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CIC Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following situations would be best for the IP to apply just-in-time learning principles?

a. During a 30-minute orientation session for new employees
b. With staff who repeatedly have problems applying infection definitions
c. In a medical staff meeting where surveillance priorities are being discussed
d. For nurse managers evaluating monthly infection trend reports

A

B

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2
Q

Most healthcare-associated pathogens are transmitted from patient to patient via:

a. Improper isolation practices
b. Inadequate sterilization of medical instruments
c. Hands of healthcare personnel
d. Ineffective disinfection of medical devices

A

C

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3
Q

Which of the following milestones indicates that the IP has achieved proficient status according to the APIC Competency Model?

a. After successfully completing his or her Certification in Infection Control®
b. Upon obtaining a graduate degree in a healthcare-related field
c. When continuously employed as an IP for more than 2 years
d. After 10 years of experience as the manager of an infection prevention and control program

A

A

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4
Q

The new IP for a long-term care facility is assessing adherence to the facility’s hand hygiene policies. Which of the following should he include when reporting his findings?

a. The number of hand hygiene episodes performed by personnel divided by the volume of soap used in the facility
b. The number of hand hygiene episodes performed by personnel divided by the number of patient days times 1,000
c. The number of hand hygiene episodes performed by personnel divided by the volume of alcohol-based hand rub
d. The number of hand hygiene episodes performed by personnel divided by the number of hand hygiene opportunities by ward or service

A

D

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5
Q

Direct observation of performance by an individual of a specific skill may yield a temporary and artificially high result. This phenomenon is known as the:

a. Hawthorne effect
b. Measure of success
c. Score inflation risk
d. Robertson’s rule

A

A

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6
Q
  1. An IP is reading a journal article that states that the data the authors collected are normally distributed. What does this mean?
    a. When the data are plotted on a curve, it is skewed
    b. The mean is less than the median
    c. The skewness value is equal to 1
    d. The mean, median, and mode of the data are equal
A

D

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7
Q
  1. Because there is no vaccine for Hepatitis C, there have been national recommendations for prevention and control of Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infections. These include all but which recommendation?
    a. Screening and testing of blood donors
    b. Risk-reduction counseling and screening of persons at risk for Hepatitis C infection
    c. A national registry for all healthcare personnel known to be Hepatitis C antibody positive
    d. Adherence to Standard Precautions and safe work practices in healthcare settings
A

C

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8
Q
  1. A patient is admitted with pruritic lesions on the hands, webs of fingers, wrists, extensor surfaces of elbows and knees, and the outer surfaces of the feet, armpits, buttocks, and waist. What type of isolation does this person require?
    a. Contact
    b. Droplet
    c. Airborne
    d. No isolation required
A

A

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9
Q
  1. There has been a local bioterrorism event and three healthcare personnel were exposed to inhalation anthrax. They have been decontaminated and are taking PEP, and they would like to return to work. The incubation period of inhalation anthrax is usually about 7 days but can be as long as 2 months. What should the IP’s recommendation be regarding work restrictions for these employees?
    a. They will not be allowed to return to work for the duration of the 2-month incubation period
    b. They will not be allowed to return to work for the duration of prophylactic treatment
    c. They may return to work but must wear respiratory protection while in the facility
    d. They may return to work with no restrictions
A

D

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10
Q
  1. The optimal time to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) testing to rule out TB would be:
    a. First thing in the morning
    b. After a respiratory treatment
    c. Prior to the patient going to bed
    d. Prior to a respiratory treatment
A

A

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11
Q
  1. Lyme disease is commonly found in all of the following regions of the United States except:
    a. New England
    b. Mid-Atlantic
    c. Upper Midwest
    d. Southeast
A

D

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12
Q
  1. On July 7, a 30-year-old male is admitted to the medical ICU with a 2-day history of acute gastroenteritis symptoms. The IP suspects the patient is infected with norovirus. Which of the following statements regarding the epidemiology of norovirus infection supports this?
    a. Most norovirus outbreaks are caused by genotype Gll.2
    b. Severe cases of norovirus are most common in adults aged 25 to 45
    c. Noroviruses are the most common cause of epidemic gastroenteritis worldwide
    d. Norovirus outbreaks occur most commonly in the summer months
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true when the prevalence of a disease is very low?
    a. The sensitivity of a diagnostic test is greatly increased
    b. The specificity of a diagnostic test is much greater
    c. The negative predictive value of a diagnostic test is very low
    d. The positive predictive value of a diagnostic test is lowered
A

