Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Week 4 Exams > CI > Flashcards

CI Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three phases of healing?

A

inflammation, proliferation, maturation/remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the hallmark of the inflammatory phase of healing?

A

controlling bleeding and fighting infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

pain, redness, warmth, edema, decreased function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Key cells in the inflammatory phase

A

PMN, platelets, macrophages, mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 keys of the proliferative phase?

A

angiogenesis, granulation tissue, wound contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the key cells of the proliferation phase?

A

angioblasts, fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does tissue change in the remodeling phase?

A

Type 1 Collagen to Type 3 Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does greatest tissue change in the remodeling phase?

A

First 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are permanent tissue changes from a wound?

A

decreased sensation, 80% strength, loss of sweating ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the best temperature for wound healing?

A

37-38 deg C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What co-morbidities can affect wound healing?

A

PVD, anemia, COPD, cardiac, HIV/AIDS, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What medications can delay healing

A

steroids, chemotherapy, NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What behavioral factors decrease wound healing?

A

EtOH, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F - it is good to use antiseptics for a prolonged time

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is primary intention?

A

Closure w/ stitches/staples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is secondary intention?

A

Closure of the wound by itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is delayed primary intention?

A

Wait for a period of time, then close w/ stitches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does DIME stand for?

A

Debridement, inflammation/infection control, moisture balance, edge effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name: viable tissue, 2 types of necrotic tissue

A

granulation tissue, slough, eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sinus tract

A

a wound entrance w/ no exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a wound tunnel

A

entrance + exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

fancy names for rolled or callused wound edges

A

epibole, hyperkeratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does maceration mean

A

skin pruning - too much moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are hallmarks of a chronic wound?

A

Low mitotic activity, increased inflammatory cytokines, high levels of proteases, persistence in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

General tips for venous, pressure, neuropathic, and arterial wounds

A

compress, offload, offload, protect and re-perfuse /restore blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Characteristics of adequate perfusion (6)

A
  1. 80 mmHg in foot (feel pulse)
  2. ABI 0.6<x<1.2 (don’t believe above 1.2)
  3. audible triphasic or biphasic sounds with doppler
  4. venous filling time assessment 5-15 seconds
  5. Rubor of dependency (pallor >25 sec, refill less than 30 seconds)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 4 types of precautions

A

contact, bloodborne, airborne, droplet - take a minute and mentally think of an example

(MRSA, HIV, COVID, a cold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clean technique v. sterile technique

A

clean technique is the standard in wound care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Contraindications for debridement (5)

A

Diabetic feet, dry gangrene, skin grafts, surgical incisions, actively bleeding wounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the safe PSI range for wound irrigation?

A

4-15 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some cons of pulse lavage w/ suction (2)

A

expense, aerosolization risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the options for irrigation methods? (4)

A

Low pressure, whirlpool, PLWS, ultrasonic mist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Contraindications to debridement

A

dry stable eschar, deeper wounds, electrical burns, viable/granular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

General rules w/ debriding blisters

A

clear = keep it
bloody/cloudy = remove
frostbite = keep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a caution with gauze?

A

It is drying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a caution with impregnated gauze?

A

maceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does a film dressing promote?

A

autolytic debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When should we not use a film dressing?

A

skin tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the primary function of a hydrogel

A

promotion of moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When should we not use a hydrogel sheet?

A

over an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What form of debridement does foam promote?

A

autolytic

42
Q

What types of wounds should we avoid using a hydrocolloid?

A

Deeper wounds

43
Q

3 reasons for using antimicrobials

A

high infection risk, critical colonization, active infection

44
Q

3 types of antimicrobials

A

honey, silver, codexamer iodine

45
Q

what should codemader iodine never be combined with

A

collaginase

46
Q

what can high BUN do?

A

impair healing, increase edema, yellow skin

47
Q

what is an elevated INR value?

A

greater than 3.6

48
Q

what is normal capillary refill time

A

less than 3 seconds

49
Q

What are the possible results, normal and abnormal, for the rubor of dependency tests?

A

normal (no pallor)
mild/mod (45-60; 30 sec)
severe (less than 25 sec)

50
Q

what is normal venous filling time in the test?

A

5-15 seconds; greater than 20 seconds indicates arterial disease

51
Q

Examples of poor candidates for ABI:

A

non compressible vessels, diabetes, obesity, renal insufficiency, poor cardiac output,

52
Q

Key characteristics of arterial wounds

A

dry, below ankle on met heads/tips of toes, punched out appearance

53
Q

What do we do with gangrene?

A

Refer for wet, wait for dry

54
Q

T/F we should debride with arterial insufficiency

A

F

55
Q

guidance with ace wrapping

A

start low, go slow

56
Q

Characteristics of VI wounds

A

distal 1/3 of lower leg, more common medially, lots of drainage, staining, champagne bottle leg, uneven edges

57
Q

T/F VI wounds are painful

A

F - usually VI wounds are not painful

58
Q

State LaPlace’s Law

A

compression = tension x # layers x 4630 / (limb girth circumference x bandage width)

59
Q

What are the risks for getting a neuropathic foot ulcer? (8)

A
  1. DM
  2. Impaired healing
  3. Vascular disease
  4. Tri-neuropathy
    5.Mechanical stress
  5. Impaired ROM
  6. Foot deformities
  7. Previous ulcer or amputation
60
Q
A
60
Q

If more than 1 monofilament test is gone, what does it mean

A

a loss of protective sensation

61
Q

Characteristics of a neuropathic foot ulcer (7)

A

bottom of foot, punched out, pain free, deep, callus, not much drainage (usually no eschar), red granulation, tracts&tunnels

62
Q

State the wagner neuropathic grading scale!

