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CIIP > CIIP Review > Flashcards

CIIP Review Flashcards

1
Q

This type of compression cannot be reversed, data is lost

A

Lossy

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2
Q

This type of compression can be restored to full fidelity (resolution)

A

Lossless

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3
Q

What image file type is part of the DICOM 3.0 standard?

A

JPEG

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4
Q

How many shades of gray are in a 8 bit image?

A

256

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5
Q

How many shades of gray are in a 10 bit image?

A

1024

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6
Q

How many shades of gray are in a 12 bit image?

A

4096

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7
Q

This component spreads the work over more than one resource to get optimal use of the server resources

A

Load balancer

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8
Q

Is a load balancer a virtual or physical device?

A

Virtual

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9
Q

This type of network often uses transmission facilities provided by common carriers, such as telephone companies

A

Wide Area Network (WAN)

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10
Q

At which three layers of the OSI reference model does the WAN function?

A
  • The Physical Layer
  • The Data Link Layer
  • The Network Layer
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11
Q

What are the 4 PACS industry standards?

A
  • DICOM
  • HL7
  • Internet
  • IHE
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12
Q

This is a standard designed to allow transmission of images between equipment built by different manufacturers

A

DICOM - Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine

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13
Q

What is the minimum network information needed to make a DICOM association?

A
  • IP address
  • Host Name
  • Gateway address
  • Subnet Mask
  • DNS address
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14
Q

What is the minimum DICOM information needed to make a DICOM association?

A
  • AE Title
  • DICOM port number
  • SCP/SCU
  • Modality worklist
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15
Q

This is a workstation dedicated to the quality assurance of the PACS

A

QA workstation

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16
Q

What does CPOE stand for?

A

Computerized Provider Order Entry

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17
Q

What is the primary benefit of CPOE?

A

It minimizes errors due to poor handwriting

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18
Q

What standard is used by the RIS (Radiology Information System)?

A

HL7

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19
Q

What does VNA stand for?

A

Vendor Neutral Archive

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20
Q

How can you discover unethical behavior in the use of infomatics?

A

Use the audit trail to evaluate actions

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21
Q

What are the two types of downtime?

A

Scheduled and unscheduled

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22
Q

This is a health information technology system that is designed to assist physicians and other health professionals with clinical decision-making tasks

A

The Clinical Decision Support System (CDSS)

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23
Q

What is the source of the modality worklist?

A

RIS

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24
Q

What is used to capture dose information from the modality?

A

DICOM SR (structured report)

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25
Q

What is almost universally utilized for radiologists reporting?

A

Speech recognition (SR) software

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26
Q

What spells out the general convention for keeping files?

A

The study retention policy

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27
Q

How does a storage system know when to purge exams?

A

They have purge rule sets programmed

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28
Q

What is the legal requirement storing images as it pertains to resolution?

A

Images MUST be stored at the same resolution they were read

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29
Q

This standard enables a common registry that can support multiple repositories

A

Cross Document Sharing (XDS)

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30
Q

Which agency is working to establish best practices in regards to cybersecurity?

A

Medical Imaging Technology Alliance (MITA)

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31
Q

What does “Server-side rendering applications” mean?

A

It means PHI is not left on the mobile device after the images are closed

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32
Q

This represents a movement toward centralized storage and accessibility of patient data in an individualized format, and away from inefficient and costly maintenance of department/system specific silos of information.

Instead of having every “ology” on its own system, all info would be stored on the same server

A

Enterprise Image Management (EIM)

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33
Q

What mandates the requirements for disaster recovery

A

HIPAA Security Requirements

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34
Q

What type of viewing capability is required by diagnosticians?

A

Full-scale viewer

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35
Q

What type of viewing capability is required by clinical specialists?

A

Simple, image manipulation

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36
Q

What type of viewing capability is required by clinicians, other healthcare professionals, patients

A

A simple image viewer

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37
Q

What is meant by a zero footprint viewer?

A

No software is installed on the device you are viewing the images on. It’s basically all web based

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38
Q

What is the difference between an EMR and an EHR?

A

Electronic Medical Record (EMR) - Single organization

Electronic Health Record (EHR) - Cross-organization, like Canada

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39
Q

What does RAID Stand for?

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks

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40
Q

Which RAID level does NOT support redundancy?

A

RAID 0

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41
Q

Which RAID level is called “striping”?