D

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14
Q
  1. Gram stains classify an organism as Gram-positive or Gram-negative. The determinant factors for Gram stains are cell wall components of:
    a. Peptidoglycans
    b. Lipids
    c. Polysaccharides
    d. Mycolic acids
A

A

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15
Q
  1. Higher morbidity rates in chronic Hepatitis B virus (HBV) carriers are associated with a co-infection of which of the following:
    a. Hepatitis A
    b. Hepatitis D
    c. Hepatitis C
    d. Hepatitis E
A

B

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16
Q

The CDC recommendations for decreasing CLABSI include all of the following except:

a. Educational programs
b. Routine replacement of catheters
c. The use of chlorhexidine for skin antisepsis
d. The use of maximal sterile barrier precautions

A

B

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17
Q

Human factor limitations that contribute to errors include:

  1. Overdependence on multitasking skills
  2. Permanent night shifts
  3. Limited memory capacity
  4. Stress, fatigue, and sensory overload
    a. 1, 2, 3
    b. 2, 3, 4
    c. 1, 3, 4
A

C

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18
Q

The management of an infected surgical site includes the following foundational principles:

  1. Open and drain the incision
  2. Debride fibrous debris and necrotic soft tissue
  3. Replace hardware
  4. Implement antimicrobial management as needed
  5. Manage the open wound
    a. 1, 2, 3, 4
    b. 2, 3, 4, 5
    c. 1, 3, 4, 5
    d. 1, 2, 4, 5
A

D

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19
Q
  1. The IP receives a call from the ER about a 38-year-old male with a 4-week history of cough and fever. He has just returned from an extended trip to the southwestern United States. Coccidioidomycosis is on the list of possible diagnoses. Which of the following is true regarding the epidemiology of coccidioidomycosis?
    a. Coccidioides spp. are usually found at high elevations
    b. Coccidioides spp. are usually found in wet climates
    c. Up to 50 percent of people in endemic areas have been exposed to Coccidioides spores
    d. Coccidioides spp. are found on the surface of the soil
A

C

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20
Q

An IP is preparing the quarterly report for the Infection Control Committee. What information will be needed to calculate a CLABSI rate for the ICU?

  1. The total number of patients in the unit for the time period
  2. The total number of central line catheters for the time period
  3. The number of patients who had bloodstream infections identified
  4. The number of device days for the time period
    a. 2, 3
    b. 1, 3
    c. 1, 2
    d. 3, 4
A

D

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21
Q
  1. The IP monitors all patients who have coronary artery bypass graft surgery for infections and pneumonia. The probability or likelihood of an event occurring is the:
    a. Risk
    b. Attack rate
    c. Host factor
    d. Incidence
A

A

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22
Q
  1. A measure of dispersion that reflects the variability in values around the mean is called the:
    a. Variance
    b. Standard deviation
    c. Range
    d. Bell curve
A

B

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23
Q
  1. The antibiogram is usually prepared by:
    a. Infection Prevention and Control Department
    b. Laboratory
    c. Pharmacy
    d. Information Technology Department
A

B

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24
Q
  1. What is the appropriate temperature for vaccines that require refrigeration?
    a. 46°F to 55°F (8°C to 13°C)
    b. 25°F to 35°F (-4°C to 2°C)
    c. 25°F to 45°F (-4°C to 7°C)
    d. 35°F to 46°F (2°C to 8°C)
A

D

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25
Q
  1. When reviewing the Gram stain of a person with a wound infection, the IP sees Gram-positive organisms in clusters. Which organism would this most likely represent?
    a. Streptococcus
    b. Enterococcus
    c. Corynebacterium
    d. Staphylococcus
A

D

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26
Q

What of the following questions should be asked when evaluating results from a research study?

