CHRL Knowledge Exam Flashcards
__________ is the interdisciplinary approach to designing equipment and systems so that they can easily be used without causing injury.
Ergonomics
Under occupational health and safety legislation, workers have the following responsibilities EXCEPT:
a) Comply with all acts and regulations
b) Report hazardous conditions and defective equipment
c) Wear protective equipment, where necessary
d) Work first and report hazardous conditions later
d) Work first and report hazardous conditions later
A mine worker who inhales hazardous substances would be reported as having:
a) An occupational injury
b) An industrial disease
c) An acute disease
d) A workplace accident
b) An industrial disease
All of the following workplace conditions increase the risk of violence EXCEPT FOR:
a) Working in groups in isolated conditions
b) Working nights
c) Handling cash
d) Denying clients requests
a) Working in groups in isolated conditions
An intern was burned when she touched a hazardous material not knowing what it was. This incident could have been avoided if the company had a program called:
a) VDT
b) QWL
c) WHMIS
d) TQM
c) WHMIS
Keith is an alcoholic and his supervisor would like to support his recovery. Which of the following programs will help him to do this?
a) A wellness program
b) A graduated return to work program
c) A stress management program
d) An employee assistance program
d) An employee assistance program
Zabeen is a very efficient software analyst, but recently there was a noticeable increase in errors on the documents she produced. Zabeen may be exhibiting signs of:
a) Alarm reaction
b) Eustress
c) Depression
d) Carpel tunnel syndrome
c) Depression
Organizations offer ______ to prevent productivity losses from depression, anxiety, substance abuse and stress.
a) Employee counselling
b) Employee assistance programs
c) Employee coaching
d) Employee transfers
b) Employee assistance programs
On the job alcoholism is considered:
a) A disciplinary matter
b) A personal matter
c) A psychosocial matter
d) A disability
d) A disability
Depression is manifested in the workplace by these symptoms:
a) Loss of emotional integrity
b) Increased voluntary employee turnover
c) Heightened concentration
d) Increased accidents and sick days
d) Increased accidents and sick days
Bill C-45 is a legislation that:
a) Requires managers to inform workers of unsafe work conditions
b) Allows for prosecution of decision-makers for criminal negligence regarding OH&S
c) Ensures no-fault compensation for workplace accidents
d) Gives workers the right to refuse unsafe work
b) Allows for prosecution of decision-makers for criminal negligence regarding OH&S
An approaching deadline is causing employees to work harder. As a result, productivity has increased; however, you are concerned that it may not be sustainable. Which of the following describes what the employees are feeling?
a) Distress
b) Chronic stress
c) Acute stress
d) Eustress
d) Eustress
All of the following are potential signs of depression EXCEPT:
a) Hostility
b) Alcohol abuse
c) Hyperactive or nervous behaviour
d) Extreme dependence on others
c) Hyperactive or nervous behaviour
Which of the following would NOT qualify for a workers’ compensation claim?
a) A person being injured on the way to an employment interview
b) A company truck driver having an accident after work hours while returning the company vehicle to its parking lot
c) A manager being injured while travelling out of province to a business meeting
d) A person being injured while volunteering at your workplace
a) A person being injured on the way to an employment interview
Who is responsible for safety in the workplace?
a) Management and workers
b) The government, unions, management, and workers
c) The government and management
d) Unions and management
b) The government, unions, management, and workers
Cumulative trauma disorders are likely to occur in which of the following occupations?
a) Postal delivery person
b) Retail sales clerk
c) Construction foreman
d) Data entry clerk
d) Data entry clerk
Employee depression results in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Substance abuse
b) Job burnout
c) Absenteeism
d) Low productivity
b) Job burnout
Which of the following is a severe stage of distress?
a) Eustress
b) Acute stress
c) Burnout
d) Alarm reaction
c) Burnout
If your department practices incremental budgeting, this means:
a) Budgets are set based on activities.
b) Budgets are made based on line items.
c) Budgets are set from scratch every year.
d) Budgets are based on the previous year’s budget.
d) Budgets are based on the previous year’s budget.
A variable cost is a cost that:
a) Fluctuates in accordance with a change in activity
b) Increases and decreases with inflation
c) Escalates over time
d) Is difficult to budget for
a) Fluctuates in accordance with a change in activity
Your organization has 550 permanent employees and 35 casual employees. Their compensations are considered to be:
a) Fixed and variable costs
b) Overhead costs
c) Activity-based costs
d) Capital costs
a) Fixed and variable costs
Which of the following information is NOT recorded on a balance sheet?
a) Gross profit
b) Physical assets
c) Liabilities
d) Goodwill
a) Gross profit
Which of the following describes a company’s debt ratio?
a) Current liabilities divided by current assets excluding inventory
b) Total debt divided by total assets
c) Outstanding loans against current liquid assets
d) Current assets against current liabilities
b) Total debt divided by total assets
An organization that makes kitchenware has decided to sell off all of its linens. The cost of the linens was $15,000, and it was able to sell them for $25,000. This means that the company has:
a) Realized a $10,000 annual profit
b) Increased its inventory value by $10,000
c) Increased its equity by $10,000
d) Reduced its liability by $15,000
c) Increased its equity by $10,000
Loan Bean Coffee Shop has monthly expenses amounting to $85,000. Each month, coffee beans cost approximately $35,000. The cost of coffee beans is:
a) A variable expense
b) A fixed expense
c) A cash flow
d) An asset
a) A variable expense
An example of a fixed cost for an HR department would be:
a) In-house HRIS administration costs
b) Recruitment advertising costs
c) Employee orientation costs
d) Employee service award costs
a) In-house HRIS administration costs
A company’s statement of cash flows is also known as:
a) The income statement
b) The balance sheet
c) The statement of changes in financial position
d) The variance report
c) The statement of changes in financial position
You have started an HR consulting firm with a colleague. You each deposit $10,000 in the business account to cover costs such as office space and business cards. The initial deposit is considered to be:
a) Owners’ goodwill
b) Owners’ equity
c) Owners’ assets
d) Owners’ expense
b) Owners’ equity
The main purpose of the HR department’s budget is to:
a) Plan and control spending
b) Track the ROI of HR programs
c) Identify cost over-runs and short-falls
d) Communicate the value of human capital
a) Plan and control spending
From a financial perspective, an example of a company’s goodwill is:
a) The value of stock-options payable to employees
b) The positive variance between actual and budgeted costs
c) The intangible value of its brand name
d) The commitment to abide by ethical financial practices
c) The intangible value of its brand name
Jean, the new HR manager, decided that she will evaluate each and every expense item before including them into this year’s budget. Which budgeting model is she using?
a) Zero-based budget
b) Fixed-plus budget
c) Incremental budget
d) Variable budget
a) Zero-based budget
What are financial variances?
a) The differences between budgeted and actual amounts
b) The costs that fluctuate with a change in activity
c) The differences between annual costs and annual revenues
d) The inflationary adjustments applied to incremental budgets
a) The differences between budgeted and actual amounts
Experts say the first step in choosing an HRIS is for HR personnel to:
a) Research the features of competitive systems
b) Determine the technology platform that best fits the organization’s technical infrastructure
c) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis
d) Prepare a budget for the project
c) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis
The primary purpose of an HR audit is to:
a) Measure HR department program performance against pre-established goals.
b) Establish standards against which department performance can be compared and improved
c) Establish a balance of measures to show HR’s contribution to organization performance
d) Assess how well the HR department is performing against “best practices”
a) Measure HR department program performance against pre-established goals.
In order to better understand the career movements that occur within your organization, you would:
a) Create a selection spreadsheet
b) Conduct a Markov analysis
c) Engage linear programming
d) Determine labour supply and demand
b) Conduct a Markov analysis
An analysis of your recent practices indicates that your current cumulative yield ratio is 20 percent. Which of the following best explains this outcome?
a) 20% of employees are at or above the job rate of their pay band.
b) Three out of every 15 grievances are settled without going to arbitration.
c) The return on investment for a recent training program was 20% of the total training cost.
d) Four out of 20 applicants who applied to a recent on-line job posting were qualified.
d) Four out of 20 applicants who applied to a recent on-line job posting were qualified.
When determining your organization’s “quality-of-hire” statistics, which of the following variables will NOT be considered?
a) Percentage of new hires with acceptable productivity within an acceptable time frame
b) Percentage of new hires retained after a one year period
c) Percentage of all applicants found to be qualified candidates
d) Average annual job performance of new hires
c) Percentage of all applicants found to be qualified candidates
Which of the following will identify the most effective external recruitment source?
a) Yield ratio
b) Average cost per hire formula
c) Realistic job previews
d) Average time to hire
a) Yield ratio
Three hundred applicants for 25 positions would yield a selection ratio of:
a) 12
b) 0.12
c) 0.08
d) 8
c) 0.08
If you were asked to rate an employee on this item, “Formulates specific objectives for each contract”, using a range of “1 – almost never” to “5 – almost always”, you would be using:
a) A behaviourally anchored rating scale
b) A behaviour observation scale
c) A behaviour checklist
d) A forced-choice method
b) A behaviour observation scale
Your organization is interested in benchmarking employees’ views of organizational effectiveness. The most effective way to do this would be through:
a) Employee focus groups
b) Employee involvement team
c) Employee task forces
d) Employee climate surveys
d) Employee climate surveys
Which of the following is NOT a primary impact that technology has had on HRM?
a) Lower HR administration costs
b) Connecting people with each other and with the HR data they need
c) Changed the role of supervisors in managing employees
d) Transformed the way HR processes are designed and executed
c) Changed the role of supervisors in managing employees
Which of the following evaluations will indicate whether employees understood the material presented in a recent training course?
a) Reaction evaluation
b) Learning evaluation
c) Behaviour evaluation
d) Results evaluation
b) Learning evaluation
Donald Kirkpatrick’s four levels of evaluation are:
a) Pre-test, intervention, post-test, return on investment
b) Understand, apply, analyze, evaluate
c) Reaction, learning, behaviour, results
d) Recall, compilation, experimentation, application
c) Reaction, learning, behaviour, results
When conducting a training needs analysis, the process includes:
a) An organizational analysis, a task analysis, and a person analysis
b) A performance analysis, a skills analysis, and a cost analysis
c) An employee analysis, a job analysis, and a curriculum analysis
d) An environmental analysis, an operational analysis, and a performance analysis
a) An organizational analysis, a task analysis, and a person analysis
Which of the following statements about employment termination is true?
a) Wrongful dismissal arises from a lawsuit.
b) Constructive dismissal arises from a violation of employment standards.
c) Summary dismissal is accompanied by a notice period.
d) An employee’s employment can only be terminated with just cause.
a) Wrongful dismissal arises from a lawsuit.
