CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Flashcards

1
Q

What is the prevalence of treated kidney failure in the Philippines?

A

319 per million people, with 314 receiving chronic dialysis.

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2
Q

Which type of dialysis is more common in the Philippines, hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis?

A

Hemodialysis.

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3
Q

What does Figure 2 represent?

A

CKD and its risk factors burden.

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4
Q

What does Figure 3 show about Southeast Asia?

A

Southeast Asia has a significantly higher chronic kidney disease disability-adjusted life-year (DALY) rate compared to other regions.

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5
Q

What is Conservative Kidney Management (CKM)?

A

CKM refers to managing patients with medications and lifestyle changes instead of renal replacement therapy, despite being candidates for it.

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6
Q

What is the ratio of nephrologists to the population in the Philippines?

A

8.87 nephrologists per million population.

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7
Q

How many nephrologists are in the Philippines according to the Philippine Society of Nephrology?

A

888 nephrologists.

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8
Q

What is the initial step in managing CKD, similar to acute kidney injury?

A

Identify individuals at risk, followed by testing, stratification, treatment, monitoring, and referral.

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9
Q

What is the time frame for diagnosing CKD?

A

Kidney damage or reduced GFR present for a minimum of 3 months.

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10
Q

What are the stages of chronic kidney disease based on GFR?

A

G1 to G5, with G1 being the best and G5 the most severe.

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11
Q

What are the albuminuria categories in CKD?

A

A1 to A3, where A1 is normal to mildly increased, A2 is moderately increased, and A3 is severely increased.

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12
Q

What are markers of kidney damage that can indicate CKD?

A

Albuminuria (ACR ≥30 mg/g), urine sediment abnormalities, persistent hematuria, electrolyte abnormalities, structural abnormalities, histology findings, or history of kidney transplantation.

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13
Q

What GFR level is considered decreased and indicative of CKD?

A

GFR <60 ml/min per 1.73 m² (categories G3a-G5).

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14
Q

How does KDIGO define CKD?

A

Abnormalities of kidney structure or function present for a minimum of 3 months with implications for health.

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15
Q

What does the CGA classification of CKD stand for?

A

Cause, GFR category (G1-G5), and Albuminuria category (A1-A3).

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16
Q

What is the first-line therapy for CKD patients according to KDIGO?

A

Lifestyle changes and SGLT2 inhibitors, along with ACE inhibitors or ARBs and statins.

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17
Q

What is the conversion factor for albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) from mg/g to mg/mmol?

A

0.113.

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18
Q

What is the conversion factor for calcium from mg/dl to mg/mmol?

A

0.2495.

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19
Q

What is the conversion factor for creatinine from mg/dl to µmol/l?

A

88.4.

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20
Q

What is the conversion factor for phosphate from mg/dl to mmol/l?

A

0.3229.

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21
Q

What are the approximate equivalent albuminuria categories in CKD?

A

A1: <30 mg/g, A2: 30-300 mg/g, A3: >300 mg/g.

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22
Q

What is the focus of Figure 11 regarding CKD care?

A

Special considerations for chronic kidney disease care across the lifespan.

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23
Q

What does CKD encompass?

A

A spectrum of pathophysiologic processes associated with abnormal kidney function and progressive decline in glomerular filtration rate.

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24
Q

What are the two parameters of CKD?

A

Abnormal kidney disease and progressive GFR decline.

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25
Q

What are the basic physiologic mechanisms of the nephron?

A

Filtration, secretion, reabsorption, and excretion.

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26
Q

What is the risk of CKD progression closely linked to?

A

Both the GFR and the amount of albuminuria.

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27
Q

What is end-stage renal disease?

A

A stage of CKD where toxins, fluid, and electrolytes accumulate, leading to death unless treated with renal replacement therapy.

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28
Q

What are the two sets of mechanisms in CKD pathophysiology?

A

Initiating mechanisms and hyperfiltration mechanisms.

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29
Q

What are initiating mechanisms in CKD?

A

Specific conditions causing CKD, such as toxin exposure or deposition of immune complexes (e.g., glomerulonephritides).

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30
Q

What is hyperfiltration in CKD?

