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cht Flashcards

1
Q

Mass _.
A. has the SI unit of pounds.
B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.
C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter.
D. constitutes the force exerted on matter

A

B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.

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2
Q

Which of the following is described as having components that CANNOT be physically separated?
A. mixture
B. solution
C. suspension
D. pure substance

A

D. pure substance

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3
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Compounds have only one type of atom.
B. Elements can be chemically decomposed.
C. Solutions are considered as pure substances.
D. Heterogeneous mixtures have phase boundaries.

A

D. Heterogeneous mixtures have phase boundaries.

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4
Q

Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following BEST explains the scenario?
A. It underwent sublimation.
B. It melted then vaporized.
C. It reacted with something in the air.
D. None of the above.

A

A. It underwent sublimation.

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5
Q

Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?
A. change in color
B. increase in temperature
C. change in shape
D. evolution of gas

A

C. change in shape

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6
Q

What is the molar mass of an unknown gas if 1.60 g of the gas occupies a volume of 2.24 L at STP?
A. 35.8 g/mol
B. 160 g/mol
C. 16.0 g/mol
D. 81.0 g/mol

A

C. 16.0 g/mol

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7
Q

Which of the following is an intensive property?
A. density
B. melting point
C. electric potential
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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8
Q

The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is ____.
A. 1 atm
B. 760 mmHg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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9
Q

The flasks labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4 contains the same number of molecules. In which flask is pressure the highest?
A. flask 2
B. flask 1
C. flask 3
D. flask 4

A

B. flask 1

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10
Q

Which of the following is an extensive property of
A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

A

D. number of moles

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11
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
A. It has 6 neutrons and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutrons and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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12
Q

What is the most common isotope of Hydrogen?
A. Hydrogen only has one isotope
B. Deuterium
C. Tritium
D. Protium

A

D. Protium

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13
Q

From left to right in a periodic table ____.
A. atomic radius increases
B. ionization energy decreases
C. electronegativity increases
D. none of the above

A

C. electronegativity increases

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14
Q

Which of the following atoms is the largest?
A. Cesium
B. Strontium
C. Gallium
D. Arsenic

A

A. Cesium

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15
Q

Chromium is a member of which of the following?
A. Actinides
B. Lanthanides
C. Alkali metals
D. Transition metals

A

D. Transition metals

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16
Q

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

A

B. Boron

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17
Q

Noble gases are unreactive because they have complete outer electron shells. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?
A. Chlorine
B. Krypton
C. Helium
D. Argon

A

A. Chlorine

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18
Q

Which is NOT an acceptable name for Hg2Cl2?
A. Mercury(II) chloride
B. Mercury(I) chloride
C. Mercurous chloride
D. Dimercury dichloride

A

A. Mercury(II) chloride

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19
Q

Which of he following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

A

C. It has a dipole moment.

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20
Q

All of these elements are strict followers of the octet rule, EXCEPT
A. Boron
B. Carbon
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen

A

A. Boron

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21
Q

What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide?
A. PBr2
B. PBr
C. P2Br2
D. P2Br

A

D. P2Br

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
D. None of the statements above is true.

A

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

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23
Q

Which of the following has a tetrahedral geometry?
A. CH4
B. NH3
C. H2O
D. BF3

A

A. CH4

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24
Q

Sodium carbonate is also known as?
A. baking soda
B. soda ash
C. caustic potash
D. caustic soda

A

B. soda ash

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25
Q

Which of the following is a polar molecule?
A. CO2 (linear)
B. SF4 (seesaw)
C. CCl4 (tetrahedral)
D. XeF4 (square planar)

A

B. SF4

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26
Q

Polar molecules include which of the following?
I. CO2
II. COCl2
III. CH2Cl2

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only

A

D. II and III only

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?
A. high viscosity
B. high volatility
C. high boiling point
D. high melting point

A

B. high volatility

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28
Q

What is the principal intermolecular force that must be overcome when hexane is vaporized?
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Covalent bonding between carbons
C. Dipole-dipole forces
D. London dispersion forces

A

D. London dispersion forces

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29
Q

Which compound has the strongest IMFA?
A. CO
B. CH4
C. CH3OH
D. CH3OCH3

A

C. CH3OH

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30
Q

A polar solute dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. this is the ____.
A. Hund’s rule
B. Henry’s law
C. solubility rule
D. ‘like dissolves like’ rule

A

D. ‘like dissolves like’ rule

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31
Q

Tin(II) fluoride (156.7 g/mol) is often added to toothpaste as an ingredient to prevent tooth decay. What is the mass of fluoride (19g/mol) in 24.6 g of tin(II) fluoride?
A. 0.31 g
B. 2.98 g
C. 5.97 g
D. 101.4 g

A

C. 5.97 g

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32
Q

The empirical formula of a compound is CH. The molar mass of the compound is 78 g/mol, what is the molecular formula?
A. C2H2
B. C6H6
C. C8H8
D. None of the above

A

B. C6H6

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33
Q

For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same?
A. C6H5COOH
B. C6H4(COOH)2
C. HOOCCOOH
D. CH3COOH

A

C6H5COOH

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34
Q

Which of the following is a chemical equation?
A. CO2
B. C + O2 -> CO2
C. Ice + Heat -> Water
D. Iron + Oxygen -> Rust

A

B. C + O2 -> CO2

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35
Q

Consider the combustion of butane C4H10 + O2 -> CO2 + H2O where in a particular reaction, 5 mol of C4H10 are reacted with an excess of O2. Calculate the mol of CO2 formed.
A. 1.25 mol
B. 10 mol
C. 12.5 mol
D. 20 mol

A

D. 20 mol

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36
Q

A 1.00 g sample of which compound will produce the greatest amount of carbon dioxide after complete combustion with excess oxygen?
A. CH4
B. C3H6
C. C6H14
D. C8H18

A

B. C3H6

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37
Q

Ammonia is produced using the given reaction. In a particular experiment, 0.25 mol of NH3 is formed when 0.5 mol of N2 is reacted with 0.5 mol of H2. What is the %yield?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 33%
D. 25%

A

A. 75%

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38
Q

The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of ammonia?
A. decrease in temperature
B. increase in temperature
C. removal of nitrogen
D. addition of ammonia

A

A. decrease in temperature

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39
Q

Which statement is TRUE?
A. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.
C. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst.
D. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions.

A

B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.

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40
Q

A solution is ____ if more solute can dissolve in it.
A. saturated
B. unsaturated
C. supersaturated
D. concentrated

A

B. unsaturated

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41
Q

Which can change the value of the equilibrium constant?
A. addition of a catalyst
B. change in temperature
C. change in concentration
D. change in pressure or volume

A

B. change in temperature

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42
Q

How many grams of NaOH (40 g/mol) is needed to prepare 500 mL of 0.500 N solution of NaOH?
A. 4.00 g
B. 5.00 g
C. 10.0 g
D. 10.3 g

A

C. 10.0 g

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43
Q

The lining of the stomach contains cells that secrete a solution of HCl. Which drink would best alleviate heartburn, i.e., excess acid in the stomach?
A. diet soda (pH 4.3)
B. milk of magnesia (pH 10.5)
C. milk (pH 6.5)
D. wine (pH 3.8)

A

B. milk of magnesia (pH 10.5)

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44
Q

An exact amount of 0.8214 g of KMnO4 (158 g/mol) was dissolved in water and made up to volume in a 500 mL volumetric flask. A 2.00 mL portion of this solution was transferred to a 1000 mL flask and diluted to volume. Then 10.00 mL of the diluted solution was transferred to a 250 mL flask and diluted to volume. What is the molar concentration of the final solution?
A. 0.104 M
B. 2.08x10-5 M
C. 8.32x10-7 M
D. None of the above

A

C. 8.32x10-7 M

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45
Q

What are the products for the reaction of HNO3 and NH4OH?
A. HNO2 + H2O
B. NH2OH + H2O
C. NH4NO3 + H2O
D. No reaction will occur

A

C. NH4NO3 + H2O

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46
Q

Which procedure produces a 0.2 M solution of Na2SO4?
A. Dissolving 0.2 M solid Na2SO4 in 500 mL water.
B. Diluting 400 mL of 0.4 M Na2SO4 to a final volume of 1.0 L.
C. Mixing 500 mL of 0.4 M NaOH with 500 mL of 0.2 M Na2SO4.
D. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4.

A

D. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4.

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47
Q

In an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs ____.
A. at the anode
B. at the cathode
C. at either the cathode or the anode
D. between the cathode and the anode

A

A. at the anode

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48
Q

For the reaction Mg + H2O -> MgO + H2, which is FALSE?
A. H2O is the oxidizing agent
B. Mg lost electrons
C. Mg is the oxidizing agent
D. H2O gained electrons

A

C. Mg is the oxidizing agent

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49
Q

Express the number 0.051065 to four significant figures.
A. 0.051
B. 0.0510
C. 0.05106
D. 0.0511

A

C. 0.05106

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50
Q

In NaH, what is the oxidation state of hydrogen?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2

A

A. -1

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51
Q

The acid secreted by the cell of the stomach lining is a hydrochloric solution that typically contains 1.2x10-3 M. What is the pH of he acid in the stomach?
A. 1.50
B. 2.92
C. 3.50
D. 6.19

A

B. 2.92

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52
Q

When Cr3+ changes from an oxidation state of +3 to +6 Cr3+ will
A. gain 6 electrons
B. lose 6 electrons
C. lose 3 electrons
D. gain 3 electrons

A

C. lose 3 electrons

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53
Q

Which of these conjugate acid-base pairs must be used to prepare a buffer with pH near 7.15?
A. formic acid and sodium formate (pKa 3.74)
B. succinic acid and sodium succinate (pKa 5.64)
C. glycylglycine and sodium glycylglycate (pKa 8.35)
D. sodium dihydrogen phosphate and sodium hydrogen phosphate (pKa2 7.20)

A

D. sodium dihydrogen phosphate and sodium hydrogen phosphate (pKa2 7.20)

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54
Q

Oxidation is the same as ____.
A. addition of hydrogen
B. removal of oxygen
C. addition of oxygen
D. removal of nitrogen

A

C. addition of oxygen

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55
Q

Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
A. NH3 and NH4+
B. H2S and OH-
C. H2O and OH-
D. HCN and CN-

A

B. H2S and OH-

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56
Q

When ammonium chloride undergoes ionization, the resulting solution will have a pH ____.
A. <7
B. 7
C. >7
D. 14

A

A. <7

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57
Q

Reduction involves ____ oxidation number.
A. increase of
B. decrease of
C. independence of
D. no change in

A

B. decrease of

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58
Q

The number 2.34x10⁷ is the scientific notation for ____.
A. 234000
B. 23400
C. 23400000
D. 2340000

A

C. 23400000

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59
Q

Which part of an electrochemical cell maintains electrical neutrality?
A. anode
B. salt bridge
C. cathode
D. voltmeter

A

B. salt bridge

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60
Q

It is an electrochemical cell where electrical energy is used to drive a nonspontaneous redox reaction.
A. Daniell cell
B. Voltaic cell
C. Galvanic cell
D. Electrolytic cell

A

D. Electrolytic cell

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61
Q

During electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution ____.
A. are oxidized at the anode
B. are oxidized at the cathode
C. are reduced at the cathode
D. remain in solution unchanged

A

C. are reduced at the cathode

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62
Q

In the maintenance and storage of pH meters, which of the following must NOT be done?
A. Use mild soap solution in general cleaning of electrode.
B. Store the electrode in distilled water to keep the electrode bulb moist during storage.
C. Blot electrode dry after rinsing the pH electrode.
D. Rince pH electrode in between measurements.

A

B. Store the electrode in distilled water to keep the electrode bulb moist during storage.

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63
Q

The volume of a liquid is 20.5 mL. Which of the following sets of measurement represents the value with good accuracy?
A. 19.2 mL, 19.3 mL, 18.8 mL, 18.6 mL
B. 18.9 mL, 19.0 mL. 19.2 mL, 18.8 mL
C. 18.6 mL, 17.8 mL, 19.6 mL, 17.2 mL
D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

A

D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

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64
Q

A prediction or a possible explanation to the question or problem which can be tested in an experiment is called
A. hypothesis
B. procedure
C. graph
D. data

A

A. hypothesis

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65
Q

A colorless liquid and a yellowish liquid were mixed in a test tube. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. There will be no reaction if the test tube will get hot.
B. There will be a reaction if a precipitate will be formed.
C. There will be no reaction if the liquids will be on top of each other.
D. There will be a reaction if the yellow color will drastically disappear.

A

A. There will be no reaction if the test tube will get hot.

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66
Q

Which of the following is the closest to being an ideal gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen

A

C. Helium

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67
Q

What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?
A. its volume decreases
B. its volume increases
C. it remains the same
D. its volume becomes equal to zero

A

A. its volume decreases

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68
Q

Whose atomic model illustrates that negative charges are scattered around an atom?
A. Dalton
B. Thomson
C. Rutherford
D. Bohr

A

B. Thomson

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69
Q

An elements has a notation ⁴⁰₁₈Ar. How many neutrons does this element have?
A. 18
B. 22
C. 40
D. 58

A

B. 22

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70
Q

Which of the following is arranged in increasing atomic size?
A. Cs < Ca <O < Ne
B. Cs < O < Ca < Ne
C. Ne < Ca < O < Cs
D. Ne < O < Ca < Cs

A

D. Ne < O < Ca < Cs

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71
Q

What is the name of Cu₂O?
A. Dicopper monoxide
B. Cupric oxide
C. Copper(I) Oxide
D. Copper(II) Oxide

A

C. Copper(I) Oxide

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72
Q

Which of the following does NOT follow octet rule?
A. CH₄
B. CCl₄
C. HCl
D. NO₂

A

bonus

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73
Q

What is the shape of the molecule NH₃?
A. Square pyramidal
B. V-shape
C. Trigonal pyramidal
D. Tetrahedral

A

C. Trigonal pyramidal

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74
Q

Which of the following molecular geometry is TRUE?
A. BrF₅: Trigonal pyramidal
B. ClF₃: T-shaped
C. PCl₅: See-saw
D. SF₄: Trigonal bipyramidal

A

B. ClF₃: T-shaped

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75
Q

Which of the following molecules has a net dipole movement?
A. N₂
B. CH₄
C. BF₂
D. H₂O

A

D. H₂O

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76
Q

HCl possess(es) which of the following intermolecular interactions?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. London dispersion forces only
C. Dipole-dipole forces only
D. London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces

A

D. London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces

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77
Q

Metals and solutions of electrolytes are ____.
A. insulators
B. polar
C. negative
D. conductors

A

D. conductors

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78
Q

Balance the following equation: Ag + O₂ -> Ag₂O
A. Put 2 for Ag
B. Put 4 for Ag and 2 for Ag₂O
C. Put subscript 2 after Ag₂O
D. Put 2 for Ag and 1 for Ag₂O

A

B. Put 4 for Ag and 2 for Ag₂O

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79
Q

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data. Mass of water 50.1227 g, Density of water at 25°C is 0.99707 g/mL.
A. 50.27 mL
B. 50.37 mL
C. 50.17 mL
D. 50.45 mL

A

A. 50.27 mL

80
Q

Under the Lewis definition of acid and bases, an acid is a(an)
A. electron pair donor
B. proton acceptor
C. proton donor
D. electron pair acceptor

A

D. electron pair acceptor

80
Q

The water content of an 875.4 mg sample of cheese was determined with a moisture analyzer. What is the amount of water in the cheese if the final mass was found to be 545.8 mg?
A. 35.23%
B. 30.69%
C. 31.45%
D. 37.65%

A

D. 37.65%

81
Q

What is the molarity of a solution containing 72.9 g HCl in enough water to make 500 mL of solution?
A. 2.0 mol/L
B. 4.05 g/L
C. 5.0 mol/L
D. 4.05 mol/L

A

D. 4.05 mol/L

82
Q

What volume of 0.25 M CH₃COOH is needed to prepare a liter of a 0.005 M dilute solution?
A. 0.020 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 50 mL
D. 75 mL

A

B. 20 mL

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT an acid?
A. milk of magnesia
B. apple juice
C. milk
D. gastric juice

A

A. milk of magnesia

84
Q

Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
A. Acetic acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
D. Ammonium hydroxide

A

C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

85
Q

How many significant figures does the universal gas constant R = 0.0821 L atm / mol K have?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. infinite

A

D. infinite

85
Q

Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. an air conditioner cooling the air
B. none of these choices
C. bleaching your clothes
D. melting of ice

A

C. bleaching your clothes

85
Q

A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its pressure at constant temperature?
A. doubled
B. halved
C. no effect
D. cannot be determined

A

A. doubled

85
Q

A 30 L gas initially has 110 kPa and 147°C. Its volume became 40 L and the pressure increased to 120 kPa. What is the new temperature?
A. 65°C
B. 214°C
C. 338°C
D. 611°C

A

C. 338°C

86
Q

What is the pressure of hydrogen gas if 0.412 mol at 16°C occupies a volume of 3.25L?
A. 1 atm
B. 2 atm
C. 3 atm
D. 4 atm

A

C. 3 atm

87
Q

Which does NOT correspond to this electron configuration? 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶
A. K⁺
B. Cl⁻
C. S²⁻
D. Kr

A

D. Kr

88
Q

Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than Oxygen?
A. Sulfur
B. Carbon
C. Neon
D. Fluorine

A

D. Fluorine

89
Q

This atomic model depicts atoms as small, positively charged nuclei surrounded by electrons in circular orbits.
A. Bohr’s model
B. Dalton’s model
C. Thomson’s model
D. Rutherford’s model

A

A. Bohr’s model

90
Q

From top to bottom down the periodic table ____
A. atomic trend can’t be predicted
B. electronegativity decreases
C. ionization energy increases
D. atomic radius decreases

A

B. electronegativity decreases

91
Q

From left to right across the periodic table
A. atomic radius increases
B. atomic radius decreases
C. ionization energy decreases
D. electronegativity decreases

A

B. atomic radius decreases

92
Q

What is the name of this compound? Pb(ClO₄)₂
A. Lead(II) perchlorate
B. Lead(IV) perchlorate
C. Plumbic perchlorate
D. Plumbous chlorate

A

A. Lead(II) perchlorate

93
Q

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
A. HN₃
B. HNO₂
C. HNO₃
D. H₂NO₃

A

B. HNO₂

94
Q

What is the other name for oil of vitriol?
A. paraffin
B. olefin
C. sulfuric acid
D. wax

A

C. sulfuric acid

95
Q

Which molecular geometry has the largest bond angle?
A. linear
B. tetrahedral
C. octahedral
D. trigonal bipyramidal

A

A. linear

96
Q

Alcohols and carboxylic acids have -OH groups. What type of chemical bond occurs between Oxygen and Hydrogen?
A. ionic
B. polar covalent
C. hydrogen
D. non-polar covalent

A

B. polar covalent

97
Q

It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a nonpolar molecule?
A. Van der Waals forces
B. Dipole-dipole interaction
C. Ion-dipole interaction
D. Hydrogen bonding

A

A. Van der Waals forces

98
Q

For numbers 19-21: Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia (17.04 g/mol) over solid Copper(II) oxide (79.55 g/mol) at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown as in the reaction below:
NH₃ (g) + CuO (s) -> N₂ (g) + Cu (s) + H₂O (g)

  1. If 30.5 g of NH₃ is reacted with 99.7 g of CuO, which is the limiting reactant?
    A. NH₃
    B. CuO
    C. N₂
    D. H₂O
A

C. N₂

98
Q

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
A. decanol
B. lauric acid
C. phenol
D. benzene

A

D. benzene

99
Q

What IMFA is(are) present in this compound? CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CHO
A. Van der Waals forces only
B. Dipole-dipole interactions only
C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions
D. Van der Waals, dipole-dipole interactions, and hydrogen bonding

A

C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions

100
Q

For numbers 19-21: Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia (17.04 g/mol) over solid Copper(II) oxide (79.55 g/mol) at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown as in the reaction below:
NH₃ (g) + CuO (s) -> N₂ (g) + Cu (s) + H₂O (g)

  1. How much nitrogen gas (28.02 g/mol) will be produced?
    A. 11.7 g
    B. 14.2 g
    C. 7.9 g
    D. 9.1 g
A

A. 11.7 g

101
Q

How much water vapor (18.02 g/mol) will be formed?
A. 48.4 g
B. 23.4 g
C. 32.3 g
D. 22.5 g

A

D. 22.5 g

102
Q

For numbers 22-23: An unknown white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% Phosphorus (31 g/mol) and 56.36% Oxygen (16 g/mol).

  1. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
    A. P₂O₅
    B. P₄O₁₀ (molecular)
    C. P₁.₀O₁.₃
    D.P₁.₄O₃.₅
A

A. P₂O₅ (empirical)

103
Q

For numbers 22-23: An unknown white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% Phosphorus (31 g/mol) and 56.36% Oxygen (16 g/mol).

  1. The compound has a molecular weight of 283.88 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
    A. P₂O₅ (empirical)
    B. P₄O₁₀
    C. P₁.₀O₁.₃
    D.P₁.₄O₃.₅
A

B. P₄O₁₀

104
Q

How many grams of K₂Cr₂O₇ (294.2 g/mol) is required to prepare 250 mL of 0.10 M solution of K₂Cr₂O₇? This is solution is an oxidizing agent used in organic chemistry.
A. 1.18 g
B. 7.36 g
C. 6.38 g
D. 2.94 g

A

B. 7.36 g

105
Q

How much of a 2.0 M stock solution do you need to prepare 50 mL of a 1.0 M solution?
A. 75 mL
B. 30 mL
C. 25 mL
D. 50 mL

A

C. 25 mL

106
Q

The thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate is an endothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of carbon dioxide?
CaCO₃ (s) + heat + CaO (s) + CO₂ (g)
A. decrease in temperature
B. increase in temperature
C. removal of nitrogen
D. addition of ammonia

A

B. increase in temperature

107
Q

Under the Bronsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases, a base is a/an
A. proton donor
B. proton acceptor
C. electron pair donor
D. electron pair acceptor

A

B. proton acceptor

108
Q

The following statements are TRUE about pH EXCEPT
A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution
B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution
D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

A

D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

109
Q

Determine the concentration of H⁺ ions in apple cider vinegar if the pH was measured to 3.57.
A. 2.7x10⁻⁴ M
B. 3.7x10⁻³ M
C. 5.5x10⁻¹ M
D. 1.3x10⁻¹ M

A

A. 2.7x10⁻⁴ M

110
Q

In which of the following titrations does pH = 7.0 occur at the equivalence point?
I. Strong acid and strong base
II. Weak acid and strong base
III. Strong acid and weak base

A. II and III only
B. III only
C. I only
D. II only

A

C. I only

111
Q

Contains the results of the experiment and checks if the hypothesis is proven or not
A. procedure
B. hypothesis
C. conclusion
D. theory

A

C. conclusion

112
Q

Mass _.
A. has the SI unit of pounds.
B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.
C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter.
D. constitutes the force exerted on matter

A

B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.

113
Q

What is the scientific notation of 0.0078 µg/mL of compound A?
A. 7.8x10⁻¹
B. 7.8x10⁻²
C. 7.8x10⁻³
D. 7.8x10⁻⁴

A

C. 7.8x10⁻³

113
Q

How many significant figures are there in 3.400 g?
A. infinite
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

113
Q

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

A

D. number of moles

113
Q

All solid states are denser than their liquid states. However water is unique because
A. It is clear.
B. It is tasteless.
C. It can freeze.
D. Its solid form is less dense.

A

D. Its solid form is less dense.

114
Q

Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase?
A. putting it in a freezer
B. heating it
C. measure it in Jupiter
D. none of the above

A

D. none of the above

114
Q

When two materials that have different densities, like oil and water, encounter one another, they will ____.
A. separate based on their densities
B. exchange densities
C. mix uniformly
D. repel one another

A

A. separate based on their densities

115
Q

Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated?
A. mixture
B. solution
C. element
D. compound

A

A. mixture

116
Q

Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?
A. change in color
B. increase in temperature
C. change in shape
D. evolution of gas

A

C. change in shape

117
Q

Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
D. None of the above.

A

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

118
Q

At 25°C, a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0L to 70°C and 10 kPa. Calculate its final volume.
A. 17 L
B. 24 L
C. 42 L
D. 71 L

A

A. 17 L

119
Q

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data. Mass of water 50.1227 g, Density of water at 25°C is 0.99707 g/mL.
A. 50.45 mL
B. 50.27 mL
C. 50.37 mL
D. 50.17 mL

A

B. 50.27 mL

120
Q

What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25°C?
A. 1.31 g/mL
B. 1.31 g/L
C. 15.6 g/mL
D. 15.6 g/L

A

B. 1.31 g/L

121
Q

Each of these flasks contains the same number of molecules. In which container is the pressure highest?
A. flask 2
B. flask 1
C. flask 3
D. flask 4

A

B. flask 1

122
Q

This happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?
A. Its volume decreases
B. It remains the same
C. Its volume increases
D. Its volume becomes equal to zero

A

A. Its volume decreases

123
Q

When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water boils. This shows that the solubility of gasses in water ____.
A. decreases with increasing temperature
B. increases with increasing temperature
C. decreases with increasing temperature
D. increases with decreasing temperature

A

A. decreases with increasing temperature

124
Q

What is the most common isotope of hydrogen?
A. H has only one isotope
B. Protium
C. Deuterium
D. Tritium

A

B. Protium

125
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
A. It has 6 neutrons and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutrons and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

126
Q

Which is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?
A. n = 3, l = 1, mₗ = -1, mₛ = -1/2
B. n = 3, l = 0, mₗ = 0, mₛ = -1/2
C. n = 3, l = 0, mₗ = -1, mₛ = -1/2
D. n = 3, l = 1, mₗ = 0, mₛ = -1/2

A

B. n = 3, l = 0, mₗ = 0, mₛ = -1/2

126
Q

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

A

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl

127
Q

Which of the following atoms is the largest?
A. Cs
B. Sr
C. Ga
D. As

A

A. Cs

128
Q

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

A

B. Boron

129
Q

Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution?
A. SO₂
B. CO₂
C. MgO
D. P₂O₅

A

C. MgO

130
Q

Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water?
A. H₂
B. F₂
C. Cl₂
D. Br₂

A

B. F₂

131
Q

Chromium is a member of which of the following?
A. Actinides
B. Lanthanides
C. Alkali metals
D. Transition metals

A

D. Transition metals

132
Q

What is an alloy?
A. solid solution
B. liquid solution
C. gaseous solution
D. all of the above

A

A. solid solution

133
Q

Which of the following is a chemical equation?
A. CO2
B. C + O₂ -> CO₂
C. Ice + Heat -> Water
D. Iron + Oxygen -> Rust

A

B. C + O₂ -> CO₂

134
Q

What is the name of the compound PCl₃?
A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride
C. Phosphorus chloride(III)
D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)

A

B. Phosphorus trichloride

135
Q

What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride?
A. HgCl
B. Hg₂Cl
C. HgCl₂
D. Hg₂Cl₂

A

D. Hg₂Cl₂

136
Q

Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?
A. CH₄
B. NH₃
C. H₂O
D. BF₃

A

A. CH₄

137
Q

Which of the following molecules has a net dipole movement?
A. Cl₂
B. H₂O
C. BF₃
D. CH₄

A

B. H₂O

138
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
D. None of the statements above is true.

A

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

139
Q

Which of the following describes a polar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

A

C. It has a dipole moment.

140
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?
A. high viscosity
B. high volatility
C. high boiling point
D. high melting point

A

B. high volatility

141
Q

What is the principal intermolecular force that must be overcome when n-hexane is vaporized?
A. hydrogen bonding
B. covalent bonding between carbons
C. dipole-dipole forces
D. London dispersion forces

A

D. London dispersion forces

142
Q

Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is TRUE about the boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B?
A. less than that of A
B. greater than that of B
C. average of A and B
D. between A and B

A

D. between A and B

143
Q

It is the temperature at which solid and liquid coexist.
A. melting point of liquid
B. freezing point of liquid
C. freezing point of solid
D. all of the above

A

B. freezing point of liquid

144
Q

How many atoms does a kilogram of copper (63.55 g/mol) metal have?
A. 9.5x10²¹
B. 9.5x10²⁴
C. 3.8x10²¹
D. 3.8x10²⁴

A

B. 9.5x10²⁴

145
Q

An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C, 10.41% H, and 27.55% O. Which of the following is the most probably identity of the compound?
A. C₂H₄O
B. C₂H₄O₂
C. C₃H₆O
D. C₃H₆O₂

A

C. C₃H₆O

145
Q

A 1.00 g sample of which compound will produce the greatest amount of carbon dioxide after complete combustion with excess oxygen?
A. CH₄
B. C₃H₈
C. C₆H₆
D. C₈H₁₈

A

C. C₆H₆

145
Q

Which procedure produces a 0.2 M solution of Na₂SO₄?
A. Mixing 500 mL of 0.4 M NaOH with 500 mL of 0.2 M Na₂SO₄
B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄
C. Dissolving 0.2 M solid Na₂SO₄ in 500 mL water
D. Diluting 400 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄ to a final volume of 1.0 L

A

B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄

146
Q

Aspirin, C₉H₈O₄, is prepared by the acetylation of salicylic acid, C₇H₆O₃, according to the following equation:
C₇H₆O₃ + (CH₃CO)₂ -> C₉H₈O₄ + CH₃COOH

If the yield of this reaction is 83%, what mass of salicylic acid would be required to prepare 1.0 kg of aspirin?
A. 0.77 kg
B. 0.92 kg
C. 1.2 kg
D. 1.3 kg

A

B. 0.92 kg

146
Q

A solution has been prepared by transferring 60 mL of 85% by volume H₃PO₄ and diluting it to 1.0 L. What is the concentration of the new solution?
A. 10.10%
B. 9.25%
C. 12.2%
D. 5.10%

A

D. 5.10%

146
Q

A solution is ____ if more solute can dissolve in it.
A. saturated
B. supersaturated
C. unsaturated
D. concentrated

A

C. unsaturated

146
Q

Which of the following substances is NOT basic?
A. baking soda
B. apple juice
C. borax
D. seawater

A

B. apple juice

146
Q

A solution contains 34.0% HClO₄ by mass. HClO₄ has a molar mass of 100.45 g/mol. The solution has a density of 1.242 g/mL. What is the molar concentration of this solution?
A. 5.13 M
B. 4.20 M
C. 8.40 M
D. 0.916 M

A

B. 4.20 M

146
Q

A 2.4L of HNO₃ solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)₂ to produce a neutral solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HNO₃ solution?
A. 0.05 M
B. 0.12 M
C. 0.24 M
D. 0.50 M

A

A. 0.05 M

146
Q

During strong acid-weak base equivalence point is ____.
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

B. acidic

146
Q

When the salt NaCH₃COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

B. basic

147
Q

Column chromatography is based of the principle of
A. …
B. …
C. …
D. Differential adsorption

A

D. Differential adsorption

147
Q

When the salt NH₄Cl dissociates in water, the resulting solution
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

A. acidic

147
Q

The following statements are TRUE about pH EXCEPT
A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution
B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution
D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

A

D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

147
Q

An analyst dissolved 4.021 g of NaOH in water and made up the solution to 1L. He pipetted 10.00 mL of this solution into a flask and titrated it with 0.050 M HCl solution from a buret. A volume of 20.32 mL of acid was used at the endpoint Examining this result, the lab supervisor could deduce that ____.
A. NaOH absorbed H₂O from the air after its mass was measured
B. buret was rinsed with water instead of HCl
C. analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus
D. pipette was rinsed with water instead of NaOH

A

B. buret was rinsed with water instead of HCl

147
Q

The Kjeldahl method is the worldwide standard for calculating the protein content in a wide variety of materials ranging from human and animal food, fertilizer, waste water and fossil fuels. What element is being analyzed in Kjeldahl method?
A. C
B. N
C. S
D. O

A

B. N

147
Q

In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the ____ while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the ____.
A. anode, anode
B. cathode, cathode
C. cathode, anode
D. anode, cathode

A

C. cathode, anode

147
Q

Conductivity is the ability of a substance to
A. conduct electric current, which is the same as resistivity
B. repel electric current
C. conduct variable resistance
D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity

A

D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity

147
Q

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of ____.
A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio.
B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

A

B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

147
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
D. None of the above

A

C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

147
Q

Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than %T?
A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as A
B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation
C. because A is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
D. none of the above

A

C. because A is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

148
Q

A student wants to imrove the accuracy of a 9.40 mL liquid using a 100 mL graduated cylinder. Which of the following should he do?
A. take the average of multiple measurements
B. add an additional significant figure
C. use a 25 mL graduated cylinder instead
D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

A

D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

149
Q

Which of the following will you perform to know that atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work properly?
A. calibration check
B. blank
C. QC sample recoveries
D. standard addition

A

A. calibration check

150
Q

Statistical test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT.
A. t-test
B. z-test
C. Q-test
D. F-test

A

C. Q-test

151
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a primary method?
I. Set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued by a national standards body.
II. It has the highest metrological qualities.
III. Method that employs the use of materials such as certifies reference materials.
IV. Titration of hydrochloric acid with anhydrous sodium carbonate to determine the concentration of the acid is an example of this method.

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and IV
D. I and IV

A

C. II and IV

152
Q

It is the fraction of the named material present in the stated chemical form.
A. Potency
B. Purity
C. Stability
D. Activity

A

B. Purity

153
Q

If you reported that a sample with 9 mg/L of a substance has only 5 mg/L and the acceptable limit according to standard is 7 mg/L, this is
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. Accurate
D. Precise

A

B. False negative

154
Q

It is a performance parameter that could be used to analyze a blank sample matrix.
A. Bias estimate
B. Selectivity
C. Limit of quantification
D. Limit of Detection

A

D. Limit of Detection

155
Q

Which of the following factors affects the choice of analytical methods?
A. The type of analysis required
B. The accuracy required
C. Possible interferences from components of the material other than those of interest
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

156
Q

Which chemical grade is commonly used for low-grade applications such as cleaning and qualitative testing?
A. USP Grade
B. NF Grade
C. Technical Grade
D. Laboratory Grade

A

C. Technical Grade

157
Q

Consider the analysis of the determination of sugar concentration in powdered juice dissolved in water. Which of the following is the matrix?
A. Sugar
B. Powdered juice
C. Water
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

158
Q

The portion of the calibration curve which includes the range of concentrations of analyte that can be determined with demonstrated precision, accuracy, and response function.
A. Limit of Detection
B. Limit of Quantitation
C. Working range
D. Linear dynamic range

A

C. Working range

158
Q

Which of the following statement/s is are TRUE about instrumental background signal?
I. Even when no sample is being analyzed, the instrument will generate a background signal.
II. LOD for an instrument improves if the S/N can be increased.
III. LOD for an instrument is not affected by S/N.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III

A

B. I and II

159
Q

The property of an analytical method to determine simultaneously several components independently from each other.
A. Selectivity
B. Specificity
C. Sensitivity
D. Ruggedness

A

A. Selectivity

160
Q

It is a part of quality systems that is officially defined by the ISO as the assembly of all planned and systematic actions to provide adequate confidence that a product, proves or service will satisfy the given quality requirements
A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Manual

A

B. Quality Assurance

161
Q

The quality system standard is a general requirement for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories.
A. GLP
B. GMP
C. ISO 9001
D. ISO/IEC 17025

A

D. ISO/IEC 17025

162
Q

If you are going to mass produce vitamin C, which standard you should subscribe in?
A. GMP
B. HACCP
C. ISO 9001
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

163
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about quality assurance?
I. QA is a set of activities for ensuring quality in the process by which products are developed.
II. QA is a corrective tool and product oriented.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. None of these

A

A. I only

164
Q

A.
B.
C.
D.

A
165
Q

A.
B.
C.
D.

A
166
Q

A.
B.
C.
D.

A

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