that part of the scene requiring examination and evidence collection

Answer 142

c) that part of the scene requiring examination and evidence collection

Question 143

When taking digital images of a crime scene yourself, you must start an audit trail recording the details of the images in your notebook. What details must be recorded?

a) date, time and file number range
b) date, time and location
c) date, file number range and camera make and mode

Answer 143

b) date, time and location

Question 144

The decontamination zone model is used at a scene of a major crime because:

a) The scene will contain both biological and physical evidence
b) The forensic evidence it contains is contaminated
c) The scene requires a search plan that ensures close scrutiny

Answer 144

c) The scene requires a search plan that ensures close scrutiny

Question 145

Think about the definition of a crime scene and select the situation most likely to lead to cross contamination?

a) When the material in a scene is altered by strong sunlight
b) When scene equipment is re-used without cleaning
c) When an examiner wears protective clothing but no mask

Answer 145

b) When scene equipment is re-used without cleaning

Question 146

A search is a part of most crime scene examinations. Adopting a search pattern assists to:

a) Prevent destroying or contaminating any possible evidence
b) Use staff efficiently to maximise the material collection
c) Examine the scene in a thorough and controlled manner

Answer 146

c) Examine the scene in a thorough and controlled manner

Question 147

Your completed SW application must show clear connections between:

a) any suspects, any offence and evidential material for those offences.
b) the offence, any suspects and any evidential material they may hold
c) the offence, the target address and evidential material sought there.

Answer 147

a) any suspects, any offence and evidential material for those offences.

Question 148

You are called to an aggravated robbery at a liquor store. As you arrive the offender decamps but you chase and apprehend a 15-year-old youth. Before you have time to question him, he states, “I didn’t mean to shoot the guy”. Which of the following statements best describes the admissibility of the confession?

a) His confession is inadmissible due to his age and the protection of the CYPF Act 1989
b) His confession is admissible but he must be cautioned as soon as possible
c) His confession is inadmissible because you have not cautioned the youth

Answer 148

b) His confession is admissible but he must be cautioned as soon as possible