A

Wagner Grading Scale
0‐ No open lesions, may have deformity or cellulitis
1‐ Superficial Ulcer
2‐ Deep Ulcer to tendon, capsule, or bone
3‐ Deep Ulcer with abscess, osteomyelitis, or joint sepsis
4‐ Localized gangrene
5‐ Gangrene of entire foot

63
Q

Who is at risk for a pressure injury (3)?

A

SCI, long term care patients, hospitalized patients

64
Q

supine: locations of pressure injuries

A

occiput, scapula, medial humeral epicondyle, spinous processes, sacrum, lower heel

65
Q

Prone: locations of pressure injuries

A

anterior tibia, anterior knee, iliac crest

66
Q

side lying locations of pressure injuries

A

ear, lateral humeral epicondyle, greater trochanter, medial and lateral femoral condyles, malleolus

67
Q

seated locations of pressure injuries

A

sacrum, coccyx, ischial tuberosities, greater trochanter

68
Q

Characteristics of a stage 1 pressure injury

A

non blanchable erythema (localized, over bone, hard to see on pigmented skin)

69
Q

Characteristics of a stage 2 pressure injury

A

partial thickness skin loss with exposed epidermis (red/pink, no slough or granulation tissue, moist, NOT a skin tear, dermatitis, or maceration)

70
Q

Characteristics of a stage 3 pressure injury

A

Full thickness skin loss (adipose, slough, and eschar are present, undermining, tracts, tunnels, and epiboly are possible)

71
Q

Characteristics of a stage 4 pressure injury:

A

full thickness skin and tissue loss, exposed named structures, slough and eschar, epibole, undermining, tracts, and tunnels are common)

72
Q

Characteristics of an unstageable pressure injury

A

covered by slough/eschar and depth cannot be determined (mucosal membrane pressure injuries also cannot be staged)

73
Q

When are stitches/staples usually removed?

A

Days 10-14

74
Q

T/F absence of a healing ridge is bad

A

T

75
Q

What type of dressing can be used for scar management?

A

silicon

76
Q

What is the main risk of complications with a bite wound?

A

infection

77
Q

What are keys to diabetic foot care?

A

offload, total contact cast, footwear (larger and wider toe box, rocker sole, custom insole, runner’s tie)

78
Q

At what angle is hallux valgus significant?

A

greater than 20 degrees

79
Q

What is the technical name for dry skin?

A

xerosis

80
Q

How does ESTIM for wound healing work?

A
  1. Attracts cells to area (- = neutrophils, macrophages, mast cells, + = fibroblasts, epidermal cells, some neutrophils)
  2. It works well
  3. Cleanse heavy metal dressings first!
81
Q

Contraindications for ESTIM

A

near a natural heart pacemakers, over an artificial pacemaker, over malignancy

82
Q

T/F further apart electrodes go deeper

A

T

83
Q

What band of UV light is most used in wound care?

A

UV C

84
Q

How does laser therapy work?

A

Influences the mitochondria to produce ATP

85
Q

contraindications of pneumatic compression pumps

A

acute DVT, phlebitis, untreated cellulitis

86
Q

Should you use a standard compression pump with a lymphedema patient?

A

No, the lymphatic system is very fragile.

87
Q

When should we not use NPWT?

A

When the wound is more than 30% necrotic tissue.

88
Q

At what pressure does optimal granulation tissue form in NPWT?

A

125 mm Hg

89
Q

Say the pitting edema scale!

A

1+ (2mm or less and disappears immediately)
2+ (2-4 mm few second rebound)
3+ (4-6 mm 10-12 second rebound)
4+ (6-8mm greater than 20 second rebound)

90
Q

What is phlebo-lymphedema?

A

Combined venous insufficiency and lymphedema

91
Q

What can improve when lymphedema is solved?

A

5-10 degrees of motion, pain, gait, sleep, psychological status

92
Q

what is the difference between edema and lymphedema?

A

edema = general swelling
lymphedema = swelling b/c of an impaired lymphatic system

93
Q

What does glyco-calyx theory state?

A

the lymphatic system is responsible for returning all of the lymph fluid back to the vascular system

94
Q

What is transport capacity?

A

the total amount of fluid that can be moved

95
Q

what is dynamic overload?

A

when too much fluid is being transported by the lymphatic system (above transport capacity)

96
Q

what is mechanical insufficiency?

A

a decreased transport volume in the lymphatic system

97
Q

What kind of lymphedema patient am I able to treat?

A
  1. new VI based edema
  2. mild presentation
  3. no cancer history
  4. no swelling prior to surgery or injury
  5. distal to knee or elbow
  6. good pedal pulse
  7. duration less than 1 month
98
Q

What are the properties of a good wrap?

A

Low resting pressure, high working pressure

99
Q

How many hours should a lymphedema garment be worn?

A

23-24 hrs per day (especially with exercise)

Week 4 Exams (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions