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Eyes & Dermatology > Chronic Eye Conditions > Flashcards

Chronic Eye Conditions Flashcards

Module 1B

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1
Q

Patients 65+ without risk factors for eye disease should have a comprehensive eye exam, how often?

A

Every 1-2 years

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2
Q

Patients with type 1 diabetes should have a comprehensive eye exam, how often?

A

3-5 years after diagnosis, then every 1 year

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3
Q

Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a comprehensive eye exam, how often?

A

At time of diagnosis, then every 1 year

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4
Q

Patients that are pregnant with diabetes should have a comprehensive eye exam, how often?

A

Before conception, early in first trimester, and 1 year postpartum

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5
Q

Sildenafil, used for the treatment of ED, can cause

A

Cyanosis, blue tinted vision

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6
Q

Timolol can exacerbate

A

Bradycardia and asthma

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7
Q

What 2 disorders affect the optic nerve?

A

Papilledema, glaucoma

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8
Q

What 2 disorders affect the retina?

A

Macular degeneration and retinopathy

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9
Q

Glaucoma results in what kind of vision loss?

A

Peripheral (tunnel vision)

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10
Q

Macular degeneration leads to loss of what kind of vision loss?

A

Central (metamorphopsia)

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11
Q

AMD is most symptomatic when involving the

A

Central macula

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12
Q

What is the leading cause of vision loss for older adults?

A

AMD

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13
Q

What is the most common form of macular degeneration?

A

Dry - usually affects both eyes

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14
Q

Dry/atrophic MD is characterized by

A

Yellow fatty deposits (drusen) and pigmentary changes to the retinal epithelium

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15
Q

Wet MD is characterized by

A

Choroidal neovascularization

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16
Q

Typically, a person first has what kind of MD before wet?

A

Dry

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17
Q

What is the number one risk factor for macular degeneration?

A

Age

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18
Q

Macular degeneration is more common in which gender and race?

A

Females, caucasian

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19
Q

What value BMI is 2.5 times more likely to develop AMD?

A

> 30

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20
Q

What are the 4 diagnostic tests for macular degeneration?

A

Direct ophthalmoscopy (dilated), fundus exam with slit lamp, rapid-sequence fluorescein angiography (FA), optical coherence tomography (OCT)

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21
Q

If identified early, what may be helpful in reducing the speed of progression of MD?

A

Antioxidant vitamins and minerals

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22
Q

A referral to optometry and/or ophthalmology may lead to evaluation that includes

A

Dilated retinal exam, vision testing, and Amsler grid

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23
Q

the AREDS 9-step severity scale and simplified 5-step severity scale use what 2 characteristics to determine a risk score?

A

Drusen size and pigmentary abnormalities

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24
Q

What is the treatment for neovascular/wet AMD?

A

Anti-VEGF injections and PDT (alternative or adjunct)

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25
Q

What is the treatment for atrophic/dry AMD?

A

Vision rehabilitation

26
Q

The AREDS supplement formula used in intermediate AMD contains

A

Vitamin C, lutein, vitamin E, zeaxanthin, and zinc

27
Q

What 3 intravitreal injections are used in wet AMD?

A

Avastin (bevacizumab), Lucentis (ranibizumab), and Eylea (aflibercept)

28
Q

Retinopathy is usually associated with what 3 diseases?

A

Sickle cell, HTN, DM

29
Q

What ethnicities are at risk for retinopathy?

A

AAs, hispanic, or native americans

30
Q

What are 4 complications of retinopathy?

A

Vitreous hemorrhage, retinal detachment, glaucoma, vision loss/blindness

31
Q

What are 4 treatments for retinopathy?

A

VEGF inhibitors, vitrectomy, panretinal photocoagulation, and photocoagulation

32
Q

What is the most common form of retinopathy?

A

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

33
Q

What are clinical features of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

Microaneurysms, intraretinal hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and hard exudates

34
Q

Venous tortuosity (capillary dropout and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities) occurs in

A

NPDR/background retinopathy

35
Q

Proliferative retinopathy is severe and is characterized by

A

Abnormal neovascularization

36
Q

Papilledema causes

A

Visual disturbances, headaches, and nausea

37
Q

Papilledema indicates

A

Increased ICP

38
Q

Pseudotumor cerebra can cause papilledema and is most commonly seen in

A

Women in their 40s, fair-skinned, blonde

39
Q

Papilledema requires

A

Immediate referral to ED

40
Q

Open-angle glaucoma is often asymptomatic and can lead to a loss of

A

Peripheral vision

41
Q

Acute angle-closure glaucoma is rapid/acute and causes

A

Eye pain, vision loss, seeing halos around lights, erythema, nausea/vomiting

42
Q

What medications are risk factors for glaucoma?

A

Steroids, anticholinergics, OTC cold remedies, Drugs for bladder control, seizures, depression/anxiety

43
Q

What ethnic descent is at risk of glaucoma?

A

AAs, Irish, Russian, Japanese, hispanic, Inuit, or scandinavian

44
Q

What are some risk factors for glaucoma?

A

Over 40 years of age, family history, nearsighted/farsighted, comorbidities

45
Q

What diagnostic tool is used to measure the pressure within the eye?

A

Tonometry

46
Q

Gonioscopy is used to see the angle in the eye where

A

The iris meets the cornea

47
Q

Pachymetry is used to measure

A

The thickness of the cornea

48
Q

Glaucoma affects the role of

A

Aqueous humor

49
Q

Which type of glaucoma is the most common?

A

Open angle glaucoma

50
Q

Glaucoma leads to decreased peripheral vision due to

A

Optic nerve damage

51
Q

Open-angle glaucoma presents with IOP greater than

A

21mmHg (trabecular meshwork doesn’t drain properly)

52
Q

Angle-closure glaucoma (closed) is sudden and painful due to the iris being squeezed against the cornea which

A

Blocks uveoscleral drains and trabecular meshwork

53
Q

What drugs are used for initial and maintenance therapy of glaucoma?

A

BBs: Timolol (non-selective) *could worsen asthma
Betaxolol (selective)

54
Q

Which beta-blocker is preferred in asthma/COPD patients?

A

Betaxolol

55
Q

First line agents for glaucoma treatment include

A

BBs, prostaglandin analogues, and alpha-adrenergic agonists

56
Q

BBs are used to treat glaucoma to decrease

A

Aqueous humor production

57
Q

Prostaglandin analogues are beta-selective and include

A

Latanoprost (xalatan) which increases drainage

58
Q

Alpha-adrenergic agonists such as Briminodine (alphagan P) are used to

A

Decrease aqueous humor production

59
Q

What are second line drugs used for glaucoma?

A

Cholinergic agonists (miotics) Pilocarpine (Salagen) - increases drainage
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Acetazolamide (Diamox) - decreases production

60
Q

Topamax and Bactrim could

A

Worsen glaucoma

61
Q

What are symptoms of cataracts?

A

Decreased vision, sensitivity to light/glare, night drive difficulty, difficulty reading

Eyes & Dermatology (7 decks)

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