  1. Were the instruments valid for the study?
  2. Is this a peer-reviewed research journal?
  3. Was the sample representative of the intended population?
  4. Do the conclusions prove the hypothesis?
    a. 1, 2, 3
    b. 2, 3, 4
    c. 1, 3, 4
    d. 1, 2, 4
A

A

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27
Q
  1. In which of the following infection prevention topics is the required educational content for employees most clearly described by a U.S. regulatory agency?
    a. Hand hygiene monitoring systems
    b. Environmental cleaning of hard surfaces
    c. Active surveillance for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus in hospitals
    d. Preventing employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens
A

D

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28
Q

The Institute for Healthcare Improvement uses the Model for Improvement – a two-part model designed to accelerate improvement for healthcare processes and outcomes. What are the key component areas of this model?

  1. Setting aims, establishing measures, selecting changes
  2. Plan-do-study-act
  3. Contemplation, action, termination
  4. Perceived seriousness and cues to action
    a. 1, 2
    b. 2, 3
    c. 3, 4
    d. 1, 4
A

A

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29
Q

Hydrogen peroxide vapor (HPV) has been shown to be effective for decontamination of patient rooms and is known to kill spores and other microbes. Despite its benefits, there are some drawbacks to using HPV. Which of the following could be a major drawback to using HPV to clean patient rooms?

a. It is effective in decontaminating surfaces but not equipment
b. It leaves a residue that, over time, can damage equipment in the room
c. It lengthens room turnover because it takes a prolonged period of time to complete room treatment
d. It is most effective for areas closer to the unit and less effective around the edges of the room

A

C

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30
Q
  1. The policy for therapy animals in healthcare facilities should include all of the following except:
    a. Hand hygiene must be performed after contact with the animal
    b. Animal must be bathed within 24 hours prior to visiting the healthcare facility
    c. Animals must be healthy and current with immunizations
    d. Small animals are never allowed to sit on a patient’s bed
A

D

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following does not describe indirect contact transmission?
    a. Mites from a scabies-infested patient
    b. Equipment that is not cleaned, disinfected, or sterilized adequately between patients
    c. Food and water supplies that are not prepared and maintained according to sanitation standards
    d. Inadequate hand hygiene performed by a care provider
A

A

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32
Q
  1. A urine specimen collected from an indwelling urinary catheter was sent to the laboratory for culture and sensitivity testing. Culture results reported a colony count of 50,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli. Sensitivity testing reported resistance to cephalosporin and sensitivity to ciprofloxacin. This organism is an example of:
    a. Methicillin resistance
    b. Aminoglycoside resistance
    c. Extended-spectrum beta-lactam (ESBL) resistance
    d. Quinolone resistance
A

C

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33
Q
  1. Statistical process control (SPC) charts are used for all of the following purposes except:
    a. Monitor the process of care
    b. Facilitate the determination of variation
    c. Eliminate natural variation
    d. Monitor outcomes
A

C

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34
Q
  1. The paroxysmal stage of pertussis usually lasts:
    a. 1 to 6 weeks
    b. 11 to 15 weeks
    c. 15 to 20 weeks
    d. 6 to 21 weeks
A

A

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35
Q
  1. An “antibiotic time out” occurs:
    a. Daily
    b. Weekly
    c. Within 24 to 48 hours of culture results being available
    d. Within 96 hours of culture results being available
A

C

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36
Q
  1. An outbreak of aspergillosis is suspected after several oncology patients are identified with positive cultures. The IP suspects a heating, ventilation and air conditioning (HVAC) malfunction and begins an outbreak investigation. The IP has been asked to make recommendations for environmental cultures. All of the following needs to be considered except:
    a. Identifying the purpose of culturing and appropriate methods beforehand
    b. Meeting with the facility legal staff to discuss notification of patients
    c. Anticipating decisions and planned actions to results of culturing before undertaking the process
    d. Determining whether there are existing standards to interpret results
A

B

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37
Q
  1. The Safe Medical Device Act (SMDA) falls under which U.S. federal program?
    a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
    b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
    c. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
    d. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
A

B

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38
Q
  1. When a normal distribution is graphed, which of the following are true?
  2. There is a continuous, symmetrical distribution in which both tails extend to infinity
  3. The mean, median and mode are identical
  4. 68.3 percent of the area lies between the mean and ± 2 standard deviations
  5. The shape of the curve is determined by the mean and standard deviation
    a. 1, 2, 3
    b. 2, 3, 4
    c. 1, 3, 4
    d. 1, 2, 4
A