As a result of a downsizing, Joe’s employment was terminated with two weeks’ pay in lieu of notice. This could be an example of:
a) A summary dismissal
b) A dismissal with cause
c) A wrongful dismissal
d) A dismissal without cause
d) A dismissal without cause
As a result of an employee’s complaint about being unfairly treated, the employee and employer have agreed to engage a third party to hear both sides and make a binding decision. Which of the following dispute resolution processes best describes this situation?
a) Arbitration
b) Mediation
c) Ombudsperson review
d) Peer-review system
a) Arbitration
Under a positive discipline process, to correct performance problems, managers will issue ___________ to employees to improve their unacceptable performance.
a) Warnings
b) Reprimands
c) Policies
d) Reminders
d) Reminders
Who determines whether a proposed bargaining unit is appropriate?
a) Mediator
b) Labour relations board
c) Union leaders
d) Employer
b) Labour relations board
A decision-making leave is usually one of the last steps in:
a) A dispute resolution
b) A conflict of interest
c) A progressive discipline process
d) A positive discipline process
d) A positive discipline process
The principal role of the union steward is to:
a) Negotiate and administer the collective agreement
b) Represent the interests of bargaining unit members
c) Organize certification drives
d) Coordinate the grievance handling process
b) Represent the interests of bargaining unit members
Which of the following dispute resolution terms applies to a situation in which a neutral third party is employed to help employees and managers come to a voluntary agreement?
a) Ombudsperson
b) Intervention
c) Arbitration
d) Mediation
d) Mediation
A unionized employee is likely to use which of the following complaint procedures?
a) A step-review system
b) A hearing officer complaint system
c) A peer-review system
d) Mediation
a) A step-review system
As a result of a recent restructuring, Air Canada will need to terminate some exempt customer service employee. Which of the following employment laws will govern how Air Canada handles these terminations?
a) Public Service Staff Relations Act
b) Common Law and Canada Labour Code
c) Canada Labour Code
d) Ontario Employment Standards Act
b) Common Law and Canada Labour Code
When a certification drive is in process, management should avoid which of the following?
a) Discussing the union drive with employees
b) Discussing the union drive with managers and supervisors
c) Communicating the potential impact of unionization to employees
d) Providing new incentives to employees
d) Providing new incentives to employees
Decertification occurs when:
a) The union no longer wants to represent the employees.
b) The employer applies to the Labour Relations Board to remove the union.
c) The bargaining unit becomes too small to represent.
d) Employees apply to the Labour Relations Board to remove the union.
d) Employees apply to the Labour Relations Board to remove the union.
During a legal strike, the main purpose of picketing includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Hampering the employer’s efforts to run its operations
b) Encouraging wild-cat strikes of other unions that also have workers at that site
c) Discouraging the movement of products and supplies across the premises
d) Providing information to the public and those required to cross the picket line
b) Encouraging wild-cat strikes of other unions that also have workers at that site
The union begins bargaining for a 9% wage increase but has a bottom line of 5%. The organization’s limit is 6% but begins negotiating at 3%. The bargaining zone is:
a) 0.03
b) 0.06
c) 0.01
d) 0.04
c) 0.01
You have just learned your employees have filed an application for union certification. The management team is holding a town hall to open up lines of communication. Which of the following should they avoid addressing?
a) The employer’s willingness and desire to deal directly with employees
b) The employees’ right to choose to be non-unionized
c) The employer’s openness to improving working conditions
d) That employees who join unions pay union dues
c) The employer’s openness to improving working conditions
There are two ways in which unions can become certified in Canada. They are mandatory ballot and __________.
a) Bargaining unit roll-call
b) Card-check
c) Involuntary recognition
d) Industry practice
b) Card-check
Which of the following collective bargaining dispute resolution processes will most likely shrink the gap between the union’s demands and the employer’s offer?
a) Expedited arbitration
b) Mediation
c) Final offer arbitration
d) Conciliation
c) Final offer arbitration
As part of your bargaining strategy, your management team wants to engage the union in brainstorming problems, identifying solutions, and consensus decision making. Which of the following types of bargaining best describes this approach?
a) Pattern bargaining
b) Distributive bargaining
c) Concessionary bargaining
d) Interest-based bargaining
d) Interest-based bargaining
Mary joins XYZ Company and is told that as a condition of employment she must join the union. This is known as:
a) An agency shop security clause
b) A union shop security clause
c) A voluntary union recognition clause
d) A preamble to employment clause
b) A union shop security clause
Rights arbitration is:
a) Binding only if both parties agree to the arbitrator’s recommendation
b) Used to settle a deadlock in the negotiation of a collective agreement
c) Used to settle a dispute arising from the interpretation of a collective agreement
d) Involves the union and management presenting final offers
c) Used to settle a dispute arising from the interpretation of a collective agreement
When the union’s and the employer’s negotiating positions overlap, this is referred to as:
a) The bargaining zone
b) The equilibrium zone
c) The blue zone
d) The bargaining exchange zone
a) The bargaining zone
The Canadian Union of Postal Workers is an example of what type of union?
a) Craft union
b) Administrative union
c) Employee association
d) Industrial union
d) Industrial union
From a union’s perspective, negotiating the collective agreement are the major responsibilities of:
a) Arbitrators
b) Shop stewards
c) Bargaining agents
d) Business agents
d) Business agents
Typically, a training needs assessment could include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Task analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Organization analysis
a) Cost-benefit analysis
Your organization has decided to partner with a local business college to engage a team of students to take on a project as part of their marketing course. What term best describes this type of training?
a) On-the-job training
b) Cooperative training
c) Internship training
d) Apprenticeship training
c) Internship training
You have been asked to design a sales training program and evaluate it using a summative evaluation methodology. Which of the following evaluation techniques will you most likely use?
a) Participant knowledge test administered at the end of the session
b) An end-of-session participant role-play scenario
c) An analysis of the change in sales volumes
d) An after-the-fact participant questionnaire to assess the behaviour change on the job
c) An analysis of the change in sales volumes
After a training program, participants are usually asked for their reactions. A question such as “How much of the training program can be applied to your job?” is an example of:
a) Affective reaction measure
b) Utility reaction measure
c) Self-report behaviour measure
d) Declarative learning measure
b) Utility reaction measure
__________________ forecasts the financial benefits derived from a training program.
a) Cost-effectiveness evaluation
b) Cost-benefit evaluation
c) Return on Investment
d) Utility analysis
d) Utility analysis
Which of the following methods of learning will maximize the learning retention of a complex series of tasks?
a) Massed practice and whole learning
b) Distributed practice and whole learning
c) Massed practice and part learning
d) Distributed practice and part learning
d) Distributed practice and part learning
Overlearning results in:
a) Habitual performance
b) Stronger locus of control
c) Lower learner satisfaction
d) Training fatigue
a) Habitual performance
Post-workshop assessment questions are created during what phase of the instructional systems design model of training and development?
a) Needs analysis
b) Design
c) Development
d) Evaluation
c) Development
Natasha wishes to stop smoking and is in the process of completing a smoking-cessation program offered by her employer. The trainer asks her to make a list of the times that she most enjoys a cigarette. This list is necessary as part of what process?
a) Behaviour modification
b) Relapse prevention therapy
c) Pre- and post-evaluation
d) Transfer of learning
b) Relapse prevention therapy
The students in Dr. Singh’s class recently learned how to conduct structured interviews. Robert, a student in the class, has just been given the opportunity to use those skills at work. That Robert was able to successfully use those skills at work is an example of:
a) On-the-job training
b) Role playing
c) Behaviour reinforcement
d) Transfer of learning
d) Transfer of learning
A key measure of an employee’s readiness to learn can be assessed by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) A trainability test
b) The participant’s perception of the transfer climate
c) The participant’s motivation to learn
d) The requirement for relapse prevention
d) The requirement for relapse prevention
Which of the following does not focus on enhancing the transfer of learning?
a) Ensuring an effective learning climate
b) Stress the value of the training to the participant
c) Remove work processes that conflict with the training from the work environment
d) Replicate aspects of the work environment in the training
a) Ensuring an effective learning climate
The phrase “transfer of training” refers to:
a) The ability of learners to apply the skills learned on their job
b) Transferring training program from one department to another in order to distribute the learning
c) Sharing training materials with colleagues from within your industry
d) Applying the concepts used in one training program to another
a) The ability of learners to apply the skills learned on their job
Which of the following training evaluation methods is unethical in some situations?
a) Pre-post design with control group
b) Post-only data collection design
c) Time series design
d) Single-group pre-post design
a) Pre-post design with control group
After attending a project management course, Bob’s project management skills were measured over a 2-month period. This level of training evaluation is known as:
a) Reaction
b) Learning
c) Behaviour
d) Results
c) Behaviour
Which of the following is NOT one of the fundamental criteria for evaluating the effectiveness of training?
a) Participant reactions
b) Transfer of learning
c) Program completion
d) Bottom line results
c) Program completion
Which of the following is the highest level of training evaluation?
a) Reaction evaluation
b) Learning evaluation
c) Behavioural evaluation
d) Results evaluation
d) Results evaluation
Which of the following training evaluation methods is the most difficult to perform?
a) Summative evaluation
b) Formative evaluation
c) Reaction evaluation
d) Behaviour evaluation
a) Summative evaluation
Andragogy learning designs differ from pedagogy learning designs in that:
a) The learner is more open to change.
b) The learner is more extrinsically motivated.
c) The learner’s experience is limited.
d) The learner has a problem-centred orientation to learning.
d) The learner has a problem-centred orientation to learning.