A

A compensatory mechanism where remaining viable nephrons hyperfilter and hypertrophy to maintain GFR temporarily.

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31
Q

What happens in a hyperfiltering glomerulus?

A

Damaged endothelium, sclerosis, and enlarged arterioles lead to long-term glomerular damage despite temporary GFR maintenance.

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32
Q

What are non-modifiable risk factors for CKD?

A

Small for gestational age, advanced age, African ancestry, family history of kidney disease, and previous AKI.

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33
Q

What are modifiable risk factors for CKD?

A

Childhood obesity, hypertension, diabetes, proteinuria, and lifestyle factors such as smoking and diet.

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34
Q

What are risk factors for CKD progression in adulthood?

A

Elevated blood pressure, treated childhood kidney disease, and nephrotoxic exposures.

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35
Q

What is the effect of healthy aging on GFR?

A

GFR declines by 1 ml/min per year starting from the 3rd decade of life.

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36
Q

What structural changes occur in kidneys with aging?

A

Global glomerulosclerosis, interstitial fibrosis, and arteriosclerosis.

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37
Q

What is GFR?

A

The amount of fluid filtered into the Bowman space per unit of time, dependent on glomerular membrane porosity, surface area, and pressure.

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38
Q

What is the normal GFR value?

A

Greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m².

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39
Q

What is eGFR, and why is it used?

A

Estimated GFR calculated using plasma creatinine; it is used for CKD detection, monitoring, and prognostication.

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40
Q

What are the common eGFR calculation methods?

A

Cockcroft-Gault (CG), MDRD, and CKD-EPI equations.

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41
Q

What is proteinuria, and why is it important in CKD?

A

One of the earliest markers of renal disease, providing diagnostic and prognostic information for CKD.

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42
Q

What are casts in urine, and what do they indicate?

A

Cylindrical bodies of renal origin; red cell casts indicate significant glomerular pathology.

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43
Q

How is creatinine clearance (CrCl) measured?

A

By collecting 24-hour urine and measuring total excreted creatinine and urine volume.

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44
Q

What is the Cockcroft-Gault formula for CrCl?

A

CrCl = [(140-age) x lean body weight (kg)] / [Serum Creatinine (mg/dL) x 72] (x 0.85 if female).

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45
Q

What is the CKD-EPI formula for eGFR?

A

eGFR = 141 x min(PCr/k, 1)^a x max(PCr/k, 1)^-1.209 x 0.993^age x 1.018 [if female] x 1.159 [if black].

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46
Q

What are the modifiable interventions to slow CKD progression?

A

Hypertension control, glycemic control, proteinuria management, and lifestyle changes such as smoking cessation.

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47
Q

What medications are recommended for CKD management?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, diuretics, and sodium bicarbonate for metabolic acidosis.

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48
Q

What are the non-modifiable demographic risk factors for CKD?

A

Old age, male sex, Hispanic or African-American ancestry, and low birth weight.

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49
Q

What are nephrotoxic exposures contributing to CKD?

A

Heavy metals, environmental toxins, and certain antineoplastic therapies.

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50
Q

What is the main utility of eGFR equations?

A

Detection, monitoring, and prognostication of CKD.

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51
Q

What is the limitation of creatinine as a marker for renal function?

A

It is insensitive to significant declines in GFR at the upper limit of normal due to compensatory hyperfiltration.

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52
Q

What is the clinical significance of proteinuria in CKD?

A

It occurs before a reduction in GFR and aids in diagnosis and stratification of CKD severity.

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53
Q

What is the eGFR range for Stage 1 CKD, and what are its clinical features?

A

eGFR >60 mL/min/1.73 m²; Abnormal urinalysis and renal imaging.

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54
Q

What is the importance of identifying Stage 1 CKD?

A

Risk of progression to later stages increases with proteinuria and depends on the cause of the disease.

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55
Q

What is the eGFR range for Stage 2 CKD, and what are its clinical features?

A

eGFR >60 mL/min/1.73 m²; Abnormal urinalysis and renal imaging.

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56
Q

What is the risk associated with Stage 2 CKD?

A

Mild risk of progression, which increases with proteinuria and depends on the cause of the disease.

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57
Q

What is the eGFR range for Stage 3a CKD, and what are its clinical features?

A

eGFR 45–60 mL/min/1.73 m²; Cardiovascular disease or other organ damage.

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58
Q

What is the focus for Stage 3a CKD management?

A

Moderate risk of progression; focus on vascular risk factors like high BP, lipids, smoking, and weight.

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59
Q

What is the eGFR range for Stage 3b CKD, and what are its clinical features?

A

eGFR 30–45 mL/min/1.73 m²; Proteinuria.

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60
Q

What is the risk associated with Stage 3b CKD?

A

High risk of disease progression.

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61
Q

What is the eGFR range for Stage 4 CKD, and what are its clinical features?

A

eGFR 15–30 mL/min/1.73 m²; High likelihood of progression to ESRD.

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62
Q

What preparations are needed for Stage 4 CKD?

A

Prepare and educate regarding renal replacement therapy options, including dialysis and transplant.

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63
Q

What is the eGFR range for Stage 5 CKD, and what are its clinical features?

A

eGFR <15 mL/min/1.73 m²; Highest risk of requiring renal replacement therapy.

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64
Q

What does KDIGO use to classify CKD prognosis?

A

GFR categories (G1–G5) and albuminuria levels (A1–A3).

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65
Q

What is the significance of albuminuria in CKD?

A

A prognostic indicator for microvascular disease and endothelial dysfunction.

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66
Q

What does green signify in the KDIGO risk chart?

A

Low risk for CKD progression.

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67
Q

What does red signify in the KDIGO risk chart?

A

High risk for CKD progression.

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68
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of CKD affecting the body?

A

CKD affects every organ system, progressing to uremic syndrome in advanced stages.

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69
Q

What happens to GFR in healthy aging?

A

GFR declines by 1 mL/min per year starting in the 3rd decade of life.

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70
Q

What happens in Uremic Syndrome?

A

A constellation of signs and symptoms pointing to kidney failure, with toxins affecting other organ systems.

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71
Q

What are the metabolic effects of uremia?

A

Increased oxidant levels, reduced energy expenditure, insulin resistance, muscle wasting, and sexual dysfunction.

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72
Q

What neural and muscular symptoms are seen in uremia?

A

Fatigue, sleep disturbances, restless legs, peripheral neuropathy, and reduced muscle membrane potential.

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73
Q

What other symptoms can occur with uremia?

A

Serositis, hiccups, platelet dysfunction, shortened erythrocyte lifespan, and granulocyte dysfunction.

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74
Q

What are common etiologies of CKD?

A

Diabetic nephropathy, glomerulonephritis, hypertension-associated CKD, and polycystic kidney disease.

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75
Q

What are the renoprotective effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Lower systemic BP, lower glomerular pressure, increased renal blood flow, reduced proteinuria, and natriuretic effects.

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76
Q

What cardiovascular benefits do ACE inhibitors provide?

A

Inhibition of LV remodeling and reduction in cardiac workload.

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77
Q

What is the significance of BUN and creatinine in CKD?

A

They measure kidney excretory function but don’t account for all symptoms of uremia.

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78
Q

What are some uremic toxins aside from BUN and creatinine?

A

Middle molecules and other toxins not routinely measured contribute to CKD symptoms.

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79
Q

What is the role of albumin oxidation in CKD?

A

Contributes to systemic inflammation and progression of kidney damage.

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80
Q

What is the pathogenesis of progressive renal injury in CKD?

A

Nephron loss leads to chronic inflammation, glomerulosclerosis, and tubulointerstitial fibrosis.

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81
Q

Why is angiotensin II important in CKD pathophysiology?

A

Angiotensin II promotes glomerulosclerosis and fibrosis through hemodynamic and non-hemodynamic effects.

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82
Q

What are the systemic effects of CKD on the cardiovascular system?

A

Hypertension, LV hypertrophy, vascular calcification, and accelerated atherosclerosis.

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83
Q

What is the primary cause of hypertension and peripheral edema in CKD?

A

Sodium and water retention due to decreased sodium excretion.

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84
Q

What dietary advice is given to CKD patients to manage water and sodium balance?

A

Patients should restrict salt and water intake.

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85
Q

Why is blood pressure difficult to control in CKD patients, even on dialysis?

A

CKD disrupts sodium balance, leading to hypertension that often requires multiple medications.

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86
Q

What happens to sodium and water excretion in CKD patients with fluid loss (e.g., diarrhea)?

A

The kidneys fail to conserve sodium and water, leading to volume depletion.

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87
Q

What is the treatment for sodium and water retention in CKD?

A

Diuretics and water restriction.

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88
Q

What causes hyperkalemia in CKD?

A

Progressive decline in GFR reduces potassium excretion, leading to serum potassium accumulation.

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89
Q

What is the role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) in potassium balance?

A

RAAS activation increases aldosterone, promoting potassium excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts.

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90
Q

What treatments are available for chronic hyperkalemia?

A

Potassium-binding resins like Patiromer and Sodium Zirconium Cyclosilicate.

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91
Q

What causes metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

Failure of the kidneys to acidify urine, leading to retention of excess acids.

92
Q

What are the consequences of persistent metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

Increased protein catabolism, muscle wasting, and cachexia.

93
Q

How does hyperkalemia aggravate metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

Hyperkalemia suppresses ammonia formation, reducing acid excretion.

94
Q

What is the treatment for metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

Sodium bicarbonate supplementation to reduce protein catabolism and correct acidosis.

95
Q

What are the main bone-related complications in CKD?

A

Mineral bone disease and renal osteodystrophy.

96
Q

What defines CKD-Mineral Bone Disease (CKD-MBD)?

A

A systemic disorder of mineral and bone metabolism due to CKD, manifesting as abnormalities in calcium, phosphorus, PTH, or vitamin D metabolism, bone turnover, or vascular calcification.

97
Q

What is the hallmark lesion of secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica.

98
Q

What causes osteomalacia in CKD?

A

Reduced bone mineralization due to vitamin D deficiency.

99
Q

What is calciphylaxis, and why is it fatal?

A

Calciphylaxis is caused by calcium deposition in the vascular system, leading to ischemic necrosis and organ damage.

100
Q

What is the significance of vascular calcification in CKD?

A

It contributes to vascular occlusion, cardiovascular disease, and increased mortality.

101
Q

What is tumoral calcinosis in CKD?

A

Painful calcium deposits in soft tissues, often due to chronic hyperphosphatemia.

102
Q

What is the leading cause of death in CKD patients?

A

Cardiovascular disease (CVD).

103
Q

How does CKD increase the risk of CVD?

A

CKD causes inflammation, vascular calcification, and sympathetic overactivity, leading to complications like LVH and heart failure.

104
Q

What is uremic pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium in advanced CKD, often requiring dialysis as treatment.

105
Q

What is the target blood pressure for CKD patients with diabetes or proteinuria?

A

<130/80 mmHg.

106
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors and ARBs preferred for CKD management?

A

They slow the progression of kidney disease and reduce proteinuria.

107
Q

What causes anemia in CKD?

A

Relative erythropoietin deficiency, iron deficiency, and chronic inflammation.

108
Q

What is the treatment for anemia in CKD?

A

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) and iron supplementation.

109
Q

What is the role of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) in CKD?

A

ESAs stimulate red blood cell production to reduce the need for blood transfusions.

110
Q

What is the ideal target hemoglobin level in CKD patients on ESA therapy?

A

102–110 g/L.

111
Q

What is the bat-wing appearance in CKD-related pulmonary edema?

A

Alveolar fluid accumulation seen in imaging, caused by increased permeability of pulmonary capillaries.

112
Q

Why is hypertension common in CKD patients?

A

Early disruption of sodium and water balance leads to increased blood pressure and LV hypertrophy.

113
Q

How does CKD exacerbate heart failure?

A

Anemia and hypertension increase the workload on the heart, leading to cardiac complications.

114
Q

What is the impact of RAAS activation in CKD?

A

It leads to vascular constriction, increased BP, and progression of kidney damage.

115
Q

Why are CKD patients at higher risk of sudden cardiac death?

A

Electrolyte imbalances, LV hypertrophy, and intradialytic hypotension contribute to arrhythmias.

116
Q

What are the common hematologic complications in CKD?

A

Abnormal bleeding time (diathesis) and coagulopathy, often manifested as excessive bleeding.

117
Q

What are the neurologic complications of CKD?

A

CNS issues (confusion, sleep disturbances, seizures), neuromuscular problems (cramps, hiccups, muscle twitching), and peripheral neuropathy.

118
Q

What is the efficiency of dialysis compared to normal kidney function?

A

Dialysis functions at approximately 5% of the capacity of a normal kidney.

119
Q

What are the GI complications in CKD?

A

Abdominal pain, mucosal ulceration, GI bleeding, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss.

120
Q

Why might insulin doses need adjustment in CKD?

A

Decreased clearance of insulin leads to higher insulin levels in the blood.

121
Q

What are the endocrine effects of CKD in women?

A

Low estrogen levels, menstrual abnormalities, infertility, and difficulties in pregnancy.

122
Q

What are the endocrine effects of CKD in men?

A

Low testosterone levels and sexual dysfunction, though some dialysis patients may exhibit a high libido.

123
Q

What is nephrogenic systemic fibrosis?

A

A systemic induration of subcutaneous tissue, usually after gadolinium contrast exposure in patients with GFR <30.

124
Q

What causes dark skin pigmentation in CKD patients?

A

Deposition of urochromes due to retained pigment metabolites, even in dialysis.

125
Q

What are the key lab investigations for CKD?

A

CBC, creatinine, BUN, electrolytes, ABG, urinalysis, and specific tests like serum electrophoresis or kidney biopsy.

126
Q

What is renal scintigraphy used for?

A

To assess kidney function, anatomy, and pathology using radioactive tracers like Tc-99m DTPA or Tc-99m DMSA.

127
Q

What is the most useful imaging test for kidneys?

A

Renal ultrasound.

128
Q

What are the exceptions where CKD may not cause shrunken kidneys?

A

Diabetes, amyloidosis, HIV, and APKD (autosomal polycystic kidney disease).

129
Q

What does the KDIGO classification system provide for CKD?

A

Risk stratification and a framework for guiding management through CKD stages.

130
Q

What lifestyle changes are recommended for CKD patients?

A

Smoking cessation, weight loss, and dietary sodium restriction.

131
Q

What is the first-line antihypertensive therapy for CKD with albuminuria?

A

ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs).

132
Q

What are the dietary recommendations for CKD patients?

A

Low sodium (<5g/day), potassium restriction (if CKD stage 3-5), and phosphorus reduction.

133
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for CKD patients?

A

0.8g/kg/day.

134
Q

What is calciphylaxis, and why is it dangerous in CKD?

A

Calcium buildup in the vascular system leading to ischemic necrosis and high fatality.

135
Q

What is the significance of hyperkalemia in CKD?

A

It results from reduced potassium excretion due to declining GFR, leading to fatal complications if untreated.

136
Q

What treatments are available for chronic hyperkalemia?

A

Potassium-binding resins like Patiromer or Sodium Zirconium Cyclosilicate.

137
Q

What causes metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

Failure of the kidneys to excrete excess acids, leading to retention of protons.

138
Q

What is the treatment for metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

Sodium bicarbonate supplementation.

139
Q

What are the bone complications of CKD?

A

Mineral bone disease, renal osteodystrophy, and vascular calcifications.

140
Q

What is the hallmark lesion of secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica.

141
Q

What is renal replacement therapy (RRT)?

A

Therapies like hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and kidney transplantation to replace kidney function.

142
Q

What is Conservative Kidney Management (CKM)?

A

Symptomatic treatment for CKD patients who decline or cannot afford RRT.

143
Q

What are the dietary restrictions for CKD patients?

A

Low sodium, phosphorus, and potassium (if CKD stage 3-5); emphasis on plant-based proteins and whole foods.

144
Q

What is the effect of intraglomerular hypertension in CKD?

A

It leads to maladaptive changes, accelerating kidney damage.

145
Q

Which medications need dose adjustments in CKD?

A

Drugs excreted or metabolized by kidneys, e.g., antibiotics (penicillin, cephalosporins) and metformin.

146
Q

What is the role of ACE inhibitors/ARBs in CKD management?

A

They slow CKD progression by reducing intraglomerular hypertension and proteinuria.

147
Q

What is the target BP for CKD patients with diabetes or proteinuria?

A

<130/80 mmHg.

148
Q

What are the indications to start dialysis in CKD?

A

Symptoms like uremic syndrome, volume overload, or persistent electrolyte abnormalities.

149
Q

What is uremic pericarditis?

A

A complication of advanced CKD, characterized by chest pain and pericardial friction rub.

150
Q

What is the most common cause of death in CKD patients?

A

Cardiovascular disease.

151
Q

What is the bat-wing appearance in pulmonary edema related to CKD?

A

Alveolar fluid accumulation seen in imaging, caused by capillary permeability changes.

152
Q

What are the risk factors for CKD progression?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, poor glycemic control, and lifestyle factors like smoking.

153
Q

What is the importance of serial creatinine monitoring in CKD?

A

It helps detect progression or sudden changes in kidney function.

154
Q

What is the clinical benefit of starting renal replacement therapy (RRT) early in asymptomatic CKD patients?

A

There is no clinical or mortality benefit compared to starting RRT when symptoms of uremia appear.

155
Q

What is the most ideal form of renal replacement therapy (RRT) for CKD patients?

A

Kidney transplantation (KT) as it replaces all kidney functions, unlike dialysis which only manages excretory functions.

156
Q

What is preemptive dialysis?

A

Dialysis initiated before symptoms appear; it does not guarantee survival benefits over starting dialysis with clear indications.

157
Q

When should CKD patients be educated about RRT?

A

Before reaching CKD stage 5 and the onset of uremic symptoms.

158
Q

What dietary restrictions are suggested for CKD patients with fluid overload?

A

Salt <2.4 g/day; water intake depends on urine volume.

159
Q

What dietary adjustments are suggested for CKD patients with hyperkalemia?

A

Avoid high potassium intake, stop RAAS inhibitors, correct acidosis, and use potassium exchangers.

160
Q

What is the target calcium and phosphate balance in CKD patients?

A

Calcium × phosphate product <55 mg²/mL², phosphate <4.5 mg/dL, and total elemental calcium <2,000 mg/day.

161
Q

What are the monitoring intervals for calcium and phosphate levels in CKD?

A

CKD 3: every 6-12 months; CKD 4: every 3-6 months; CKD 5: every 1-3 months.

162
Q

What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A

Correct hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, and use calcimimetics, calcitriol, or vitamin D analogs.

163
Q

What are the hemoglobin monitoring intervals for CKD patients?

A

CKD 3: annually; CKD 4-5ND: every 6 months; CKD 5D: every 3 months.

164
Q

What is the iron treatment threshold for CKD patients?

A

TSAT <30% and ferritin <500 ng/mL warrant iron therapy.

165
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for non-dialysis CKD patients?

A

0.7–0.8 g/kg of ideal body weight/day.

166
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for dialysis patients?

A

1.2 g/kg of ideal body weight/day.

167
Q

What is the dietary potassium recommendation for CKD stage 3 and 4 patients?

A

2–4 g/day, adjusted as tolerated.

168
Q

What are the dietary phosphorus restrictions for CKD patients?

A

<800 mg/day, with an emphasis on plant-based sources over animal-based sources.

169
Q

What is the target blood pressure for CKD patients with proteinuria?

A

<130/80 mmHg.

170
Q

What is the target hemoglobin level for CKD patients on ESA therapy?

A

10–11.5 g/dL; stop ESA if hemoglobin exceeds 13 g/dL.

171
Q

What lifestyle recommendations are important for CKD patients?

A

Smoking cessation, moderate exercise (30–60 min/day, 4–7 days/week), and a DASH diet with <5 g/day salt.

172
Q

What are the dietary strategies to minimize CKD progression?

A

Reduce dietary acid load, emphasize plant-based foods, and minimize red meat and processed food intake.

173
Q

What is the role of SGLT2 inhibitors in CKD management?

A

They provide renal and cardiovascular protection, even in non-diabetic patients.

174
Q

What are the complications of hyperkalemia in CKD?

A

Hyperkalemia can lead to fatal arrhythmias if not managed effectively.

175
Q

What is the importance of dietary fiber in CKD?

A

≥25 g/day of fiber helps maintain a healthy gut microbiome and reduces uremic toxin production.

176
Q

What are the goals for anemia management in CKD?

A

Maintain hemoglobin levels between 10–11.5 g/dL, treat with ESA and iron, and avoid red cell transfusions unless urgent.

177
Q

What is the significance of dietary sodium restriction in CKD?

A

It helps control blood pressure, reduces fluid retention, and slows CKD progression.

178
Q

What are signs of irreversible kidney damage in CKD?

A

Glomerulosclerosis, fibrosis, and tubular injury.

179
Q

What is the role of plant-based diets in CKD?

A

They reduce CKD progression, minimize uremic symptoms, and improve overall mortality risk.

180
Q

What are the main mechanisms driving CKD progression?

A

Glomerular capillary hypertension, proteinuria, tubulointerstitial fibrosis, oxidative stress, and acidosis.

181
Q

What are the therapeutic goals for renoprotection in CKD?

A

Reduce glomerular capillary pressure, manage metabolic acidosis, and use RAAS or SGLT2 inhibitors.

182
Q

When is renal scintigraphy indicated in CKD?

A

To assess kidney function, anatomy, or earlier kidney injuries using radioactive tracers.

183
Q

What are the key findings in nephron loss in CKD?

A

Progressive nephron loss leads to maladaptive glomerular hypertrophy and hypertension, further accelerating damage.

184
Q

What is the importance of early preparation for RRT in CKD stage 4?

A

Educating patients about RRT options helps them make informed decisions before reaching end-stage renal disease.

185
Q

What is the dietary protein recommendation to delay CKD progression?

A

0.7–0.8 g/kg/day for non-dialysis patients and incorporating plant-based protein sources.

186
Q

What are common dietary interventions to manage CKD-related complications?

A

Low sodium, potassium restriction (if indicated), phosphorus limitation, and plant-based diets.

187
Q

What is the primary dietary recommendation for CKD patients with mineral and bone disorders?

A

Restrict phosphate intake to <800–1,000 mg/day and maintain calcium-phosphate balance.

188
Q

What is the role of probiotics in CKD management?

A

Probiotics help correct gut dysbiosis, promoting kidney health by reducing uremic toxin production.

189
Q

What are the indications for referral to a nephrologist in CKD?

A

Proteinuria >0.5 g/day, rapid GFR decline, and advanced CKD (stage 4-5).

190
Q

What is the impact of metabolic acidosis in CKD?

A

It accelerates protein catabolism, muscle wasting, and CKD progression.

191
Q

What dietary approach minimizes net endogenous acid production in CKD?

A

Promote plant-based, base-producing fruits and vegetables while minimizing animal-based protein.

192
Q

What is the goal of CKD management with RAAS inhibitors?

A

Reduce proteinuria, intraglomerular pressure, and slow CKD progression.

193
Q

What is the typical course of GFR and UAE in diabetic kidney disease (DKD)?

A

GFR may peak in prediabetes or shortly after diabetes diagnosis, and UAE remains normal during the silent period, but GFR loss accelerates with macroalbuminuria.

194
Q

What is whole-kidney hyperfiltration in DKD?

A

A GFR exceeding approximately 135 mL/min.

195
Q

Why is albuminuria not a sensitive marker for early DKD?

A

Albuminuria remains normal during the silent period, while DKD lesions progress subclinically.

196
Q

What is the role of kidney biopsy in DKD?

A

Provides insights into the severity and prognosis of DKD but has limited predictive value for early progression to ESKD.

197
Q

What are biomarkers available in the Philippines for tubular damage?

A

Cystatin C and NGAL.

198
Q

What does ‘glucose memory’ refer to in DKD?

A

Persistent epigenetic changes causing diabetic complications even after normalization of hyperglycemia.

199
Q

What is the main focus of new treatment strategies for DKD?

A

Targeting beyond glycemia, including pathways involving epigenetics, inflammation, and fibrosis.

200
Q

What factors contribute to glomerular hyperfiltration in diabetes?

A

Reduced afferent arteriolar resistance, increased efferent resistance, and hormonal influences like glucagon and vasopressin.

201
Q

What is the effect of intensive glucose control on kidney outcomes?

A

Reduces ESKD risk but compliance is challenging, especially in older or acutely ill patients.

202
Q

What are the classes of diabetic kidney disease based on glomerular lesions?

A

Class I: Mild/nonspecific changes; Class IIa: Mild mesangial expansion; Class IIb: Severe mesangial expansion; Class III: Nodular sclerosis; Class IV: Advanced diabetic glomerulosclerosis.

203
Q

What is the significance of mesangial expansion in DKD?

A

Severe mesangial expansion is associated with advanced DKD and progressive GFR decline.

204
Q

What is the effect of SGLT2 inhibitors in DKD?

A

Improves GFR and provides renal and cardiovascular protection even in non-diabetic patients.

205
Q

What are potential limitations of metformin in DKD?

A

Requires dose modification or discontinuation at low eGFR (<30 mL/min) due to increased risk of lactic acidosis.

206
Q

Why are sulfonylureas risky in DKD?

A

They increase the risk of hypoglycemia due to active metabolite accumulation.

207
Q

What are the risks of thiazolidinediones in DKD?

A

Cause fluid retention and increased risk of congestive heart failure.

208
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

Promote glucose excretion through urine, reducing hyperglycemia and renal damage.

209
Q

What is the relationship between CKD, diabetes, and hypoglycemia?

A

CKD patients with diabetes have the highest risk of severe hypoglycemia due to reduced renal insulin clearance.

210
Q

What is the role of RAAS blockers in DKD management?

A

Reduce proteinuria, glomerular capillary pressure, and slow progression of kidney damage.

211
Q

What is the dietary recommendation for protein intake in DKD?

A

0.7–0.8 g/kg/day for non-dialysis patients and ketoanalogue supplementation to prevent malnutrition.

212
Q

What are emerging therapeutic targets in DKD?

A

Epigenetics, inflammation pathways, endothelin antagonists, and advanced glycation end product inhibitors.

213
Q

What are key lifestyle recommendations for DKD patients?

A

Control blood pressure, reduce dietary sodium, exercise regularly, and avoid smoking.

214
Q

What are the primary goals of DKD management?

A

Slow progression to ESKD, reduce cardiovascular risk, and manage complications like anemia and metabolic acidosis.

215
Q

What is the significance of early transplant referral in DKD?

A

Preserves residual renal function and prepares patients for timely renal replacement therapy.

216
Q

What are the frequent challenges in managing diabetic patients with renal failure?

A

Hypertension, hypervolemia, glycemic control, malnutrition, and cardiovascular comorbidities.

217
Q

What are potential benefits of ketoanalogue-supplemented diets in CKD?

A

Ameliorate metabolic disturbances, reduce proteinuria, optimize BP control, and delay RRT initiation.

218
Q

What are the benefits of SGLT2 inhibitors beyond glycemic control?

A

Reduce cardiovascular events, death, and progression of kidney disease.

219
Q

What are the effects of hypoglycemia on DKD patients?

A

Increases risk of cardiovascular events and complicates glucose management.

220
Q

What is the new LDL target for DKD patients?

A

LDL <70 mg/dL, updated from <100 mg/dL.

221
Q

What drugs are currently being tested for DKD treatment?

A

Vitamin D receptor agonists, pentoxifylline, allopurinol, endothelin antagonists, and SGLT2 inhibitors.

222
Q

What is the role of finerenone in DKD?

A

A mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist that enhances RAAS blocker effects without increasing potassium levels.

223
Q

What is the impact of oxidative stress in DKD progression?

A

Leads to inflammation, fibrosis, and glomerular damage.

224
Q

What are non-hemodynamic factors in DKD progression?

A

Proteinuria, tubulointerstitial fibrosis, acidosis, and oxidative stress.

225
Q

What are the benefits of ACE inhibitors and ARBs in DKD?

A

They reduce glomerular hypertension and albuminuria, slowing kidney disease progression.

226
Q

What is the importance of understanding CKD mechanisms?

A

To develop multifactorial strategies for renoprotection and block CKD progression pathways at multiple points.