A

RAID 0

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42
Q

Which RAID level is called “mirroring”

A

RAID 1

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43
Q

What are the two types of PACS architectures?

A

Stand alone - single entity that stores images from modalities

Client-server - Web based PACS that interacts with either dedicated applications or web browser applications

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44
Q

Which PACS architecture is described as:

  • Images are usually automatically sent from the server to a designated workstation
  • Workstations can query and retrieve from each other
  • Workstations have the ability to store studies locally
  • Often operate in promiscuous mode
A

Stand-alone

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45
Q

Which PACS architecture is described as:

  • Images are centrally archived
  • Applications interact with the server to display images at client workstation
  • Images are not stored locally
  • Usually not promiscuous
  • Often interfaced with a RIS
A

Client-server

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46
Q

What is WADO?

A

Web Access to DICOM Persistent Objects

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47
Q

What does XML stand for?

A

Extensible Markup Language

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48
Q

What was XML designed for?

A

To store and transport data

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49
Q

What are the 6 components to a PACS system?

A
  • PACS controller
  • DICOM gateway
  • Archive
  • HL7 gateway
  • Print server
  • Web server
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50
Q

This HARDWARE device connects multiple ethernet devices together and makes them act as a single network segment

A

Hub

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51
Q

This improves the distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources such as computers, a computer cluster, and network links

A

Load Balancer

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52
Q

This is a single storage device that operates on data files. It typically makes ethernet and TCP/IP connections

A

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

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53
Q

What type of storage device is an external HDD?

A

NAS

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54
Q

This type of storage device uses FILE level access

A

NAS

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55
Q

This type of storage device uses BLOCK level access

A

SAN

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56
Q

What does SAN stand for?

A

Storage Area Network (SAN)

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57
Q

What type of cable typically connects a NAS?

A

Ethernet

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58
Q

What type of cable typically connects a SAN?

A

Fiber optic

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59
Q

This is a local network of multiple devices that operate on disk blocks

A

SAN

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60
Q

This is directly connected or very tightly coupled to the hose server using protocol such as SCSI, ATA, or fiber-channel

A

DAS

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61
Q

What does DAS stand for?

A

Direct Attached Storage (DAS)

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62
Q

This is a medical imaging technology in which images and documents are stored in a standard format with a standard interface

A

A vendor neutral archive (VNA)

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63
Q

This refers to the ability to host multiple complete operating system (OS) images on a single hardware platform

A

Virtualization

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64
Q

How many steps are in the procurement process?

A

7

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65
Q

This is when a customer needs more INFORMATION from vendors before submitting an RFP

A

RFI - Request for Information

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66
Q

This is an invitation for suppliers to submit a proposal on a specific product or service

A

RFP - Request for Proposal

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67
Q

This is when the customer asks for a price

A

RFQ - Request for Quote

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68
Q

This is a notice that grants are available to fund certain types of projects

A

RFA - Request for Application

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69
Q

Put these in order:

RFA, RFI, RFQ, RFP

A

RFI
RFP
RFQ
RFA

70
Q

This type of license corresponds to the number of studies per year

A

Volume

71
Q

This type of license corresponds to the number of active users that can be logged on at once

A

Concurrent

72
Q

This type of license corresponds to specific computers or user names

A

Fixed/Named

73
Q

What does TCO stand for?

A

Total Cost of Ownership

74
Q

What does ROI stand for?

A

Return of Invesetment

75
Q

How do you calculate image size?

A

Calculate the total number of pixels
Multiply by bit depth
Divide the result by 8

76
Q

When dealing with data migration, what type of information is moved?

A

Metadata - Database of exam, patient, user info

Pixel Data - DICOM Images

77
Q

This performs HL7 to DICOM translation

A

The broker

78
Q

This project management document formally AUTHORIZES a project

A

Project Charter

79
Q

This project management document states WHAT work is to be done and what deliverables need to be produced

A

Project Scope Statement - also known as the SOW

80
Q

This project management document sates HOW the work will be performed

A

Project Management Plan

81
Q

This project management stage determines the nature of the project

A

Initiation

82
Q

What is it when a single deliverable in a project turns into 5?

A

Scope Creep

83
Q

What is an ill defined scope called?

A

Scope Gap

84
Q

This is a change in a project due to unexpected behavior

A

Integration defect

85
Q

This chart depicts task dependencies, start and stop times, and a visual frame of reference

A

Gantt chart

86
Q

This chart depicts more complex projects and the relationships between activities. It can depict parallel activities

A

PERT chart

87
Q

This chart can help you visualize the quality analysis aspects of your products and processes

A

Pareto

88
Q

This is a useful tool for visualizing the various causes surrounding a particular event?

A

Fishbone

89
Q

This chart can depict who is participating in any task throughout the lifecycle of a project

A

RACI

90
Q 
What are the values for the following: 
Bit
Byte
Kilobyte
Megabyte
Gigabyte
Terabyte
A 
Bit = 1 or 0
Byte = 8 bytes
Kilobyte = 1,000 bytes
Megabyte = 1,000,000 bytes
Gigabyte = 1,000,000,000 bytes
Terabyte = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
91
Q

This is defined as 32 bits over 4 octets of numbers from 0-255

A

IP address

92
Q

This determines which octets define the network and which octets define the host

A

Subnet mask

93
Q

Which part of the subnet mask defines the network?

A

The first three octets

94
Q

Which part of the subnet mask defines the host?

A

The last octet

95
Q

What do Class A, B, and C Private IP addresses begin with?

A 
A = 10
B = 172
C = 192
96
Q

Which OSI layer is the network layer?

A

Layer 3

97
Q

Which OSI layer is the physical layer?

A

Layer 1

98
Q

Which OSI layer is the application layer?

A

Layer 7

99
Q

Which OSI layer do cables belong to?

A

Layer 1 - Physical

100
Q

Which OSI layer does IP protocol belong to?

A

Layer 3 - Networking

101
Q

This is a standard interactive and programming language for querying and modifying data and managing databases?

A

SQL - Structured Query Language

102
Q

This is the structure of a database. It defines the tables, fields in each table, and the relationships between fields and tables

A

The database schema

103
Q

In SQL, what do PK and FK mean?

A

PK = Primary Key: The unique identifyer key for a particular table. Usually has a gold key

FK = Foreign Key: Is the primary Key of another table that is referenced. Has a silver key

104
Q

Which SQL function RETRIEVES data?

A

Select

105
Q

Which SQL function REMOVES data?

A

Delete

106
Q

Which SQL function MODIFIES data?

A

Update

107
Q

Which SQL function ADDS rows to a table?

A

Insert

108
Q

What does DICOM stand for?

A

Digital Communications in Medicine

109
Q

Which layer does DICOM fall into?

A

Layer 7 - the application layer

110
Q

What is a DICOM connection also called?

A

An association

111
Q

What is a DICOM server process called?

A

A Service Class Provider (SCP)

112
Q

What is a DICOM client process called?

A

A Service Class User (SCU)

113
Q

What are the functional units of DICOM called?

A

Service Object Pairs (SOPs)

114
Q

Which 3 components are needed to make a successful DICOM connection?

A
  • IP address
  • AE title
  • Port
115
Q

What is the most commonly used port in DICOM?

A

104

116
Q

What does AE Title stand for?

A

Application Entity Title

117
Q

This is a template used to create instances of objects

A

Information Object Definition

118
Q

This is the combination of a DICOM service and an object

A

Service Object Pair

119
Q

What are the two types of DICOM commands

A
  • Composite

- Normalized

120
Q

This DICOM command refers to operations between objects and services

A

Composite

121
Q

This DICOM command refers to notifications/operations

A

Normalized

122
Q

What does Value Representation refer to?

A

It is a 2 byte character used to describe the data type

123
Q

What is a difference between Explicit and Implicit Value Representation (VR)?

A

Explicit - includes the VR label

Implicit - does NOT include the VR label

124
Q

Which type of image compression is solely lossless?

A

RLE

125
Q

If a DICOM ping fails, what should be the next step?

A

A network ping

126
Q

What should you check first if there is a DICOM issue?

A

Conformance
Incorrect configuration
Mismatched port speeds

127
Q

What does IHE stand for?

A

Integrating the Healthcare Enterprise

128
Q

What is IHE?

A

It is a canned workflow initiative created by healthcare professionals

129
Q

In regards to IHE, what is a more precise definition of how DICOM and HL7 standards are implemented?