When determining a training program’s design and content, which of the following is NOT applicable?
a) Person analysis
b) Organization analysis
c) Resource analysis
d) Evaluation analysis
d) Evaluation analysis
One of the more difficult decisions trainers have to make concerns the amount of content to put into a course. The most effective way to determine the training content is to:
a) Consult with subject-matter experts
b) Review the research found in academic literature
c) Establish a ratio of content per training hour
d) Conduct a needs analysis
a) Consult with subject-matter experts
Which of the following is an example of a management development method that helps managers learn how to analyze, synthesize, and improve their decision-making skills?
a) Management games
b) Case studies
c) Role playing
d) Behaviour modeling
b) Case studies
After attending a seminar on project management best practices, you are asked to implement a project management training program for your manufacturing department. What is the first step you should take?
a) Identify the content of the training program.
b) Identify the best methodology for delivering the program.
c) Put out a request for proposal to possible trainers in the field.
d) Conduct a training needs analysis.
d) Conduct a training needs analysis.
All of the following are indirect employment rewards EXCEPT:
a) Commission
b) Pension benefit
c) Education reimbursement
d) Paid leave of absence
a) Commission
Advanced technology in the workplace has had which of the following impacts?
a) Increased number of employees suffering from higher levels of stress
b) A reduction in lower-skill jobs and an increase in those requiring higher skills
c) Increased speed of work resulting in employees having less time to do their work
d) Reduced requirement for employees to have excellent soft skills
b) A reduction in lower-skill jobs and an increase in those requiring higher skills
Over the past 25 years the employment relationship between companies and employees has shifted from being relationship-based to being transaction-based. This has resulted in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Decreased employee retention
b) Increased outsourcing
c) Increased use of technology
d) Increased number of freelance workers
c) Increased use of technology
When organizations adopt principles and practices that focus on a disciplined, data-driven approach and methodology for eliminating defects, this is an example of:
a) Six Sigma
b) Business Process Re-engineering
c) Quality Circles
d) Managing performance through a balanced scorecard
a) Six Sigma
Employee empowerment can be increased through the use of:
a) Self-directed work teams
b) Focus groups
c) Employee socialization
d) Employee suggestion programs
a) Self-directed work teams
Which of the following is NOT a good strategy for managing diversity?
a) Giving preference to minorities when promoting employees
b) Linking diversity initiatives to business objectives
c) Establishing quotas to ensure equal representation
d) Establishing cross-functional teams
c) Establishing quotas to ensure equal representation
Which of the following is NOT one of the behaviours that effective teams embrace?
a) Consensus decision making
b) Effective group-think
c) Active listening
d) Non-judgmental disagreement
b) Effective group-think
One of the most important factors leading to a successful quality circle is:
a) Comprehensive training in problem identification
b) Attractive rewards for outcomes achieved
c) The use of quality metrics
d) Management control
a) Comprehensive training in problem identification
Work teams at Madison Creative Group are made up of specialists from different areas in the company. This type of team would be referred to as:
a) A task force
b) A cross functional team
c) A project team
d) A self-directed work team
b) A cross functional team
The introduction of some new processes on the plant floor has resulted in an increased number of minor accidents. Which of the following employee involvement groups would be best suited to this situation?
a) A task force
b) A process improvement team
c) A project team
d) A focus group
a) A task force
Which of the following team characteristics does not strengthen team synergy?
a) Non-judgmental disagreement
b) Democratic decision making
c) Listening and clarification
d) Inclusion
b) Democratic decision making
If you wanted to engage employees in reviewing the quality of your employee orientation program, you would use:
a) A quality circle
b) A focus group
c) A task force
d) A project team
b) A focus group
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective employee involvement group?
a) They are led by a leader with authority.
b) They engage in disagreement.
c) Decisions are based on consensus vs democracy.
d) Members are recognized for their contributions.
a) They are led by a leader with authority.
Which of the following is true about equity theory?
a) Productivity is higher within diverse workforces.
b) Unemployment is lower when organizations adopt an equal opportunity hiring strategy.
c) Hierarchical organization structures contribute to employee alienation.
d) Employee motivation is impacted by perceptions about input/output ratios.
d) Employee motivation is impacted by perceptions about input/output ratios.
Expectance theory suggests that employee motivation depends on:
a) Reward valence and probability
b) A hierarchy of needs being met
c) One’s internal locus of control
d) Distributive and procedural justice
a) Reward valence and probability
Employees have greater motivation when they believe their effort will lead to desired outcomes. This is referred to as:
a) Self-fulfilling prophecy
b) Hawthorne effect
c) Self-actualization
d) Instrumentality
d) Instrumentality
Which of the following is the most effective way to gather information about the cause of employee turnover?
a) Focus groups
b) Exit interviews
c) Movement statistics
d) Employee surveys
b) Exit interviews
Cultures in which people are uncomfortable with uncertain and ambiguous situations can be described as:
a) Strong ambiguity cultures
b) Strong uncertainty avoidance cultures
c) Weak ambiguity cultures
d) Weak uncertainty avoidance cultures
b) Strong uncertainty avoidance cultures
________________ is positively related to job performance, and ________________ is negatively related to job performance.
a) Affective commitment; normative commitment
b) Positive commitment; negative commitment
c) Continuance commitment; normative commitment
d) Affective commitment; continuance commitment
d) Affective commitment; continuance commitment
Which of the following represents the correct relation among the variables?
a) Belief + Value + Attitude –> Behaviour.
b) Belief + Value = Attitude + Behaviour.
c) Belief + Value = Attitude –> Behaviour.
d) Belief + Attitude = Value –> Behaviour.
c) Belief + Value = Attitude –> Behaviour.
According to cognitive dissonance theory, one way to change attitudes would be to first teach people:
a) The relevant values that correspond with the desired behaviour
b) The relevant beliefs that correspond with the desired behaviour
c) The relevant attitudes that correspond with the desired behaviour
d) The relevant behaviours that correspond with the desired attitude
d) The relevant behaviours that correspond with the desired attitude
Research on employee attitudes that was the foundation for the Sear’s Service Profit Model showed that employee satisfaction was related to:
a) Absenteeism
b) Organizational citizenship behaviour
c) Job performance
d) Customer satisfaction
d) Customer satisfaction
Which job satisfaction facet is the best predictor of absenteeism?
a) Pay
b) Content of the work
c) Advancement opportunities
d) Considerate co-workers
b) Content of the work
Studies indicate that employees can be engaged, actively dis-engaged, non-engaged, and indifferent. Which of the following statements is true about employee engagement?
a) Studies show that employees of most organizations are engaged.
b) Compensation often ranked the most important factor in employee engagement.
c) Highly engaged workplaces experience greater profitability and higher shareholder value.
d) Studies show no correlation between CSR and employee engagement.
c) Highly engaged workplaces experience greater profitability and higher shareholder value.
One thing that is measured in an employee engagement survey that was not measured in traditional employee satisfaction surveys is:
a) Frequency and quality of performance feedback
b) Opportunity for training and development
c) Relationship with supervisor
d) Willingness to do more than what is required
d) Willingness to do more than what is required
In what type of situations will personality have a strong influence on individual behaviour?
a) Weak situations
b) Strong situations
c) Normative situations
d) All situations
a) Weak situations
According to behavioural plasticity theory, individuals with which of the following personality characteristics are more likely to be influenced by social cues and events in their environment?
a) An internal locus of control
b) An external locus of control
c) A low self-esteem
d) A high self-esteem
c) A low self-esteem
According to equity theory, people are motivated to obtain or maintain an equitable and fair exchange relationship by:
a) Attempting to receive more outcomes relative to others
b) Assessing their outcome/input ratios relative to others
c) Awarding “weaker” colleagues with higher outcome/input ratios
d) Ignoring the outcomes and inputs of others
b) Assessing their outcome/input ratios relative to others
What is the nature of the relationship between motivation and performance?
a) Motivation is perfectly related to performance.
b) Motivation and performance are unrelated.
c) Motivation contributes to performance.
d) Motivation and performance have a spurious relationship.
c) Motivation contributes to performance.