D

39
Q
  1. During annual TST, an employee’s test result was read as 10 mm in duration. The employee’s last TST was negative. This initial result indicates a:
    a. Positive test
    b. False positive
    c. Negative test
    d. False negative
A

A

40
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding central venous catheters (CVC)?
    a. Anticoagulant therapy can reduce the risk of catheter-related infection
    b. Positioning at the insertion site minimizes catheter tip malposition
    c. The CVC should be sutured in place
    d. Stopcocks can increase the contamination rate
A

D

41
Q
  1. The IP is reviewing the history of a patient who has been in the facility on a ventilator for one week. All of the following are risk factors for colonization and infection with multidrug-resistant pathogens except:
    a. Antimicrobial therapy in preceding 90 days
    b. Current hospitalization of 5 days or more
    c. Immunosuppressive state or therapy
    d. Low frequency of antibiotic resistance in the facility
A

D

42
Q
  1. The director has requested that the IP summarize the results of an education program presented to five different groups within the institution. The director specifically requests that the method used not only indicate the overall mean score for each group but also aid a simple comparative analysis for all who participated. The best data display technique to summarize these findings would be:
    a. A line list
    b. A pie chart
    c. A bar chart
    d. A spreadsheet
A

B

43
Q
  1. All of the following are descriptions of patients with immunocompromised status except:
    a. HIV with CD4 count <200
    b. Leukemia or lymphoma
    c. Neutropenia (absolute neutrophils count <500/mm2)
    d. 1 year post-bone marrow transplant
A

D

44
Q
  1. The IP is reviewing a research study to assess the association between needleless connector (NC) change frequency and central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) rate. In multivariate analysis, the CLABSI rate was significantly higher (p = 0.001) among patients that had NC changed every 24 hours compared to patients with NC that were changed at 96-hour intervals. The IP knows that this p value indicates more evidence in support of which of the following?
    a. The alternative hypothesis
    b. The quality of the analysis
    c. The null hypothesis
    d. The research hypothesis
A

A

45
Q
  1. Which of the following should be used as a quality improvement measure for infection prevention education programs?
    a. The frequency of classes offered through the year
    b. The average number of attendees per class offered
    c. Summary of pre-/post-test scores for each class
    d. Analysis of program evaluation scores for all classes
A

D

46
Q
  1. The process of evaluating learner response to individual test questions in order to determine the quality and accuracy of those questions is known as:
    a. Validity testing
    b. Correlation
    c. Item analysis
    d. Risk adjustment
A

C

47
Q
  1. All of the following maternal infections would require withholding breast milk from the newborn except:
    a. Breast abscess
    b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    c. West Nile virus
    d. Hepatitis C
A

D

48
Q
  1. The IP should recommend all of the following prevention measures for a pregnant influenza-infected patient during delivery except:
    a. During labor and delivery, the patient should wear a mask
    b. The patient should be placed on Droplet Precautions
    c. After the infant is born, the mother should wear a surgical mask and then practices hand hygiene before handling the baby
    d. All persons who come within 3 feet of the mother should wear a surgical mask and practice hand hygiene before and after contact with the mother
A

A

49
Q
  1. Western blot testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is used to detect:
    a. HIV DNA in a serum sample
    b. HIV RNA in a serum sample
    c. HIV antibodies in a serum sample
    d. HIV proteins in a serum sample
A

C

50
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about TB and airborne diseases among homeless individuals are is most accurate?
    a. Most TB infections among homeless individuals are reactivations of established disease
    b. Sputum testing detects more than 90 percent of patients with TB
    c. Screening for TB with chest x-ray may be the most cost-effective approach
    d. Directly observed therapy in the acute hospital setting is associated with the highest completion rates
A

C

51
Q
  1. The IP is asked to recommend the length of time a staff member who has developed influenza should be excluded (furloughed) from work duties. The staff member was diagnosed with influenza on March 15. She consults the CDC Infection Control Guidance for the Prevention and Control of Influenza in Acute Care Facilities and recommends that the employee should:
    a. Remain off work until March 20
    b. Remain off work for the duration of the illness
    c. Remain off work until March 21
    d. Remain off work for 5 days (March 20) or until symptoms have resolved, whichever is longer
A