A

Integration Profiles

130
Q

In regards to IHE, this is a system, or part of a system that creates, manages, or acts upon data

A

Actor

131
Q

In regards to IHE, this is a specific interaction between actors to exchange information

A

Transaction

132
Q

What are the three types of security?

A
  • Database
  • Local Host
  • Enterprise/domain
133
Q

This type of security requires the user to authenticate to use the application

A

Database (think IMPAX)

134
Q

This type of security requires the user to authenticate to use a specific computer

A

Local host

135
Q

This type of security requires the user to authenticate to a logical “tree”

A

Enterprise/domain (Windows logon)

136
Q

This type of security provides a consistent application environment regardless of physical location or computer hardware…think PACS

A

Database

137
Q

What year was HIPAA established?

A

1996

138
Q

What are the three types of HIPAA security safeguards required for compliance?

A
  • Administrative
  • Physical
  • Technical
139
Q

What is the maximum penalty if a HIPAA violation is committed under false pretenses?

A
  • Fined not more than $100,000
  • Imprisoned not more than 5 years
  • or both
140
Q

What is the maximum penalty if a HIPAA violation is committed with the intent to sell, transfer, or use information for commercial advantage, personal gain, or malicious harm?

A
  • Fined no more $250,000
  • Imprisoned nor more than 10 years
  • or both
141
Q

What does HITECH stand for?

A

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health

142
Q

To be exempt from HIPAA how many identifiers need to be removed?

A

18

143
Q

This type of remote access is a persistent tunnel between two entities

A

Site to Site

144
Q

This type of remote access is when the client initiates communication

A

On demand

145
Q

What is the most current and most secure remote access protocol?

A

IPSEC - IP security

146
Q

What are the three learning styles as they pertain to end user training?

A
  • Visual
  • Auditory
  • Kinesthetic
147
Q

This refers to a classification of the different objectives that educators set for students (learning objectives)

A

Bloom’s Taxonomy

148
Q

What are the three domains of Bloom’s Taxonomy

A
  • Cognitive
  • Affective
  • Psychomotor
149
Q

This ensures that standardized methods are used during the handling of all changes

A

Change Management

150
Q

This type of backup is a complete backup of the entire system

A

Full Backup

151
Q

This type of backup only backs up files that have changed since the last full or incremental backup

A

Incremental backup

152
Q

This type of backup only backs up files that have changed since the last full backup

A

Differential backup

153
Q

This describes how electronic systems’ computing power doubles every 2 years

A

Moore’s Law

154
Q

This act oversees mammography and is enforced by the FDA

A

Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA)

155
Q

This is the creation of a virtual server or a virtual machine that emulates a real computer

A

Virtualization

156
Q

VMware is what?

A

A hyper visor

157
Q

This network command tests the connectivity between two hosts

A

Ping

158
Q

This network command displays the network configuration for a computer

A

Ipconfig

159
Q

This network command displays the distance in hops between two computers

A

Tracert

160
Q

This network command resolves host names to IP addresses

A

Nslookup

161
Q

What does OSI Stand for?

A

Open Systems Interconnect

162
Q

This is a standard interactive and programming language for querying and modifying data and managing databases

A

Structured Query Language (SQL)

163
Q

This is the column that indicates a unique ID for a table

A

The Primary Key

164
Q

This has an object oriented framework but also works in a client-server manner

A

DICOM

165
Q

Is an AE title case sensitive?

A

Yes

166
Q

This provides information about the actual performed study, the number of images, the status of the exam, and can be used to communicate dose information

A

Modality Performed Procedure Setup (MPPS)

167
Q

These are steps in what:

  • Identify interoperability problems
  • Specify integration profiles
  • Test systems at the Connectathon
  • Publish integration statements for use in RFPs
A

Integrating the Healthcare Enterprise (IHE)

168
Q

What are the four major categories of IHE integration profiles?

A
  • Workflow
  • Content
  • Presentation
  • Infrastructure
169
Q

In regards to the procurement process, where are the following addressed:

  • Obsolescence planning
  • Extent of support (hardware, software, hours)
  • Licensing
  • Clear definition of vendor and site responsibilities
  • Uptime guarantee
  • Payment milestones
A

Service Level Agreements

170
Q

This is a quality improvement initiative that follows continuous efforts to achieve stable and predictable process results (reduce process variation)

A

Six Sigma

171
Q

What does PDSA stand for?

A

Plan
Do
Study
Act

CIIP (1 decks)

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