What is the difference between content and process theories of motivation?
a) Content theories focus on “what” motivates people, while process theories focus on “how” motivation occurs.
b) Content theories focus on “what” motivation occurs”, while process theories focus on “why” motivation occurs.
c) Content theories focus on “why” motivation occurs”, while process theories focus on “what” motivates people.
d) Content theories focus on “why” motivation occurs, while process theories focus on “how” motivation occurs.
a) Content theories focus on “what” motivates people, while process theories focus on “how” motivation occurs.
Which of the following is NOT a need in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
a) Physiological needs
b) Growth needs
c) Safety needs
d) Esteem needs
b) Growth needs
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a critical path analysis?
a) It is used to categorize all the activities of a project in terms of their importance.
b) It shows how much float time or flexibility there is for a particular project activity.
c) It identifies the tasks of a project that, if delayed, will cause the project to be delayed.
d) It is used to determine if a predetermined project end date can be met.
a) It is used to categorize all the activities of a project in terms of their importance.
When the activities of a project are plotted against a timeline, this is referred to as:
a) Value-stream mapping
b) Critical path flowcharting
c) Gantt chart
d) Activity diagramming
c) Gantt chart
The five-factor personality model that has been shown to have a strong predictive validity when selecting global leaders includes:
a) Intelligence quotient (IQ), emotional intelligence (EQ), strategic insight, political acumen, and empathy
b) Decision quality, assertiveness, communication skill, initiative, and persistence
c) Aptitude, determination, interpersonal skills, perseverance, and flexibility
d) Emotional stability, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, and conscientious
d) Emotional stability, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, and conscientious
Surveying managers about the best method of sourcing candidates, summarizing their feedback, and presenting it back to them for comments is an example of what process?
a) Trend analysis
b) Delphi technique
c) Impact analysis
d) Forecasting
b) Delphi technique
PIPEDA is the legislation that regulates:
a) How we compensate our employees
b) The way in which we store hazardous materials in the workplace
c) The training we must provide to ensure safety in the workplace
d) The information we can collect about employees
d) The information we can collect about employees
Which of the following statements is false about privacy legislation?
a) Employee files are the employer’s property and do not need to be accessible to the employee.
b) Information collected for the purpose of employment can only be used for the purpose for which it was collected.
c) Organizations must obtain employees’ consent to collect or disclose their personal information.
d) Organizations must ensure employees that their information will be protected by adequate safeguards.
a) Employee files are the employer’s property and do not need to be accessible to the employee.
An employee who was hired on a 1-year contract continued to work for another year without the employer issuing a new contract. As a result, the employee now assumes he is permanently hired. The regime of employment law that would address this issue is:
a) Statute law
b) Human rights law
c) Contract law
d) Labour law
c) Contract law
Which of the following statements is true about employment contracts?
a) They provide employees with statutory rights.
b) They are only legally binding if signed by both parties.
c) They are unenforceable if changes are made without additional consideration.
d) They only apply to workers who have a start and end date.
c) They are unenforceable if changes are made without additional consideration.
A set of standards that govern acceptable practices and moral judgments when determining right or wrong behaviour is known as:
a) Conflict of interest rules
b) Corporate policies
c) Code of ethics
d) Guiding principles
c) Code of ethics
The legislated program that ensures the same job, whether performed by a man or a woman, will have the same earning potential is referred to as:
a) Duty to accommodate
b) Employment equity
c) Equal pay for equal work
d) Equal pay for work of equal value
c) Equal pay for equal work
A field of study concerned with analyzing work processes and recording the time required to complete each task is referred to as:
a) Job analysis
b) Total quality management
c) Work re-engineering
d) Industrial engineering
d) Industrial engineering
As the HR manager for Royal Bank, a manager has come to you to enquire about the overtime entitlements for some non-management staff. Which legal framework will you consult?
a) Canada Labour Code
b) The employee’s employment contract
c) Employment Standards Act
d) Pay equity legislation
a) Canada Labour Code
Circumstances under which the Canadian Human Rights Commission can refuse to accept a complaint include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Too much time has passed between the incident and the complaint.
b) There are no grounds for the complaint.
c) There are no negative impacts arising from the incident.
d) There are no monetary impacts arising from the incident.
d) There are no monetary impacts arising from the incident.
A manufacturer of women’s clothing has advertised for female only models. This is an example of:
a) Adverse impact discrimination
b) Reverse discrimination
c) Gender-bias discrimination
d) Bona fide occupational requirement
d) Bona fide occupational requirement
Employment equity __________.
a) Addresses pay inequality between men and women
b) Provides for equal employment opportunities for designated groups
c) Is the application of consistent employment practices for all employees
d) Ensures an organization’s compensation program is aligned with the marketplace
b) Provides for equal employment opportunities for designated groups
An auto body shop that hires only male candidates because it has no female washroom is practising what kind of discrimination?
a) Systemic discrimination
b) Direct discrimination
c) Indirect discrimination
d) Justifiable discrimination
b) Direct discrimination
The piece of legislation that would enable workers to avoid paying union dues while continuing to receive benefits negotiated by the union is:
a) The Wagner Act
b) Canada Labour Code
c) Right to Work
d) Provincial Labour Acts
c) Right to Work
The police force’s policy that stipulated minimum height and weight requirements is an example of:
a) A bona fide occupational requirement
b) Systemic discrimination
c) Direct discrimination
d) A business necessity
b) Systemic discrimination
Which of the following practices could lead to adverse effect discrimination?
a) Implementing an employee referral program
b) Interviewing only candidates with English as a first language
c) Requiring pre-employment medicals from people with disabilities
d) Hiring only women into a female-dominant occupation class
a) Implementing an employee referral program
Which of the following is the Supreme Court of Canada decision that set new legal standards for the duty to accommodate?
a) Duke Case
b) Keays Case
c) Meiorin Case
d) Wallace Case
c) Meiorin Case
Drug testing of individuals who may have caused an accident while working in a safe-sensitive environment is:
a) Prohibited by law
b) Permitted by law
c) Permitted with the agreement of the employee
d) Permitted by law only in the case of injury
b) Permitted by law
A group of employees have been convened to design a new employee orientation program. This would be an example of what type of employee group?
a) Task force
b) Process improvement team
c) Focus group
d) Project team
d) Project team
In brainstorming, the _______________ of ideas generated is more important than the _______________ of the ideas.
a) Quantity; quality
b) Quality; quantity
c) Evaluation; variation
d) Nature; value
a) Quantity; quality
Legislation that impacts direct and indirect compensation practices includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Employment Standards Act
b) Employment Equity Act
c) Pay Equity Act
d) Workers’ Compensation Act
b) Employment Equity Act
In order to measure your organization’s programs against industry best practices, it is necessary to:
a) Establish a baseline
b) Use effectiveness metrics vs efficiency metrics
c) Monitor trends
d) Engage in benchmarking
d) Engage in benchmarking
Which of the following diagram-based techniques would be helpful when brainstorming the design of a new management development program?
a) Mind maps
b) Cause and effect diagram
c) Fishbone diagram
d) Gantt chart
a) Mind maps
Which of the following data gathering technique involves the brainstorming of ideas followed by individuals voting for the best idea?
a) Delphi technique
b) Nominal group technique
c) SWOT analysis
d) Flowcharting
b) Nominal group technique
Which of the following leadership styles is effective with employee involvement groups?
a) Democratic
b) Laissez-faire
c) Authoritarian
d) Paternalistic
a) Democratic
When Tim Horton’s executives decided to operate in other countries, they asked the HR executives if this would be possible, given employee capabilities and competencies. This planning process is an example of:
a) Contingency planning
b) Scenario planning
c) Concurrent strategy formulation
d) Environmental scanning
c) Concurrent strategy formulation
Which of the following occurs in a tight labour market?
a) Decline in wage rates
b) High unemployment
c) Equal numbers of job applicants and job openings
d) Rise in wages
d) Rise in wages
As part of the organization’s strategic planning exercise, the management wants to forecast future environmental challenges and opportunities. What process should they use?
a) Nominal group technique
b) Trend analysis
c) Index analysis
d) Regression prediction model
a) Nominal group technique
As a result of your organization acquiring a former supplier, it is now necessary to re-evaluate critical business processes and rethink how work should be done, how technology and people should interact, and how the organization should be restructured. This is referred to as:
a) Re-engineering
b) Total quality management
c) A six sigma evaluation
d) A strategic human capital review
a) Re-engineering
An organization’s mission statement describes:
a) The goals and metrics used to evaluate its performance
b) Where the business sees itself sometime in the future
c) The underpinning principles that guides the organization’s operations
d) The main focus of the business
d) The main focus of the business
When an organization conducts an environmental scan as part of a strategic planning exercise, which of the following is NOT part of the scan?
a) Economic trends
b) Industry trends
c) Technology trends
d) Succession planning trends
d) Succession planning trends
The growth of the global economy will result in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Increased competition for labour
b) A more diverse employee population
c) A decrease in demand for transformational leaders
d) Increased need for employee training
c) A decrease in demand for transformational leaders
When conducting an internal scan of the organization as part of the strategic planning process, in the context of HR Planning we focus on what is known as the 3 “C”s, which are:
a) Capabilities, composition, and culture
b) Competencies, compensation systems, and cost
c) Competitive practices, customers, and core employees
d) Core values, current staffing needs, and candidates
a) Capabilities, composition, and culture
Which of the following statements best describes the role of Strategic HR Planning vis-à-vis Strategic Organization Planning?
a) Strategic HR planning and strategic organization planning are two separate processes.
b) Strategic HR planning follows strategic organization planning when plotted on a timeline.
c) Strategic HR planning is conducted by the HR department in response to the organization’s strategic plan.
d) Strategic HR planning and strategic organization planning are reciprocal in nature.
d) Strategic HR planning and strategic organization planning are reciprocal in nature.