D

52
Q
  1. Elements of a ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) prevention bundle that have been suggested by the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) include all of the following practices except:
    a. Elevation of the head of the bed.
    b. Weekly “sedation vacations” and assessment of readiness to extubate
    c. Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis
    d. Deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis
A

B

53
Q
  1. An RN is caring for a patient who presented to the Emergency Department with symptoms consistent with influenza. When caring for this patient, she should use which of the following types of precautions?
    a. Standard Precautions
    b. Standard and Droplet Precautions
    c. Airborne Precautions
    d. Droplet Precautions if influenza is confirmed
A

B

54
Q
  1. Staff assisting with a bronchoscopy of a patient with suspected tuberculosis must wear which type of respiratory protection?
    a. Surgical/procedure mask
    b. Face shield
    c. Protection is not required
    d. A fit-tested respirator or powered air purifying respirator (PAPR)
A

D

55
Q
  1. Which of the following steps are not included in hypothesis testing?
    a. State the null and alternative hypotheses
    b. Set the significance level
    c. Eliminate outliers
    d. Compare the probability value to the significance level
A

C

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is not proof of measles immunity for healthcare personnel?
    a. Documentation of vaccination with two doses of live measles virus-containing vaccine
    b. Laboratory evidence of immunity
    c. Born after 1957
    d. Laboratory confirmation of disease
A

C

57
Q
  1. The Emergency Department reports three cases of cramping, abdominal pain, and diarrhea within a 24-hour period. All persons are from the same community, and onset of symptoms was within 12 to 36 hours of a picnic they all attended. The IP suspects which of the following foodborne illnesses:
    a. Salmonella
    b. Hepatitis A
    c. Staphylococcus aureus
    d. Clostridium perfringens
A

A

58
Q
  1. Which of the following indicates a strong positive correlation?
    a. r = 0
    b. r = -0.993
    c. r = 0.603
    d. r = 0.45
A

C

59
Q
  1. The Joint Commission standards for infection prevention and control include all of the following, except:
    a. Collaboration of representatives from relevant components and functions within the organization in the implementation of the program
    b. Effective management of the infection prevention and control program
    c. Minimizing the risk for development of a healthcare-associated infection (HAI) through an organization-wide infection prevention program
    d. Specific staffing requirement of one infection preventionist (IP) for every 100 beds in the facility
A

D

60
Q
  1. Which type of isolation always requires a private room?
    a. Contact Precautions
    b. Standard Precautions
    c. Airborne Precautions
    d. Droplet Precautions
A

C

61
Q
  1. The IP is reviewing the immunization records of healthcare personnel at their facility and discovers that employees born before 1957 do not have any record of receiving MMR vaccine. What should she recommend to the Human Resources Director regarding employees born before 1957?
    a. They are considered immune and do not require follow-up
    b. They should receive two doses of the vaccine 4 weeks apart
    c. They are only required to provide proof of immunity to measles
    d. They are required to provide proof of immunity to measles, mumps and rubella
A

D

62
Q

Of the following methods of disinfection and sterilization, which will kill all organisms, including all bacterial spores?

  1. Pasteurization
  2. Orthophthalaldehyde
  3. Steam sterilization
  4. Ethylene oxide
    a. 1, 2
    b. 2, 3
    c. 1, 3
    d. 3, 4
A

D

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is not evidence of varicella immunity in healthcare personnel?
    a. Evidence of two doses of the varicella vaccine
    b. Laboratory evidence of immunity
    c. Laboratory confirmation of the disease
    d. Born before 1980
A

D

64
Q
  1. While making rounds in one of the Intensive Care Units, the IP observes a patient who has been intubated and is on a ventilator. He notes that the patient is in a supine position. Which of the following positions should he recommend to the nurse in order to be compliant with a pneumonia prevention bundle?
    a. The patient should be turned to his side to facilitate drainage of secretions
    b. The patient should be placed in reverse Trendelenburg position
    c. The patient’s head of the bed should be elevated to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees
    d. The patient should sit upright at a 60 to 75 degree angle
A

C

65
Q
  1. The abstract in a research study must include:
    a. A review of the literature
    b. A biographical profile of the principal investigator
    c. The intent or objective of the study
    d. Conflict of interest disclosures
A

C

66
Q
  1. An employee who is not immune to varicella-zoster was exposed to a patient with active chickenpox. How long must the employee remain on work restrictions?
    a. Until evaluated by a physician
    b. From day 10 after exposure to day 21 after exposure
    c. No work restriction is necessary if no signs and symptoms are present
    d. At the discretion of the hospital infectious disease physician
A

B

67
Q
  1. A pandemic differs from an epidemic in that:
    a. Only one disease is involved
    b. It is usually vector borne
    c. There is a higher mortality rate
    d. Several countries or continents are involved
A

D

68
Q
  1. The chi-square test can be used:
  2. To evaluate the effect of a variable on outcomes
  3. To analyze continuous data
  4. To calculate an odds ratio or relative risk
  5. If each cell of the table is greater than 5
    a. 1, 2, 3
    b. 1, 2, 4
    c. 2, 3, 4
    d. 1, 3, 4
A

D

69
Q
  1. Which organism found in food poisoning causes the most rapid onset of symptoms?
    a. Salmonella enteritidis
    b. Shigella sonnei
    c. Staphylococcus aureus
    d. Escherichia coli
A

C

70
Q
  1. Routine microbiologic sampling is indicated for which of the following?
    a. Respiratory therapy equipment
    b. Dialysis fluid
    c. Sterile disposable equipment
    d. Operating room surfaces
A

B

71
Q

An adult patient is admitted to an acute care facility with suspected pertussis. The infection preventionist’s (IP’s) FIRST action should be to
(A) notify Public Health to identify additional cases.
(B) request a list of exposed staff for antibiotic prophylaxis.
(C) place the patient in droplet precautions.
(D) contact the Employee Health Department to provide vaccine to exposed staff

A

C

72
Q 
CDC guidelines indicate patients with cystic fibrosis who are not colonized or infected should be separated from patients who are colonized or infected with which of the following organisms?
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(B) Acinetobacter baumannii
(C) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
(D) Burkholderia cepacia
A

D

73
Q

When prescribing empiric antibiotics, a facility’s antibiogram is used to
(A) refine antibiotic choices for patients infected with resistant organisms.
(B) assist in prescribing antibiotics while awaiting culture and sensitivity reports.
(C) guide antibiotic selection for patients with communicable diseases.
(D) direct the use of pre-operative antibiotics in surgical procedures.

A

B

74
Q

A new dental assistant approaches an infection preventionist (IP) about her concerns with the suction device and the possibility of backflow of fluids into the patient’s mouth. Based on the IP’s knowledge of the dental clinic’s devices and water system, which of the following responses would be appropriate?
(A) There is no need for concern as the fluid exchange during a dental procedure is minimal.
(B) There is minimal risk to the patient since it is unlikely backwash will occur.
(C) Discharging water and air for 20-30 seconds after each patient will decrease risk.
(D) Arrange for the equipment manufacturer to install anti-retraction valves.

A

C

75
Q

A medical director is concerned that a facility is seeing an increased number of patients infected with hepatitis A virus (HAV). The infection preventionist (IP) is asked to review HAV infection rates. The IP should focus on HAV
(A) cases reported to the Public Health department in the prior year.
(B) incidence rates reported in facility risk groups, such as Pediatrics and HIV clinics.
(C) current prevalence data in the community served by the facility.
(D) attack rates in the facilities in other geographic locations.

A

C

76
Q

A facility is establishing a new infection control program. Which of the following should be recommended?
(A) one infection preventionist (IP) for every 250 patients
(B) purchase of data management software for surveillance
(C) an Infection Prevention and Control Committee that holds monthly meetings
(D) an infectious disease physician as a program director

A

B

77
Q

A nurse presents to the Employee Health office for the hepatitis B vaccine. The nurse explains that the vaccine series was started 24 months ago with two doses received. Which of the following should be recommended?
(A) Assess the nurse’s exposure history and give third dose, if needed.
(B) Check antibody titer and if inadequate, give the third dose.
(C) Give the third dose and check antibody titer after 1 month.
(D) Start the series of vaccine over again and check antibody titer.

A

C

78
Q

Over a 3-month period, eight patients were diagnosed with Legionella pneumonia. Location of the patients were: four in the liver transplantation unit, two in the trauma unit, and one each in the pediatric and psychiatric unit. To control Legionella in this facility, the ICP should
(A) review engineering department’s schedule for changing HEPA filters.
(B) discontinue the use of the air conditioners on the affected units.
(C) focus surveillance on pediatric and psychiatric units.
(D) culture water supplies from the affected units.

A

D

79
Q

An infection preventionist (IP) is reading a published study that compares PICC line to other central line infection rates. Which of the following should be considered?
(A) Is the study design applicable to the purpose of the study?
(B) Is the sample size too large, thus confusing the reader?
(C) Were the outcomes of each group assessed by blinded reviewers?
(D) Is the study question briefly stated?

A

A

80
Q

To ensure an effective bioterrorism response effort, a healthcare facility should
(A) develop an active surveillance plan based on an increase of common disease occurrences.
(B) coordinate the development of a facility response plan with local and regional health departments.
(C) ensure a facility response plan to easily detect a biological agent.
(D) facilitate a response plan based on obvious signs of unusual occurrences.

A

D

81
Q

Another name for crusted scabies is:

a. American scabies
b. Norwegian scabies
c. Canadian scabies
d. English scabies

A

B

82
Q

Guidelines for transporting specimens include:

  1. Transport within 2 hours of collecting a specimen
  2. Transport in leak-proof specimen containers and seal-able leak-proof bags
  3. Transport specimen in the syringe used to collect it
  4. Refrigerate all specimens prior to transport
    a. 1,4
    b. 2,3
    c. 1,2
    d. 3,4
A

C

83
Q

Important collaboration of IP and new manager of the Microbiology Lab:

a. Compliance w annual vaccine program and TB skin testing
b. Participation in periodic IP educational sessions to hospital staff
c. Prompt notification of organism’s unusual resistance pattern
d. Attendance at local, state, natl IP educaitonal confereces

A

C

84
Q

The primary immune response after exposure to a communicable disease pathogen/vaccine is production of:

A

IgM

85
Q

When are IgM angtibodies to HAV detectable in the blood?

A

5-10 days post exposure

86
Q

The incubation period for pertussis in immunocompetent persons is usually:

A

7-10 days

87
Q

A patient hospitalized for 2 days calls 3 days after D/C complaining of HA scabies. It is not because:

a. Only transmitted through contaminated linens
b. Incubation is longer than 5 days
c. Incubation is shorter than 3 days
d. Scabies is only transmitted through direct contact and none of the personnel caring for him are infested

A

B

88
Q

A nurse is concerned a patient in neuro has a prion disease after a positive nucleic acid test for John Cunningham Virus in CSF. What is the best response?

a. Test is positive for CJD
b. Test is positive for Campy jejuni
c. Test is positive for a polyomavirus, not a prion disease
d. Test is positive for a polyomavirus, a prion disease

A

C

89
Q

An IP is conducting an educational session to help the nursing staff understand ID transmission. She explains that the initial element in virulence is the ability of an organism to survive in the external environment. What is the second?

a. Secretion of enzymes that enhance spread through tissues
b. A mech for transmission to a new host
c. Invasion and dissemination in the host
d. Avoidance of host resistance

A

B

90
Q

Microbe that can grow in the absence of O2 but can utilize it is:

a. aerobe
b. obligate anaerobe
c. facultative anaerobe
d. microaerophillic aerobe

A

C.

91
Q

Western blot for HIV is used to detect:

a. HIV DNA in serum
b. HIV RNA in serum
c. HIV antibodies in serum
d. HIV proteins in serum

A

C

92
Q

CSF is cloudy and patient has elevated WBC, markedly increased neutrophils, low glucose, and elevated protein. What type of meningitis?

a. Bacterial
b. Viral
d. Fungal
d. Aseptic

A

A

93
Q

What is false about flu:

a. primarily spread btw individuals via droplets
b. viral shedding starts 48-72 hours after infection and 48 hours before symptoms
c. shedding persists for less than 5 days but can be longer in children and immunocompromised persons
d. Typical flu symptomolgy is not always predictive of flu in elderly or immunocompromised

A

B.

94
Q

Factor associated with C. diff?

a. chemotherapeutics
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Prophylactic antibiotics
d. Antiviral meds

A

C

CIC (2 decks)

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