For the past five years, Quinn Industries, a custom wood furniture manufacturer, has been monitoring the softwood lumber issues in North America. This would be an example of:
a) Organizational analysis
b) Organizational scanning
c) SWOT analysis
d) Environmental scanning
d) Environmental scanning
To benchmark your HR programs within your industry, you will do all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Perform a cost-benefit analysis
b) Conduct a self-audit
c) Identify comparison companies
d) Perform a gap analysis
a) Perform a cost-benefit analysis
Which of the following is a qualitative approach to forecasting an organization’s demand for employees?
a) Management forecasts
b) Trend analyses
c) Markov analysis
d) Labour productivity ratios
a) Management forecasts
Environmental analysis examines all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Economic factors
b) Return on investment
c) Legislative issues
d) Social concerns
b) Return on investment
Which of the following statements is false?
a) The number of hours that Canadians work per week has been trending upwards.
b) The labour force participation rate in Canada is likely to decline in the coming decade.
c) The largest gains in employment have been in the service sector.
d) The percentage of the workforce that works part-time has increased over the past two decades.
a) The number of hours that Canadians work per week has been trending upwards.
When an organization’s strategic focus is to compete on “value added” products or services, it is said to have:
a) A low-cost strategy
b) A best-cost strategy
c) A differentiation strategy
d) A market niche strategy
c) A differentiation strategy
In HR, a balanced scorecard is most often used to:
a) Build an HR metrics model
b) Identify employee training needs
c) Measure employee performance
d) Support succession planning
a) Build an HR metrics model
Horizontal fit ensures that:
a) There is alignment between an organization’s business objectives and HR initiatives.
b) Different HR practices within an organization are aligned with one another.
c) HR practices are implemented consistently throughout the organization across different departments.
d) HR practices are implemented consistently for all career levels within the organization.
b) Different HR practices within an organization are aligned with one another.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a diverse workforce?
a) Increased customer satisfaction
b) Improved company reputation
c) Improved productivity through an increase in innovation and creativity
d) Increased employee engagement through the use of harmonized work teams
d) Increased employee engagement through the use of harmonized work teams
________________ is often referred to as the cornerstone of human resources management.
a) Job specification
b) Job description
c) Job analysis
d) Job evaluation
c) Job analysis
Your organization has joined with another to operate under a shared HR service model. As a result, your HR employees will move over to the shared service provider but reside in your offices and provide those services to you. This is an example of:
a) Outsourcing
b) Employee leasing
c) Strategic service model
d) Work sharing
b) Employee leasing
Which of the following statements is false?
a) The prevention of idea inbreeding is an advantage of hiring external candidates.
b) Filling highly specialized positions is best done through internal hiring.
c) Recruiting externally enables organizations to achieve their diversity goals.
d) Enhanced creativity and innovation is an advantage of hiring external candidates.
b) Filling highly specialized positions is best done through internal hiring.
Even though Mark has been paying into his pension plan for 32 years, he finds that the pension he will receive is not sufficient to enable him to retire. Which plan could result in this situation?
a) Hybrid plan
b) Defined benefits plan
c) Defined contribution plan
d) Contributory plan
c) Defined contribution plan
Which of the following pension plans specifically sets forth the amount an employee is to receive on retirement?
a) Defined benefit plan
b) Defined contribution plan
c) Non-contributory plan
d) Contributory plan
a) Defined benefit plan
Which of the following statements is false regarding a defined benefit pension plan?
a) Employer costs are limited to the contributions they make to the plan.
b) Employees make contributions into defined benefit pension plans.
c) The pension benefits paid to employees do not depend on the investment performance of the plan.
d) Underfunding of defined benefit plans becomes an issue in times of recession.
a) Employer costs are limited to the contributions they make to the plan.
All of the following statements about CPP/QPP are true EXCEPT:
a) These plans cover almost all Canadian employees between the ages of 18 and 70.
b) The contributions to the plan come from both employees and their employers.
c) Governments subsidize these plans with contributions into the plan
d) A contributor’s rights to benefits under the plans are not affected by a change in employment
c) Governments subsidize these plans with contributions into the plan
Which of the following statements about pay equity legislation is false?
a) Pay equity legislation is designed to address the undervaluing of traditional female occupations.
b) In order to comply with pay equity legislation, organizations must adopt a job evaluation process.
c) The examination of pay equity involves a wage comparison of female and male dominant occupations.
d) Pay equity awards are only given to women in jobs that have been under-valued.
d) Pay equity awards are only given to women in jobs that have been under-valued.
Incentives, bonuses, and commissions are examples of:
a) Strategic compensation
b) Indirect compensation
c) Mixed compensation
d) Direct compensation
d) Direct compensation
When employees believe that the wage rates for their jobs approximate the job’s worth to the organization, compensation policies are considered to:
a) Have procedural justice
b) Be externally competitive
c) Be an intrinsic motivator
d) Be internally equitable
d) Be internally equitable
The concept that applies when an organization is paying wages that are relatively equal to what other employers are paying for similar types of work is known as:
a) External pay equity
b) Comparable worth
c) Internal pay equity
d) Reward valence
a) External pay equity
What theory talks about instrumentality and reward valence?
a) Organization justice theory
b) Equity theory of motivation
c) Goal setting theory
d) Expectancy theory of motivation
d) Expectancy theory of motivation
Which of the following statements is false about having a broadbanding pay structure?
a) There are fewer pay ranges.
b) Job evaluation results are more important for determining pay.
c) There is more flexibility compared to traditional pay structures.
d) The risk of having inconsistent pay practices across department increases.
b) Job evaluation results are more important for determining pay.
Due to inflation, compensation rates have been adjusted upward periodically to help employees maintain their
a) Comparable worth
b) Job evaluation level
c) Purchasing power
d) “fringe” benefits
c) Purchasing power
The job evaluation system that evaluates jobs based on their impact to organization performance is called:
a) Job ranking
b) Work valuation
c) Point factor
d) Job classification
b) Work valuation
Job evaluation when used in combination with ______ increases the likelihood of internal and external equity.
a) Compensation strategy
b) Wage-survey data
c) Job descriptions
d) Incumbent qualifications
b) Wage-survey data
_______ encourages lateral skill building while addressing the need to pay employees performing multiple jobs with different skill level requirements.
a) Broadbanding
b) Point factor pay plans
c) Job classification
d) Job ranking
a) Broadbanding
A wage curve is a scattergram representing the relationship between ___________ and __________.
a) External wage rates; internal wage rates
b) The relative worth of a job; internal wage rates
c) The minimum point on the range; the maximum point on the range
d) The cost of living; the pay scale adjustment
b) The relative worth of a job; internal wage rates
For real wages to increase, which of the following must be true?
a) An employee’s wage increase must be greater than the increase in the CPI.
b) A scale adjustment must be provided to all employees.
c) An employee’s wages must simply increase.
d) The annual adjustments given to employees must be larger than the average market adjustment.
a) An employee’s wage increase must be greater than the increase in the CPI.
Salary compression occurs when:
a) New employees are hired at salaries far below those of the current job-holder.
b) A line worker earns more than his/her supervisor.
c) There is very little variation in pay for employees in the same grade.
d) An employee reaches the top of his/her pay grade.
b) A line worker earns more than his/her supervisor.
Which of the following determines the relative worth of each job in an organization?
a) Job analysis
b) Job specification
c) Job content
d) Job evaluation
d) Job evaluation
You have been asked to design a pay program that has a high degree of instrumentality. Which of the following features will you build into your program?
a) A discretionary bonus program
b) A job evaluation process
c) A performance evaluation process
d) A profit sharing plan
c) A performance evaluation process
When designing a compensation program, all of the following issues are considered EXCEPT:
a) The nature of the work
b) The characteristics of the workforce
c) Desired behaviours
d) The current level of employee performance
d) The current level of employee performance
Which of the following is a non-quantitative method of job evaluation?
a) Factor comparison method
b) Point factor method
c) Job ranking method
d) Statistical/Policy Capturing method
c) Job ranking method
An employee is paid $18.50 an hour when the pay range for the assigned grade is $7 to $8 an hour. This is referred to as:
a) Green circle rate
b) Pay differential
c) Red circle rate
d) Compressed salary
c) Red circle rate
Your non-union organization has expanded from Toronto to Saskatoon. In order to create a competitive wage structure for the new location, which of the following would NOT be considered?
a) The profitability targets for the new branch office
b) The local supply of labour
c) The local cost of living
d) Local competitor’s collective bargaining climate
a) The profitability targets for the new branch office
Which of the following statements about an employment contract is true?
a) If it is signed on the second day of employment, it is unenforceable.
b) It must always have a start and end date.
c) It needs to be witnessed to be enforceable.
d) It must always be in writing.
a) If it is signed on the second day of employment, it is unenforceable.
As the HR manager for a large professional services organization, you have been asked to recommend an initiative that will attract new MBA graduates from across Canada into your organization. Which of the following would you NOT recommend?
a) Enhanced bonus program based on hours worked
b) Monthly new grad employee group meetings with a key executive
c) Relocation assistance and support services
d) New grad training and development program
a) Enhanced bonus program based on hours worked
Your organization must downsize by 20% in the next month. You have been asked to recommend an approach that will achieve this but also will have the least negative impact on employee morale. Which of the following initiatives would you NOT recommend?
a) Voluntary separation
b) Employee sabbaticals
c) Work sharing
d) Hiring freeze
d) Hiring freeze
Organizations are facing a new challenge of tailoring their employment brand to suit a multi-generational workforce. According to generational research, which of the following ad campaigns would be attractive to Generation X applicants?
a) We are loyal to our employees.
b) We offer high salaries and perquisites.
c) We grow our employees.
d) We are socially responsible.
c) We grow our employees.
An employee has reached the top of his/her career path with no more opportunities for promotions. This is an example of:
a) A content career plateau
b) A life career plateau
c) An occupational career plateau
d) A structural career plateau
d) A structural career plateau
When a content career plateau occurs, it is usually because:
a) You have mastered all aspects of your job.
b) Your life outside of work has become more important than your career.
c) You require higher-level skills to perform well in your job.
d) You have reached a dead-end in your career path.
a) You have mastered all aspects of your job.
The three types of career plateaus are:
a) Structural, content, frictional
b) Structural, content, life
c) Structural, content, competency
d) Structural, content, promotional
b) Structural, content, life
An employee in the finance department with a boundaryless career profile has come to you for some advice on the training he should pursue. Which of the following would you NOT recommend?
a) Pursue an advanced accreditation within the financial profession
b) Attend a conference specific to your industry
c) Transfer within your organization to learn about other areas of the company
d) Network with people from other organizations
c) Transfer within your organization to learn about other areas of the company
A recent employee survey suggests that employees are frustrated with their advancement opportunities. One comment indicated that “advancement is only possible if others retire or leave the organization”. What problem are you facing?
a) The lack of dual career ladders
b) Employees experiencing a life plateau
c) Unrealistic inter-generational expectations
d) Employees experiencing a structural plateau
d) Employees experiencing a structural plateau
You have been asked for your insights on how to improve current employees’ perceptions about the internal job posting and placement program. Which of the following would you NOT recommend?
a) Review past practices to assess the frequency of internal and external placements
b) Ensure employees have access to information about job vacancies
c) Reassure employees that priority is always given to internal candidates when filling all vacancies
d) Adopt a standardized method for reviewing the qualifications of all internal applicants
c) Reassure employees that priority is always given to internal candidates when filling all vacancies
In the ___________________ stage, a person may shift his or her focus from work to community and may become involved with charities.
a) Early career
b) Late career
c) Organizational entry
d) Mid-career
d) Mid-career
In-basket exercises are best used to:
a) Simulate a problem situation
b) Assess leadership skills
c) Practice a skill
d) Examine a candidate’s past performance
a) Simulate a problem situation
Which of the following statements is false about diversity management?
a) Diversity management is voluntary for all employers, including federal contractors.
b) Diversity management addresses four groups: visible minorities, women, Aboriginals, and disabled.
c) Diversity management enhances organization’s ability to gain a strategic and competitive advantage.
d) Diversity management should be a strategic initiative and not an HR initiative.
b) Diversity management addresses four groups: visible minorities, women, Aboriginals, and disabled.
Which one of the following is NOT one of the Big Five Personality Dimensions?
a) Extraversion
b) Conscientiousness
c) Agreeableness
d) Ambition
d) Ambition
Which of the following is an accurate description of the research findings of the Big Five Dimensions of Personality and job performance?
a) Conscientiousness is related to employee retention.
b) Extraversion is related to employee motivation.
c) All dimensions are related to employee performance.
d) Agreeableness is related to employee competency.
c) All dimensions are related to employee performance.
Which of the following behaviour modification approaches reinforces positive performance?
a) Negative reinforcement
b) Punishment
c) Extinction
d) Behaviour replacement
a) Negative reinforcement
Barriers to effective performance can be classified as being human, technical, informational, and structural. Which of the following can be solved with a training solution?
a) Informational
b) Human
c) Technical
d) Structural
b) Human
Performance can be enhanced in a number of ways. Which of the following best describes contingency management?
a) Examine the existing performance consequences and tailor them to reinforce effective performance.
b) Examine employee skill deficiencies and identify training that will address the performance gap.
c) Examine the task and identify ways in which it can be simplified in order to improve performance.
d) Examine whether environmental obstacles exist from carrying out the task and remove them.
a) Examine the existing performance consequences and tailor them to reinforce effective performance.
In order to determine the net HR requirements, an HR analyst looks at the following statistics: a workforce of 1,000, an annual historical replacement loss rate of 10%, and a growth rate of 7%. How many employees need to be hired next year to meet the demand?
a) 70
b) 110
c) 170
d) 192
c) 170
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Replacement charts are used to estimate the supply of resources available.
b) Trend analysis is used in HR Planning to forecast the supply of labour.
c) Transition matrices describe the probabilities of how quickly a position turns over.
d) Staffing tables are used to estimate the demand of human resources required.
b) Trend analysis is used in HR Planning to forecast the supply of labour.
When forecasting the various patterns of movement to and from various jobs in an organization, the tool used is:
a) Replacement charts
b) Succession planning
c) Movement analysis
d) Markov models
d) Markov models
A technique used to analyze the chain or ripple effect that promotions or job losses have on the movements of other personnel in an organization is known as:
a) Movement analysis
b) Linear programming
c) Markov analysis
d) Succession or readiness charts
a) Movement analysis
The purpose of Movement Analysis is to:
a) Define the demand requirement for labour across the organization
b) Track the pattern of employee movement through their jobs
c) Create skills inventories for the career management purposes
d) Identify the ripple effect of promotions and job losses
d) Identify the ripple effect of promotions and job losses
Via Rail needs to lay off 3,000 workers in order to reduce costs to remain competitive. The company could use all of the following workforce reduction strategies EXCEPT:
a) Attrition
b) Termination
c) Contracting out
d) Voluntary retirement
c) Contracting out
Contracting out work that was formerly done by employees within the organization is known as:
a) Outsourcing
b) Outplacement
c) Employee leasing
d) Restructuring
a) Outsourcing
A visible minority candidate who experienced systemic barriers to employment may have faced all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Unsubstantiated language requirements
b) Culturally biased aptitude tests
c) Prejudiced attitudes of recruiters
d) Lack of recognition of her foreign education or credentials
c) Prejudiced attitudes of recruiters
All of the following are common methods of conducting job analysis EXCEPT:
a) Critical incident method
b) Position analysis questionnaire
c) Task inventory analysis
d) Whole-job classification method
d) Whole-job classification method
The job specifications section of the job description covers which areas?
a) Educational requirements
b) KSAOs
c) Job tasks and physical demands
d) Performance metrics
b) KSAOs
Which areas does a job description cover?
a) Tasks, duties, and responsibilities of the job
b) Knowledge, skills, abilities, physical demands
c) Pay, work hours, other benefits
d) Education requirements, performance metrics, pay scale
a) Tasks, duties, and responsibilities of the job
Which of the following statements about the PAQ is false?
a) It is a worker-oriented structured job analysis questionnaire.
b) It requires a college-level reading ability to complete it.
c) It is not considered valid unless used with a large number of incumbents.
d) It is best suited to assessing lower-level jobs.
c) It is not considered valid unless used with a large number of incumbents.
The purpose and objectives of job analysis include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) To identify wage disparities between jobs
b) To improve organization performance and productivity
c) To develop job descriptions and job specifications
d) To identify how work is done and how it should be divided
a) To identify wage disparities between jobs
Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing employee stress?
a) High eustress
b) High demand
c) Low control
d) Low reward
a) High eustress
Last night, after their shift was over, two long-term high-performing employees were caught racing their forklift vehicles from one end of the plant floor to the other. Which of the following actions is called for?
a) Ignore it as it was outside of work hours
b) Implement a practice of locking all forklifts so that they can’t be used outside of working hours
c) Communicate to all employees that forklifts are not to be raced in the plant
d) Give the employees a written warning
d) Give the employees a written warning
After completing a hazard identification and assessment, a supervisor who does not pass on information about unsafe conditions to a responsible manager would be charged under:
a) Workers’ Compensation Act
b) Industrial Disputes Act
c) Occupational Health And Safety Act
d) Canada Labour Code
c) Occupational Health And Safety Act
Paper and wood could be classified as combustible materials. Which of the following symbols represents this class of fire?
a) Green triangle
b) Red square
c) Blue circle
d) Yellow star
a) Green triangle
The four stages of fire include the incipient stage, which can be defined as:
a) The first stage where the source of ignition and fuel come together
b) The second stage where the fire begins to smoulder
c) The third stage where the fire is free-burning
d) The fourth stage where the fire is out of control
a) The first stage where the source of ignition and fuel come together
Maintaining accurate safety records and documenting health and safety improvements can assist an employer in proving:
a) Duties of the employer
b) Due process
c) Due diligence
d) Duties of the organization
c) Due diligence
Bridget is a laboratory employee at the Center for Disease Control scheduled to work with a particularly aggressive virus. She has refused to work on the project. Which of the following is true about this situation?
a) Bridget is in a high-risk occupation and has ceded her rights to refuse unsafe work.
b) Management can terminate Bridget for lack of work.
c) Management can transfer Bridget and replace her with another researcher.
d) Management can grant Bridget an unpaid leave of absence and hire another researcher to complete the project.
a) Bridget is in a high-risk occupation and has ceded her rights to refuse unsafe work.
Ian has come across a spill on the shop floor. The spill is in his usual work area, but he is not sure of the source of the liquid. What should Ian do?
a) Clean up the spill quickly to avoid an accident
b) Seek an MSDS and locate the product source
c) Contain the area and report the problem to his supervisor
d) Leave it for the health and safety committee to investigate
c) Contain the area and report the problem to his supervisor
The Ontario Occupational Health and Safety Act allows for two forms of stop work provisions. They include:
a) Inspector’s and joint committee’s findings
b) Bilateral and unilateral declaration
c) Employee and union accusations
d) Certified and uncertified rulings
b) Bilateral and unilateral declaration
The legislation that could criminally charge those who are responsible for health and safety but fail to provide safe work environments pertains to:
a) Bill C-45
b) Provincial Health and Safety Regulation
c) Workplace Safety and Insurance Act
d) Canada Labour Code
a) Bill C-45
The goals of Return To Work (RTW) programs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) To return an injured worker to work as soon as possible
b) To return an injured worker to his or her pre-injury earnings
c) To limit management contact with the injured worker to ensure privacy
d) To decrease the length of lost time claims
c) To limit management contact with the injured worker to ensure privacy
An important component of a RTW program is the completion of:
a) Physical competencies inventory
b) Physical capabilities analysis
c) Physical tasks inventory
d) Physical demands analysis
d) Physical demands analysis
Which of the following is an accident insurance premium pricing component in Workers’ Compensation?
a) Industry assessment
b) Experience rating
c) Time in job
d) Employee occupation
b) Experience rating
Workers’ compensation payments are typically based on:
a) A pre-existing schedule determined by the provincial government
b) A percentage of an employee’s pre-injury rates
c) A flat benefit schedule based on the employee’s tenure with the company
d) A contractual agreement between the employer and employees
b) A percentage of an employee’s pre-injury rates
Safety severity ratios are calculated using which of the following factors?
a) Days worked and number of lost-time injuries
b) Days worked and number of accidents resulting in medical claims
c) Hours worked and number of injuries
d) Hours worked and number of days lost to injury
d) Hours worked and number of days lost to injury
Due to an accident at work, John is unlikely to return to work. Which of the following statements about workers’ compensation insurance is false?
a) The amount paid depends on the industry in which he works and his employer’s premiums.
b) The amount paid depends on his earnings and the provincial legislation.
c) The amount paid is non-taxable.
d) The amount paid does not depend on the employer’s financial status.
a) The amount paid depends on the industry in which he works and his employer’s premiums.
As a percentage of one work shift, which of the following would you use to measure a person’s exposure to noise?
a) Sound pressure level meter
b) Octave band analyzer
c) Hearing assessments
d) Dosimeter
d) Dosimeter
When assessing the noise hazards present in a heavy machinery manufacturing plant, one would most likely consider:
a) Exposure periods, criterion levels, and exchange rates
b) Risk probability, decibels, and personal protective equipment
c) Risk severity, exposure periods, and engineering controls
d) Job design, root cause analysis, and prevention measures
a) Exposure periods, criterion levels, and exchange rates
What level of training evaluation provides data related to cost savings?
a) Reaction evaluation
b) Learning evaluation
c) Behaviour evaluation
d) Results evaluation
d) Results evaluation
Which of the following statements illustrates the company’s annual profit?
a) The income statement
b) The balance sheet
c) The budget
d) The variance report
a) The income statement
The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over time is known as:
a) Consistency
b) Reliability
c) Validity
d) Conformity
b) Reliability
Which of the following employment tests would require construct validity?
a) Assistants with community college diplomas are evaluated against those without diplomas.
b) Entry-level managers are tested for leadership and critical thinking skills.
c) Computer programmers are asked to debug a section of the code.
d) New hires are tested and their job performances are later compared to the test results.
b) Entry-level managers are tested for leadership and critical thinking skills.
Bob was a sales rep who was responsible for the Province of Saskatchewan, and Sue was a sales rep for Ontario. Bob’s sales potential and, therefore, earnings potential was lower than Sue. If Bob were to complain, he would claim:
a) Criterion deficiency
b) Criterion contamination
c) Range restriction
d) Validity
b) Criterion contamination
Which of the following statements about employment testing is false?
a) Ensuring that all candidates answer the same interview questions will increase assessment reliability.
b) Range restriction is a requirement for establishing validity.
c) A screening tool that tests for a skill that is not needed by the job lacks content validity.
d) A recruitment process that does not assess the essential skills required for the job is criterion deficient.
b) Range restriction is a requirement for establishing validity.
The appropriateness of measurement obtained by skill-based assessment test is determined by examining its:
a) Construct validity
b) Reliability
c) Content validity
d) Discriminant validity
c) Content validity
You have used two different assessments to test candidates’ communication skills. When both tests yield the same results, you can conclude that the assessments have:
a) Construct validity
b) Convergent validity
c) Concurrent validity
d) Predictive validity
b) Convergent validity
Which of the following statements is true about the evaluation methods used to assess recruitment and selection processes?
a) The success rate is the number of qualified candidates compared to the number of applicants.
b) The base rate is the number of candidates hired compared to the number of applicants.
c) The yield ratio is the number of positions filled compared to the number of positions vacant.
d) The selection ratio is the number of hired compared to the number of candidates considered.
d) The selection ratio is the number of hired compared to the number of candidates considered.
An organization received 150 applicants from an advertisement and interviewed 36 qualified applicants, 12 of whom are members of designated groups. The organization hired two applicants, one of whom is a visible minority. What is the yield ratio of qualified applicants to total applicants?
a) 8%
b) 24%
c) 32%
d) 33%
b) 24%
The number of applicants who could potentially be hired because they meet all required qualifications is referred to as:
a) The yield ratio
b) The base rate
c) The selection ratio
d) The candidate pool
b) The base rate
If we wanted to determine the relationship between test scores and criterion data, we would use:
a) Cross-validation
b) Validity coefficients
c) Correlation
d) Reliability measures
c) Correlation
If, when conducting a salary survey, you do not want outliers to influence your recommendation, which central tendency measure would you use?
a) The mean
b) The weighted average
c) The median
d) The mode
c) The median
If your organization sent a group of employees to an external training program that cost $10,000 and resulted in a 12% increase in productivity on a total payroll of $500,000 for the group, what would be the return on investment for the training program?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 500%
d) 50%
c) 500%
Costs for maintaining classroom facilities year-round, or for the purchase of projectors, televisions, and VCRs for the training department, are examples of:
a) Variable costs
b) Direct costs
c) Overhead costs
d) Indirect costs
c) Overhead costs
Which of the following is an indirect cost of training?
a) Cost of trainer salaries
b) Cost of training marketing materials
c) Cost of travel to and from training site
d) Cost of training facilities
b) Cost of training marketing materials
RTJ Co. has found that for every $1 spent on training, $30 was returned to the company. This represents an example of:
a) Cost-benefit evaluation
b) Return on investment
c) Yield ratio
d) Cost analysis
b) Return on investment
What are we measuring when we measure advertising cost per recruitment?
a) A human capital metric
b) A human resource metric
c) A productivity metric
d) A quality metric
b) A human resource metric
When forecasting whether the introduction of a new training program will produce sufficient increased productivity to result in at least a “break-even” outcome, you would conduct:
a) Utility analysis
b) Cost-benefit analysis
c) Direct to indirect cost analysis
d) Fixed and variable cost analysis
b) Cost-benefit analysis
Dysan, a manufacturer of plastic disc holders, held a training course for all clerical employees. Postage, shipping and telephone were charged as __________ cost, while the fringe benefits of the instructors were charged as __________ cost.
a) Direct; overhead
b) Direct; indirect
c) Indirect; direct
d) Indirect; overhead
c) Indirect; direct
Which of the following represents a fixed cost?
a) Rental costs
b) Labour costs
c) Material costs
d) Energy costs
a) Rental costs
In order to calculate the annual return on investment for the Sales Training Program delivered at ACME Software, the director of HR considered the following costs: one-time licensing fee for the training program, rental cost for the meetings rooms used at the local hotel, cost of the lunch for attendees, and the costs associated with reproducing the workshop materials for attendees. Which of these costs is a fixed cost?
a) The costs associated with reproducing the workshop materials for attendees
b) The rental cost for the meeting rooms used at the local hotel
c) The cost of the lunch for the attendees
d) The one-time licensing fee for the training program
d) The one-time licensing fee for the training program
Which of the following will NOT increase the return on investment of a project?
a) Increase the investment and profit
b) Increase the investment without increasing the profit
c) Decrease the investment without reducing the profit
d) Increase the profit without increasing the investment
b) Increase the investment without increasing the profit
You are hired as a consultant to recommend a measure that will determine if a training activity had any effect on creativity and subsequent product development. Which of the following research designs would be most appropriate?
a) Post-only design
b) Pre-post design with control group
c) Single-group pre-post design
d) Single-group design with control group
b) Pre-post design with control group
Which of the following methods should be used to assess the clarity and relevance of a workshop’s content?
a) Formative evaluation
b) Summative evaluation
c) Descriptive evaluation
d) Causal evaluation
a) Formative evaluation
Canadian Engineering Inc. hires electricians who must be certified by the province. The company gives them an exam prep workshop designed to prepare them for the certification exam. What is the best training evaluation design in this case?
a) Pre-post
b) Post only
c) Pre-post with control group
d) Time series
a) Pre-post
Half the carpenters of Fine Cabinetry went to a 1-day workshop. The selection of participants was made on a random basis. In order to evaluate the value of the workshop, the company conducted a performance assessment of all carpenters following the program. Which of the following evaluation designs would be LESS effective than this approach?
a) Time-series design with comparison group
b) Single-group post-test design
c) Pre-post design with control group
d) Single-group design with control group
b) Single-group post-test design
During the certification process, a signed authorization card indicates that:
a) The union will be certified.
b) The employee is willing to be represented by the union.
c) The negotiated agreement will be ratified.
d) The employee’s job will be in the bargaining unit.
b) The employee is willing to be represented by the union.
One of the plant managers has just terminated a non-union employee with notice and severance in accordance with statute and common law as a result of the employee not working fast enough in carrying out his duties. This is an example of:
a) Dismissal with cause
b) Constructive dismissal
c) Dismissal without cause
d) Wrongful dismissal
c) Dismissal without cause
When there is a deadlock in collective bargaining that is to be settled by a binding third party, the process that is used is:
a) Rights arbitration
b) Interest arbitration
c) Conciliation
d) Mediation
b) Interest arbitration
When faced with a bargaining deadlock, an arbitrator will do which of the following?
a) Recommend conciliating negotiations
b) Aim to improve communication between union and management
c) Decide final terms of the agreement
d) Recommend compromise solutions
c) Decide final terms of the agreement
In final offer arbitration, what must the arbitrator do?
a) The arbitrator must create an agreement based on the best of each side’s final offers.
b) The arbitrator must choose either the union or management’s final offer.
c) The arbitrator must craft his or her own terms to create an agreement.
d) The arbitrator must engage an alternative dispute resolution process.
b) The arbitrator must choose either the union or management’s final offer.
Your employees are currently conducting an information picket outside your place of work. Which of the following dispute resolution processes will you engage?
a) Grievance procedure
b) Interest arbitration
c) Expedited arbitration
d) Rights arbitration
b) Interest arbitration
Which of the following compensation programs are NOT found in unionized environments?
a) Piece-work premiums
b) Individual performance recognition programs
c) Profit sharing programs
d) Productivity gainsharing programs
b) Individual performance recognition programs
The inability of parties to freely negotiate settlements without third-party assistance is referred to as:
a) The narcotic or dependency effect
b) The chilling effect
c) Estoppel
d) New model unionism
a) The narcotic or dependency effect
The Rand Formula means:
a) Employees have to join the union if their job is in the bargaining unit.
b) Employees do not have to join the union but must pay dues if their job is in the bargaining unit.
c) Employees must be union members before they can be employed by the employer.
d) Employees can only opt out of joining the union if they have a religious or human rights objection.
b) Employees do not have to join the union but must pay dues if their job is in the bargaining unit.
The central federation of unions in Canada is known as:
a) The Trades and Labour Congress of Canada (TLC)
b) The Canadian Labour Congress (CLC)
c) The Canadian Federation of Labour (CFL)
d) The Canadian National Federation of Independent Unions (CNFIU)
b) The Canadian Labour Congress (CLC)
Which of the following is true about the Industrial Relations and Dispute Investigations Act (1948)?
a) It specified the right of workers to join unions.
b) It required both individual worker and management to negotiate in good faith.
c) It created a three-stage compulsory conciliation process.
d) It introduced the concept of strikes and lockouts.
a) It specified the right of workers to join unions.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three characteristics common to all jurisdictions in Canada pertaining to Labour Relations?
a) Only one union is to represent any individual bargaining unit.
b) All individuals have the right to unionize.
c) Labour Relations Boards have the power to administer the legislation.
d) Unfair labour practices apply to both union and management.
b) All individuals have the right to unionize.
As a result of experiencing higher profits than usual, a unionized employer made a surprise announcement at its annual town-hall meeting that all employees would receive a $500 bonus. Which of the following best describes this situation?
a) An unfair labour practice
b) An expression of management’s residual rights
c) A voluntary recognition program
d) A proactive compensation strategy
a) An unfair labour practice
All of the following are unfair labour practices by the employer during a certification drive EXCEPT:
a) Reviewing signed union authorization cards
b) Disciplining union sympathizers
c) Questioning employees about the content of a union meeting
d) Introducing an enhanced benefit that had been announced before the certification drive
d) Introducing an enhanced benefit that had been announced before the certification drive
When the employees at a mattress manufacturing plant go out on strike and, as a result, march in front of the retail stores that sell those mattresses with placards informing the public that they are on strike, this is an example of:
a) Unlawful trespassing
b) Primary picketing
c) An illegal strike action
d) Secondary Picketing
d) Secondary Picketing
Which of the following differentiates expedited arbitration from general rights arbitration?
a) It results in collective agreements being signed more quickly.
b) It is only applied to essential services.
c) It usually involves a sole arbitrator.
d) It involves the courts.
c) It usually involves a sole arbitrator.
A bargaining unit consists of:
a) The union’s collective agreement negotiating team
b) Employees eligible to be represented by the union
c) All employees in the location where the union has been certified
d) All employees below the management level in a unionized environment
b) Employees eligible to be represented by the union
Which of the following requires workers who do not join a union to pay the equivalent of union dues?
a) Closed shop
b) Voluntary dues check-off
c) Rand formula
d) Union shop
c) Rand formula
What is a Rand Formula?
a) The formula used to determine the appropriate representation of protected groups under employment equity legislation
b) A form of productivity gainsharing that results in employees benefiting from increased productivity
c) A union security clause indicating that union membership is not mandatory but that paying union dues is mandatory
d) A clause that outlines the pay differential paid to men and women as a result of gender inequality
c) A union security clause indicating that union membership is not mandatory but that paying union dues is mandatory
Which of the following would NOT be considered an unfair labour practice?
a) The employer providing financial support to employees opposed to unionization
b) The employer using a union-substitution strategy
c) The union representing only union members at grievance hearings
d) Employees going on strike before the collective agreement expires
b) The employer using a union-substitution strategy
Distributive bargaining results in the union and management:
a) Competing for limited resources
b) Seeking mutual gains
c) Focusing on high-priority interests
d) Seeking to match industry practices
a) Competing for limited resources
A ratification vote usually occurs:
a) After the labour relations board has received an application for certification
b) After the collective bargaining teams have reached agreement on a contract
c) After a resolution has been reached as a result of an arbitration process
d) After employees submit an application to decertify to the labour relations board
b) After the collective bargaining teams have reached agreement on a contract
You need to temporarily lay off 3 unionized mechanics. What criteria will you use to determine who to lay off?
a) Employee performance
b) Employee seniority
c) Employee skill sets
d) Employee absence record
b) Employee seniority
Physical fidelity is important to consider when using which method of training?
a) Behaviour modelling
b) Classroom workshops
c) Simulations
d) Case studies
c) Simulations
As part of a workshop, participants watch a video on how to assemble a product and then attempt the task themselves. This is an example of:
a) Behaviour modelling
b) On-the-job training
c) Role Playing
d) Simulation
a) Behaviour modelling
The most appropriate method for training senior management to handle critical decision-making is:
a) Problem-solving workshops
b) Self-study
c) Action learning
d) Behavior modelling
c) Action learning
Compared to on-the-job training, off-the-job training:
a) Costs less
b) Uses more training methods
c) Results in better transfer of training
d) Allows for active participation
b) Uses more training methods
Which of the following statements is true about mentoring?
a) Mentoring is for career development only.
b) A mentor is always older than a protégé.
c) Mentoring is a two-way process.
d) High profile people make the best mentors.
c) Mentoring is a two-way process.
A(n) __________ differs from others because it is regulated through a partnership among government, labour, and industry.
a) Apprenticeship program
b) Internship program
c) Co-operative program
d) Certified professional program
a) Apprenticeship program
When learning is occurring as a result of observing and modeling the behaviour of others, this is referred to as:
a) On-the-job learning
b) Experiential learning
c) Social learning
d) Expectancy learning
c) Social learning
What is the first step to setting up an assessment centre for selecting internal candidates for entry-level management positions?
a) Candidate assessment
b) Management position job analysis
c) Establishing program evaluation criteria
d) Identifying assessment tools
b) Management position job analysis
In which of the following on-the-job training methods might a seasoned employee assist a new employee in the development of technical, interpersonal, and communications skills?
a) Mentoring/coaching
b) Rotation/cross training
c) Vestibule training
d) Apprenticeship training
a) Mentoring/coaching
George is invited to meet with a group of managers at the company’s headquarters where the managers will be evaluated as they participate in a series of situations that resemble what they might be called upon to handle on the job. This is an example of:
a) Management game
b) Assessment centre
c) Management development
d) Simulation
b) Assessment centre
Smith Brothers Ltd. wants to deliver an interactive session for its senior management team entitled “introduction to coaching”. In order to reduce travel time, which of the following methods of delivery is the best option for delivering this program?
a) Video-conferencing
b) Webinar
c) Vestibule training
d) Programmed instruction
a) Video-conferencing
Which of the following would NOT enhance the climate for training transfer?
a) Peer support
b) Positive recognition
c) Discontinuance of old processes
d) Programmed learning design
d) Programmed learning design
As part of a supervisory development workshop, you have decided to enhance the participants’ motivation by applying what has been learned with the use of behaviour modification. Which of the following design features will be most effective in achieving this outcome?
a) Use role playing exercises extensively during the workshop
b) Link the participants with a mentor for follow-up coaching
c) Provide performance rewards for those who effectively apply the learning
d) Introduce learning contracts to reinforce the participant’s commitment to the training
c) Provide performance rewards for those who effectively apply the learning
